BugsFromAllList

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ï»¿(T/F) The outer membrane for G+ and the cell membrane for G- act as major surface antigens.: FALSE: they DO act a major surface antigens BUT the outer mb for G- and the cell membrane for G+
Are endotoxins heat stable?: yes, stable at 100C for 1 hr.
Are endotoxins secreted from cells?: NO
Are endotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?: no, they don\\'t produce protective immune response
Are exotoxins heat stable?: no, destroyed rapidly at 60C (exception: Staphylococcal enterotoxin)
Are exotoxins secreted from cells?: YES
Are exotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?: Yes, TOXOIDS are used as vaccines
Describe the chemical composition of peptidoglycan.: Sugar backbone with cross-linked peptide side chains.
Describe the major components of a G- cell wall.: inner and outer lipid bilayer membranes - thin layer of peptidoglycan - periplasmic space - contains lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein and phospholipid
Describe the major components of a G+ cell wall.: one lipid bilayer membrane - thick layer of peptidoglycan - contains teichoic acid
Describe the process of conjugation.: DNA transfer from one bacterium to another.
Describe the process of transduction.: DNA transfer by a virus from one cell to another
Describe the process of transformation.: purified DNA is taken up by a cell
Does endotoxin induce and antigenic response?: no, not well
Does exotoxin induce and antigenic response?: Yes, induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins
Give two general functions of peptidoglycan: Gives rigid support - protects against osmotic pressure
How are Group A and Group B Strep primarily differentiated?: Group A are Bacitracin sensitive - Group B are Bacitracin resistant
How are the pathogenic Neisseria species differentiated?: on the basis of sugar fermentation
How are the species of Streptococcus primarily differentiated?: on the basis of their HEMOLYTIC capabilities
List the four phases of the bacterial growth curve.: Lag phase - log (exponential) phase - stationary phase - death phase
Name 2 G- rods that are considered slow lactose fermenters.: Citrobacter and Serratia
Name 3 G- rods that are considered fast lactose fermenters.: 1) Klebsiella 2) E. coli 3) Enterobacter
Name 3 G- rods which are lactose nonfermenters and Oxidase(-)?: Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus
Name 4 bacteria that use IgA protease to colonize mucosal surfaces.: 1) Strep. pneumoniae 2) Neisseria meningitidis 3) Neisseria gonorrhea 4) H. flu
Name 4 genus of bacteria that are G- \\'coccoid\\' rods.: 1) H. flu 2) Pasteruella 3) Brucella 4) Bordetella pertussis
Name 6 bacteria that don\\'t Gram\\'s stain well?: Treponema - Rickettsia - Mycobacteria - Mycoplasma - Legionella pneumophila - Chlamydia
Name four genus of bacteria that are G+ rods.: 1) Clostridium (an anaerobe) 2) Coynebacterium 3) Listeria 4) Bacillus
Name seven G+ bacteria species that make exotoxins.: 1) Corynebacterium diphtheriae 2) Clostridium tetani 3) Clostridium botulinum 4) Clostridium perfringens 5) Bacillus anthracis 6) Staph. aureus 7) Strep. pyogenes
Name three diseases caused by exotoxins.: Tetanus - botulism - diptheria
Name three G- bacteria species that make exotoxins.: 1) E. coli 2) Vibrio cholerae 3) Bordetella pertussis
Name three Lactose-fermenting enterics.: Eschericia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter
Name two diseases caused by endotoxins.: Meningococcemia - sepsis by G(-) rods
Name two type of Strep that exhibit alpha hemolysis?: S. pneumoniae - Viridans strep. (e.g. S. mutans)
Name two types of Strep. that are non-hemolytic (gamma hemolysis).: Enterococcus (E. faecalis) and Peptostreptococcus (anaerobe)
Name two types of Strep. that exhibit beta hemolysis.: Group A Strep. (GAS) and Group B Strep. (GBS)
Teichoic acid induces what two cytokines?: TNF and IL-1
What are the effects of erythrogenic toxin?: it is a superantigen - it causes rash of Scarlet fever
What are the effects of streptolysin O?: it is a hemolysin - it is the antigen for ASO-antibody found in rheumatic fever
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bacillus anthracis? (1): one toxin in the toxin complex is an adenylate cyclase
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bordetella pertussis? (3): Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation - causes whooping cough - inhibits chemokine receptor, causing lymphocytosis
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium botulinum?: blocks release of acetylcholine: causes anticholenergic symptoms, CNS paralysis; can cause \\'floppy baby\\'
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium perfringens?: alpha toxin is a lecithinase - causes gas gangrene - get a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium tetani?: blocks release of the inhibitory NT glycine; causes \\'lockjaw\\'
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Corynebacterium diphtheria? (3): 1) inactivates EF-2 by ADP ribosylation 2) pharyngitis 3) \\'pseudomembrane\\' in throat
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by E. coli? (2): this heat labile toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein - causes watery diarrhea
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Staph. aureus?: superantigen; induces IL-1 and IL-2 synthesis in Toxic Shock Syndrome; also causes food poisoning
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Vibro cholerae? (3): Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein - increases pumping of Cl- and H2O into gut - causes voluminous rice-water diarrhea
What are the general clinical effects of endotoxin?(2): fever, shock
What are three primary/general effects of endotoxin (especially lipid A)?: 1) Acivates macrophages 2) Activates completment (alt. pathway) 3) Activates Hageman factor
What are two exotoxins secreted by Strep. pyogenes?: Erythrogenic toxin and streptolysin O
What are two functions of the pilus/fimbrae?: Mediate adherence of bacteria to the cell surface - sex pilus forms attachment b/t 2 bacteria during conjugation
What are two species of Gram (-) cocci and how are they differentiated?: 1) Neisseria memingitidis: maltose fermenter 2) Neisseria gonorrhoeae: maltose NONfementer
What bacteria produces a blue-green pigment?: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What bacteria produces a red pigment?: Serratia marcescens (\\'maraschino cherries are red\\')
What bacteria produces a yellow pigment?: Staph. aureus (Aureus-> gold in Latin)
What culture requirements do Fungi have?: Sabouraud\\'s agar
What culture requirements do Lactose-fermenting enterics have?: MacConkey\\'s agar (make pink colonies)
What culture requirements does B. pertussis have?: Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
What culture requirements does C. diphtheriae have?: Tellurite agar
What culture requirements does H. flu have?: chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)
What culture requirements does Legionella pneumophia have?: Charcol yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine
What culture requirements does N. gonorrhea have?: Thayer-Martin (VCN) media
What G- rod is a lactose nonfermenter and is Oxidase+ ?: Pseudomonas
What is a function of the plasma membrane in bacterial cells.: site of oxidative and transport enzymes
What is a toxoid?: exotoxin treated with formaldehyde (or acid or heat); retains antigeniciy but looses toxicity
What is an acronym for remembering 6 bacteria that don\\'t Gram\\'s stain well?: TRMMLC: These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color
What is meant by alpha, beta, and gamma hemolysis?: On a Blood agar plate: alpha-> complete; clear - beta-> partial; green - gamma-> no hemolysis; red
What is the chemical composition of a glycocalix?: polysaccharide
What is the chemical composition of bacterial ribosomes?: RNA and protein in 30S and 50S subunits
What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?: Lipopolysaccharide
What is the chemical composition of exotoxin?: polypeptide
What is the chemical composition of spores?: keratin-like coat - dipicolinic acid
What is the funciton and chemical composition of the flagellum?: for motility - made of protein
What is the function of a glycocalix?: mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (i.e. catheters)
What is the function of spores?: provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals
What is the major chemical composition of the capsule?: Polysaccharide (*except Bacillus anthracis, which contains D-Glutamate)
What is the major function of the capsule?: antiphagocytic
What is the mode of action of endotoxin?: includes TNF and IL-1
What is the nature of the DNA transferred in conjugation?: Chromosomal or plasmid
What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transduction?: Any gene in generalized transduction; only certain genes in specialized transduction
What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transformation?: Any DNA
What is the periplasm? Where is it found?: the space between the inner and outer cell membranes found in G(-) bacteria.
What is the primary test to subcatergorize G- rods?: are they Lactose Fermenters?
What is the source of endotoxins?: cell wall of most G- bacteria (think N-dotoxin-> gram Negative)
What is the source of exotoxins?: certain species of some G+ and G- bacteria
What is the unique chemical component of Gram (-) cell membranes?: Lipopolysaccharide
What is the unique chemical component of Gram + cell membranes?: Teichoic acid
What is used to stain Legionella?: Use silver stain.
What species is Group A Strep?: S. pyogenes
What species is Group B Strep?: S. agalactiae
What stain is amyloid and gives an apple-green birefringence in polarized light?: Congo red
What stain is used for acid fast bacteria?: Ziehl-Neelsen
What stain is used for Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, and Chlamydia?: Giemsa\\'s
What stain is used for Cryptococcus neoformans?: India ink
What stains gylcogen, mucopolysaccharides and is used to diagnose Whipple\\'s disease?: PAS (periodic acid Schiff)
What test distinguishes Staph. and Strep?: Staph. are Catalase (+) and are in clusters - Strep. are Catalase (-) and are in chains
What test distinguishes Staph. aureus from Staph. epidermidis and Staph. saprophyticus?: S. aureus is Coagulase (+) - S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus are Coagulase (-)
What two things distinguish S. pneumoniae from Viridans Strep.?: S. pneumoniae: have Capsule; Optochin Sensitive - Viridans strep: No capsule; Optochin Resistant
What type of enzymes allows certain bacteria to colonize mucosal surfaces?: IgA proteases
When endotoxin activates complement, what are the secondary effects?: C3a: hypotension, edema - C5a: neutrophil chemotaxis
When endotoxin activates Hageman, what are the secondary effects?: coagulation cascade: DIC
When endotoxin activates macrophages, what 3 cytokines are released and what are the secondary effects?: IL-1--fever - TNF--fever, hemmoragic tissue necrosis - Nitic oxide--hypotension, shock
Where are the genes for endotoxin located?: on the bacterial chromosome
Where are the genes for exotoxin located?: on a plasmid or in a bacteriophage
Where are the spores of Clostridium botulinum found?: canned food - honey
Where is LPS found?: in the outer membrane of G (-) cell walls
Which has a higher toxicity: exotoxin or endotoxin?: EXOTOXIN: fatal dose is ~1ug! (for endotoxin, fatal dose is hundreds of micrograms)
Which type of Neisseria ferment Glucose only?: Gonococci (Glucose-> Gonococci)
Which type of Neisseria ferment maltose and glucose?: Meningococci (MaltoseGlucose-> MeninGococci)
Which types of transfer can eukaryotic cells do?: only transformation
Which types of transfer can prokaryotic cells do?: all 3: conjugation, transduction, and transformation
Why don\\'t Mycobacteria Gram\\'s stain well?: high lipid content cell wall requires acid-fast stain
Why don\\'t Mycoplasma Gram\\'s stain well?: no cell wall
Why don\\'t Rickettsia, Chlamydia, and Legionella Gram\\'s stain well?: they are intracellular (Legionella is Mainly intracellular)
Why don\\'t Treponema Gram\\'s stain well?: too thin to be visualized (use darkfield microscopy and antibody staining)
Name 5 species of bacteria that are transmitted to humans from animals.(Acronym: BBugs From Your Pet.): Borrelia burgdorferi - Brucella spp. - Francisella tularensis - Yersinia pestis - Pasteurella multocida
All Rickettsiae (except one genus) are transmitted by what type of vector?: arthropod (Coxiella is atypical: transmitted by aeresol)
Are G(-) bugs resistant to Pen G? to ampicillin? to vancomycin?: G- bugs are resistant to PenG but may be susceptible to pen. derivative like ampicillin. The G- outer mb inhibits entry of PenG and vancomycin.
Are Strep. pneumoniae sensitve to optochin? Are Viridans strep.?: Strep. pneumoniae is optochin-Sensitive - Viridans streptococci is optochin-Resistant
Are Strep. pyogenes Bacitracin-sensitive?: YES.
Are Viridans strep. alpha, beta, or non-hemolytic?: alpha
Because of drug resistance, what in an alternate treatment combination for leprosy?: rifampin with dapsone and clofazimine
Besides the rash, what other body systems are affected by Lyme disease? (3): joints -CNS -heart
Describe lab-findings for Pseudomonas aeruginosa.: Aerobic, G(-) rod. - Non-lactose fermenting - Oxidase positive - Produces pyocyanin (blue-green pigment)
Describe the disease associated with M. avium-intracellulare.: often resistant to multiple drugs; causes disseminated disease in AIDS.
Describe the H. flu vaccine. When is it given?: contains type b capsulare polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein. -Given b/t 2m and 18m.
Describe the typical findings with diarrhea caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli. (3): 1) Ferments lactose 2) watery diarrhea 3) no fever/leukocytosis
Describe the typical findings with Vibro cholerae. (3): 1) Comma-shaped organisms 2) rice-water stools 3) no fever/leukocytosis
Do Streptococcus pneumonia have catalase? Do Viridans Strep. have catalase?: NO. both are catalase -
Enterococci are hardier than nonenterococcal group D bacteria. What lab conditions can they grow in?: 6.5% NaCl (used as lab test)
Following primary infection with TB, if preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination occurs, what follows?: =-dormant tubercle bacilli form in several organs - REACTIVATION can occur in adult life
Following primary infection with TB, if severe bacteremia occurs, what follows?: Miliary tuberculosis and possibly death
Following primary infection with TB, if the lesion heals by fibrosis, what is the result?: Immunity and hypersensitivity---> tuberculin positive
Following primary infection with TB, under what conditions would the lesion likely progress to lung disease?: HIV, malnutrition. This progressive lung disease can rarely lead to death.
Following primary infection with TB, what are 4 possible courses the disease could take?: 1) Heals by fibrosis 2) Progressive lung disease 3) Severe bacteremia 4) Preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination
Give 3 examples of obligate anaerobes.: Clostridium - Bacteroides - Actinomyces
Give 3 types of infection Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly responsible for.: 1) burn wound infection 2) nosocomial pneumonia 3) pneumonia with cystic fibrosis
Give 4 examples of encapsulated bacteria.: 1) Strep. pneumoniae 2) Haemophilus influenza (especially b) 3) Neisseria memingitidis 4) Klebsiella pneumoniae
H. flu causes what? (4): Epiglottitis -Meningitis -Otitis media -Pneumonia (haEMOPhilus)
How are Borrelia visualized?: using aniline dyes (Wright\\'s or Giemsa stain) in light microscopy
How are Mycobacteria visualized in the lab?: acid-fast stain -> Ziehl-Neelson
How are Treponema visualized?: by dark-field microscopy
How can secondary tuberculosis in the lung occur?(2): 1) Reinfection of partially immune hypersensitized hosts (usu. adults) -> exogenous source 2) Reactivation of dormant tubercle bacilli in immunocompromised or debilitated hosts -> endogenous source
How can you remember that Viridans strep are resistant to optochin?: they live in the mouth and are not afraid of the (opto-)CHIN
How does primary syphilis present?: with a painless chancre (localized disease; 2-10 wks).
How does secondary syphilis present?: disseminated disease (1-3m later) with constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash, condylomata lata (genital lesions)
How does tertiary syphilis present?: gummas (granulomas), aortitis, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis), Argyll-Robertson pupil
How does the bacterium cause the disease?: via exotoxin encoded by beta-prophage; exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
How does the rash with typhus differ from the rash with RMSF?: typhus: maculopapillary rash BEGINS ON TRUNCK, moves peripherally -RMSF: macules progressing to petichiae BEGIN ON HANDS &FFET and move inward.
How is Brucellosis/Undulant fever transmitted?: dairy products, contact with animals
How is Cellulitis transmitted?: Animal bite; cats, dogs
How is H. flu transmitted?: aeresol
How is Legionnaires\\' disease diagnosed in lab?: use silver stain (doesn\\'t Gram stain well) -culture with charcoal yeast extract with iron and cysteine.
How is Legionnaires\\' disease transmitted?: aeresol transmission from envirnomental water source habitat (NO human-to-human transmission).
How is Lyme disease transmitted?: Tick bite; Ixodes ticks that live of deer and mice
How is Shigella spread?: food, fingers, feces, and flies\\'
How is the Plague transmitted?: Flea bite; rodents, especially prairie dogs
How is Tuleremia transmitted?: Tick bite; rabbits, deer
Is Bacillus anthracis G+ or G-? What is its morphology?: It is a G+, spore-forming rod
Is there an animal reservoir for leprosy?: Yes, armadillos in the US
List 5 findings associated with rheumatic fever. (Hint: PECCS): Polyarthritis - Erythema marginatum -Chorea - Carditis - Subcutaneous nodules
List the \\'ABCDEFG\\' of diphtheria.: ADP ribosylation -Beta-prophage -Corynebacterium - Diphtheria - Elongation Factor 2 - Granules
Name 2 alpha-hemolytic bacteria.: Strep. pneumoniae - Viridans streptococci
Name 2 bugs that cause diarrhea but NOT fever and leukocytosis?: E. coli and Vibro cholerae
Name 2 disease processes that can be caused by enterococci.: 1) UTI 2) subacute endocarditis
Name 2 species of enterococci.: Enterococcus faecalis -Enterococcus faecium
Name 2 symptoms of diphtheria.: pseudomembraneous pharyngitis (grayish white membrane) - lymphadenopathy
Name 3 spore forming bacteria.: Bacillus anthracis - Clostridium perfringens - C. tetani
Name 4 beta-hemolytic bacteria.: 1) Staph. aureus 2) Strep. pyogenes (GAS) 3) Strep. agalactiae (GBS) 4) Listeria monocytogenes
Name 4 lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria.: Klebsiella -E. coli -Enterobacter Citrobacter (think Lactose is KEE for first three listed)
Name 4 obligate aerobic bacteria.: Norcardia - Pserudomonas aeruginosa - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Bacillus
Name 5 bugs that cause watery diarrhea.: 1) Vibrio cholerae 2) enterotoxigenic E. coli 3) viruses (rotavirus) 4) protozoa (Cryptosporidium and (5) Giardia)
Name 6 bugs that cause bloody diarrhea.: 1) Salmonella 2) Shigella 3) Campylobacter jejuni 4) enterohemorrhagic/enteroinvasive E.coli 5) Yersinia enterocilitica 6) Entamoeba histolytica (a protozoan)
Name 7 faculatative intracellular bacteria.: 1) Mycobacterium 2) Brucella 3) Francisella 4) Listeria 5) Yersinia 6) Legionella 7) Salmonella
Name three genera of spirochetes.: Borrelia (big size) - Leptospira -Treponema (think: BLT; B is big)
Name two lab tests used to detect syphilis?: VDRL and FTA-ABS
Name two non-lactose fermenting bacteria that invade intestinal mucosa and can cause bloody diarrhea.: Salmonella and Shigella
Name two obligate intracellular bacteria.: Rickettsia and Chlamydia (Hint: \\'stay inside when its Really Cold.\\')
RMSF is endemic to what part of the US?: the East Coast (in spite of the name)
Spore are formed by certain species of what type of bacteria?: Gram+ rods, usually in soil; form spores only when nutrients are limited
T/F Chlamydia are obligate intracellular parasites that cause mucosal infections.: TRUE
T/F Chlamys means cloak.: TRUE (intracellular)
T/F Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase negative and are glucose fermenters.: TRUE
T/F H. pylori infection is a risk factor for peptic ulcer and gastric carcinoma.: TRUE
T/F Penicillin is not an effective treatment against Mycoplasma pneumoniae.: TRUE Mycoplama are naturally resistant b/c they have no cell wall.
T/F Pseudomonas produces both endotoxin and exotoxin.: TRUE: endotoxin---> fever, shock -exotoxin---> inactivates EF-2
T/F Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular parasites and need CoA and NAD.: TRUE
T/F Some enterococci are resistant to PenG.: FALSE: ALL enterococci are naturally resistant to Pen/cephlosporins.
T/F Spores have no metabolic activity.: TRUE
T/F: S. aureus food poisoning is due to the ingestion of bacteria that rapidly secrete toxin once they enter the GI tract.: FALSE: rapid onset of S. aureus food poisoning is due to injestion of PREFORMED toxin
The Weil-Felix reaction usually tests positive for what two diseases? Negative for what? Cross reacts with what?: Positive: typhus and RMSF -Negative: Q fever -Cross-reacts: with Proteus antigen
Think COFFEe for Enterobacteriaceae. What does that stand for?: Capsular -O-antigen -Flagellar antigen -Ferment glucose -Enterobacteriaceae
What\\'s a pneumonic for remembering 4 obligate aerobes?: Nagging Pests Must Breath (-> Norcardia - Pserudomonas aeruginosa - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Bacillus
What (6) infections can Pseudomonas aeruginosa cause?: burn-wound infections -Pneumonia (esp. in cystic fibrosis) -Sepsis (black skin lesions) -External Otitis (swimmer\\'s ear) - UTI -hot tub folliculitis
What 2 bugs can cause bloody diarrhea, fever, and leukocytosis, but do not ferment lactose?: Salmonella and Shigella
What animals carry Lyme disease?: The Ixodes tick transmits it. - Deer are required for tick life cycle. - Mice are important resservoirs.
What anitbody class is necessary for an immune response to encapsulated bacteria?: IgG2.
What are 2 disease processes caused by Viridans strep and what species are responsible?: 1) dental caries: Strep. mutans 2) bacterial endocarditis: Strep. sanguis
What are 2 options for triple thearpy treatment of H. pylori?: (1) bismuth (Pepto-Bismal), metronidazole, and tetracyclin or amoxicillin. OR (2) metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin (#2 is more expensive)
What are 3 advantages/differences between VDRL and FTA-ABS?: FTA-ABS is 1) more specific 2) positive earlier in disease 3) remains positive longer than VDRL
What are 3 disease processes caused by Strep. pyogenes?: 1) Pyogenic--pharyngitis, cellulitis, skin infection 2) Toxigenic--scarlet fever, TSS 3) Immunologic--rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis
What are 4 biological false positives for VDRL?: 1) Viruses (mono, hepatitis) 2) Drugs 3) Rheumatic fever and rheumatic arthritis 4) Lupus and leprosy (-> VDRL)
What are 4 clinical symptoms of \\'walking\\' pneumonia?: 1) insidious onset 2) headache 3) nonproductive cough 4) diffuse interstitial infiltrate
What are 4 clinical symptoms of TB?: 1) fever 2) night sweats 3) weight loss 4) hemoptysis
What are 5 areas that can be affected by extrapulmonary TB?: 1) CNS (parenchmal tuberculoma or meningitis) 2) Vertebral body (Pott\\'s disease) 3) Lymphadenitis 4) Renal 5) GI
What are the lab findings with Chlamydia?: cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa fluorescent antibody-stains smear
What are the symptoms of RMSF? (3): 1) rash on palms and soles (migrating to wrists, ankles, then trunck) 2) headache 3) fever
What are the three stages of Lyme disease?: 1) erythema chronicum migrans, flu-like symptoms 2) neurologic and cardiac manefestations 3) autoimmune migratory polyarthritis
What are the two forms of chlamydia?: 1) Elementary body (small, dense): Enters cell via endocytosis 2) Initial or Reticulate body: Replicates in the cell by fission
What are the two forms of leprosy (or Hansen\\'s disease)?: 1) lepromatous- failed cell-mediated immunity, worse 2) tuberculoid- self-limited.
What are two drugs that could be used to treat \\'walking\\' pneumonia?: tetracycline or erythromycin
What are two drugs that could treat Chlmydia?: erythromycin or tetracycline
What are two lab findings associated with \\'walking\\' pneumonia?: 1) X-ray looks worse than patient 2)High titer of cold agglutinins (IgM)
What are usually associated with pseudomembraneous colitis?: Clostridium difficile; it kills enterocytes, usu. is overgrowth secondary to antibiotic use (esp. clindamycin or ampicillin)
What bacteria are G+, spore-forming, anaerobic bacilli?: Clostridia
What bacteria causes a malignant pustule (painless ulcer); black skin lesions that are vesicular papules covered by a blak eschar?: Bacillus anthracis
What bacteria exhibits a \\'tumbling\\' motility, is found in unpasteurized milk, and causes meningitis in newborns?: Listeria monocytogenes
What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-resistant?: Strep. agalactiae
What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-sensitive?: Strep. pyogenes
What bacteria is catalase+ and coagulase+?: Staph. aureus
What bacteria produces alpha-toxin, a hemolytic lecithinase that causes myonecrosis or gas gangrene?: Clostridium perfringens
What bacterium causes Cellulitis?: Pasteurella multocida
What bacterium causes leprosy?: Mycobacterium leprae
What bacterium causes Lyme disease?: Borrelia burgdorferi
What bacterium causes the Plague?: Yersinia pestis
What bacterium causes Tularemia?: Francisella tularensis
What bacterium causes Undulant fever?: Brucella spp. (a.k.a. Brucellosis)
What bug causes atypical \\'walking\\' pneumonia?: Mycoplama pneumoniae
What bug causes gastroenteritis and up to 90% of duodenal ulcers?: Helicobacter pylori
What bug causes Legionnaire\\'s disease?: Legionella pneumophila
What bug is associated with burn wound infections?: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What bug is comma- or S-shaped and grows at 42C, and causes bloody diarrhea with fever and leukocytosis?: Campylobacter jejuni
What bug that causes diarrhea is usually transmitted from pet feces (e.g. puppies)?: Yersinia enterocolitica
What causes tetanus? (give bacteria and disease process): Clostridium tetani: exotoxin produced blocks glycine release (inhibitory NT) from Renshaw cells in spinal cord
What causes the flu?: NOT H. flu -it is caused by influenza virus
What chemical is found in the core of spores?: dipicolinic acid
What coccobacillus causes vaginosis: greenish vaginal discharge with a fishy smell; nonpainful?: Gardnerella vaginalis
What disease does Bordetella perussis cause? How?: Whooping cough: toxin permanently disables G-protein in respiratory mucosa (turns the \\'off\\' off);ciliated epithelial cells are killed; mucosal cells are overactive.
What disease does Vibrio cholerae cause? How?: Cholera: toxin permanently activates G-protein in intestinal mucosa (turns the \\'on\\' on) causing rice-water diarrhea
What disease is caused by Borrelia?: Lyme Disease
What disease is caused by Clostridium botulinum? What pathophys. does it cause?: Botulism: associated with contaminated canned food, produces a preformed, heat-labile toxin that inhibits ACh release---> flaccid paralysis.
What diseases (2) are caused by Treponema?: Syphilis (T. pallidum) -yaws (T. pertenue; not and STD)
What diseases can be caused by Staph. aureus?: Inflammatory disease: skin infections, organ abcess, pneumonia - Toxin-mediated disease: Toxic Shock Syn., scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), rapid onset food poisoning (enterotoxins)
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes A, B, and C cause?: chronic infection, cause blindness in Africa (ABC-> Africa / Blindness / Chronic
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K cause? (3): urethritis/ PID - neonatal pneumonia -neonatal conjuctivitis
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1,L2, and L3 cause?: lymphogranuloma venereum (acute lymphadentis: positive Frei test)
What do RMSF, syphilis, and coxsackievirus A infection have in common?: rash on palm and sole is seen in each (coxasackievirus A -> hand, foot, and mouth disease)
What does catalase do? Which bacteria have it?: it degrades H2O2, an antimicrobial product of PMNs. - Staphlococci make catalase; Strep. do NOT.
What does the H-antigen represent?: H: flagellar antigen, found on motile species

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