CDC 4N015A VOL.4 U.R.E.
Terms
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1. Organisms that cause infection and disease are called - Pathogens
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2. Which tem is used to describe the host's abiity to develop a tolerance for the invading organism - Commensalism
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3. which term is used to describe the measurement of the pathogenicity or ability of the organism to invade host tissues, withstand defenses and cause infection? - Virulence
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4. Infectious agents which are primitive one-celled , plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly are called - bacteria
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5. The classifcation of organisms responsible for the disease Rocky Mountain fever is - Rickettsaie
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6. The classification of organisms known to cause the disease malaria is called - Sporozoa
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7. Which infectious agent is considered parasitic - helminths
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8. What orgnism harbors or allows an agent to grow and reproduce - Host
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9. The stage of infection when systemic and localized symptoms appear is called - Illness
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Hepatitis is best defined as inflammation of the - Liver
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What communcable diseases are readily transmitted by casual contact and are difficult to control or prevent - Respiratory
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12. The Air Force uses the Enzyme-Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay(ELISA) and Western Blot tests to detect - The HIV antibodies
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13 Report communicable diseases to which one of the following offices? - Public Health
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14. Which one of the following offices is resonsible for preparing a list of reportable diseases? - Public Health
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15. A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by - completing an AF form 570 "Notification of Patient's Medical Status"
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16. Which medical term means the freedom of infection? - Asepsis
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17. Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all microorganisms? - Surgecial Asepsis
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18. Which substance is used to reduce the number of microorganisms on living tissue? - D???????
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19. Medical Asepstic handwashing is done to - protect patiens, co-workers and self
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20. Surgical aseptic handwashing is done to prevent infecting - Patients
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21. Why were transmission-based precautions developed by the Centers for Disease Control? - Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organisms known method of production
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22. Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaurtion? - Enteric
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23. Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored negative air pressure? - Airborne
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24. Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in which of the following types of isolation? - Reverse
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25. What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department - Put a gown, mask and gloves on the patient alert personnel transport
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26. Which guideline should you fllow when providing postmortem care to a patient who was in isolation? - Use the same precauations that you used when the patient was alive
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27. An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation is the - isolation cart
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28. When should gloves rather than non-sterile gloves be worn when working with a patient in isolation? - When doing a sterile procedure
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29. Which sterilization classification refers to instruments or objects introduced directyl into the bloodstream? - Critical
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30. Which sterilization classification is applied to equipment used to perform a fiberoptic endescope? - Semicritical
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31. What is the first step when preparing objects fo sterilization - Cleaning
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32. High-level disenfection will destroy all of the following except - spores
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33. Under the time related (traditional) method, which locally sterilized package would have a shelf life of 6 months? - Items in "peel-packed" wrapper
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34. What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method? - When packaging integrity is compromised
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35. Which method of sterilization is preferable for items that are delicate? - Ethylene Oxide
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36. For what type of patients are rectal temperatures contraindicated? - Cardiac
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37. When talking the rectal temperature of an adult patient, how far in the rectum should the thermometer be inserted? - 1.0 inch
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38. Which pulse point persists when stroke volume is low? - Carotid
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39. What is the anatomical location of the apex of the heart, which is used for ausculating the apical pulse? - Left side of the body, fourth or fifth intercostal space, micclavicular line.
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40. Which term is used to define difficult or painful breathing? - Dyspnea
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41. Slow or irregular shallow respiration called hypoventilation can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, which can result in a condition called - Respiratory Acidosis
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42. Rapid, deep breathing, referred to as hyperventilation, depletes the carbon dioxide level in the blood and can result in a condition called - Respiratory Alkilosis
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43. Which breathing pattern is characterized by an increase in both depth and rate of respiration and is associated with metabolic acidosis and renal failure? - Kussmauls
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44. Which sign, associated with the respiratory system , wold be an indication of pulmonary edema? - Thick, green, purulent sputum
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45. When performing a health history, which factor would you suspect did not contribute to a patient's hypertension? - Regular exercise
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46. Which blood pressure reading would be noticeable if a patient has suffered trauma to the head? - Decreasing systolic, rising diastolic
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47. What is another term for orthostatic hypotension? - Postural Hypotension
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48. Neurological checks should be performed on a patient with suspected - increased intracranial pressure
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49. A pulse oximetry machine can give false high reading when a patient being tested is suffering from - Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
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50. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygenation saturations fall below - 80 percent
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51. The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs during normal breathing is called - tidal volume
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52. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the predicted FEV1 or FVC? - 80
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53. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the FEV/FVC ratio? - 70
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54. Before administering the pulmonary function test, ensure the patient has not - eaten within the past hour
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55. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are - 2;3
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56. Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart musce initiate? - Sinoatrial (SA) node
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57. Where do the electrical impulses terminate within the heart? - Purkinje fibers
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58. Where is the Purkinje fiber networkd the most elaborate? - left ventricle
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59. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electroardiogram tracing are called? - artifacts
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60. What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings? - Arrythmia
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61. When you do an electocardiogram, where do you place the V2 chest lead on the individual - Left side of sternum, fourth intercostas space
- 62. If you are performing an electocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the
- USAF Central electrocardiographic library
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63. When converting pounds to kilograms, one kilogram is equal to how many pounds? - 2.2 lbs
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64. When taking an individual's measurements, standing height is recorded to the nearest - quarter inch
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65. A sitting height measurement is required on all - flying training physicals
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66. An individual's sitting height measurement si recorded to the nearest - quarter inch
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67. An individual's weight measurement is recorded to the nearest - quarter pound
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68. What is a girth measuremtent? - Distance around a body part
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69. Which symbol is used when recording a pulse on SF511, vital record? - O
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70. Which symbol is used when recoding a temperature on SF511, vital sign record? - . solid filled in dot
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71. When performing a urine test, a sample with a specific gravity of 1.030 suggests that a patient is experiencing - Dehydration
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72. How much fecal material is required to send to laboratory for a stool specimen? - 2 tablespoons
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73. Which site is not recommended for sking puncture to obtain a blood sample? - Elbow
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74. During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away? - It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test result
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75. The normal fasting blood glucose level is - 70 to 115 mg/dl
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76 What is the purpose of perfoming th Allen Test before performing an arterial blood gas (ABG) test? - Ensure the ulnar artery can maintain blood supply to the hand
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77. What should you instruct a patient to do before coughing up a sputum culture? - Rinse mouth with hot water
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78. The rapid strep test can only detect the presence of - "Group A" strep