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The description for each of the subdivisions of the 2W career field is found in which reference?
Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.
Which careerfield is subdivision is responsible for the overall maintenance of nuclear weapons, major components, and related equiptment, such as test and handling equiptment?
Nuclear Weapons.
What are the first steps toward becoming a top manager of the munitions systems specialty?
Complete basic training, be assigned to the career field, and complete tech school.
The munitions systems superintendant is usually reserved for which grades?
Senior master sergenat (E-8) and chief master sergeant (E-9).
Who serves as the office of primary responsibility for the overall management of the Career Field Education and Training Plan?
Air Force Career Field Manager.
What course must be completed for a craftsman to be upgraded to a superintendant?
AFCOMAC's CAPP Course (as a SNCO).
Which section of the Career Field Education and Training Plan part II indentifies the specialty training standard?
A
Who chairs the annual Worldwide Munitions Managers' Conferance?
Air Staff personnel.
Which agency develops command supplements or directives?
MAJCOM.
Which agency reviews the availability and allocation forecast and develops a call-forward schedule according to mission planning, storage capacity, and munitions requirements?
Major Commands.
Which control point operates at the MAJCOM level?
Theater Ammunition.
Which control point provides direct support to smaller geographical areas within a theater?
Regional ammunition.
Which organization has cradle-to-the-grave responsibility of a weapon system?
HQ AFMC.
Which organization manages the Air Superiority Missiles logistics inventory?
Air Force Tactical Missile Control Point.
Which type of wing often provides functional support to a major command headquarters?
Air Base.
What is the basic organizational unit in the Air Force?
Squadron.
Which organization performs maintenance and repair on aircraft systems and components?
Maintenance.
Who appoints the munitions flight chief?
Squadron Commander.
Who must ensure key and lock custodians are appointed?
Munitions supervision personnel.
Who must notify customers within 24 hours of suspended or restricted ammunition?
The MASO.
Who must enforce the strict use of TO's and pertinent publications during all explosive operations?
Munitions Flight section chiefs.
Who must ensure good housekeeping practices, safety, security, and environmental control standards are enforced?
Munitions section chiefs.
Which section within munitions flight maintains and delivers conventional munitions?
Production.
Which element within the munitions flight processes/certifies munitions residue from flight line and demilitarization operations for turn-in?
Conventional munitions maintenance.
Which element within the munitions flight inspects and tests assigned missiles?
Precision guided munitions maintenance.
Which element within the munitions flight inspects and maintains assigned non-powered munitions material handling equipment?
Munitions support equipment maintenace.
Which element wihtin the munitions flight works closely with weapons expeditors for all flight line support?
Line delivery.
Which element within the munitions flight plans and schedules the maintenance of live, inert, and dummy munitions and support equiptment?
Munitions Plans and scheduling element.
Which section wihtin the munitions flight stores, handles, inspects, receives, and accounts for conventional munitions?
Material.
Which plan is primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force Presence and is fully developed by functional experts?
In-Garrison Expeditionary Site.
Who is responsible for developing the Munitions Employment Plan?
Munitions Supervision personnel.
What information does a good master storage plan provide?
Location, quantity, and condition of munitions assets.
Authority to direct the execution of an operating plan (OPLAN) or concept of operations (CONPLAN) plan belongs to the
National Command Authority.
In reference to implementing an operation or munitions employment plan, which order initiates developing a course of action?
Warning.
In reference to implementing an operation or munitions employment plan, which order gives the combatant commander all essential execution planning information?
Planning.
In reference to implementing an operation or munitions employment plan, which order provides the combatant commander an approved course of action for planning purposes?
Alert.
One substantial benefit of contamination avoidance is that it increases the
suvivability of personnel.
What is the prefered method of protecting vehicles, equiptment, and munitions stores from chemical contamination?
Indoor storage.
In reference to command and control issues, who serves as the unit control center for munitions activities?
Munitions Control.
In reference to operational decontamination procedures, which item is issued in small booklets and when dipped in a suspected chemical, immediately changes color?
M8 Paper.
In reference to operational decontamination procedures, which item is used to decontaminate equiptment and munitions?
M295 Kit.
Into which physical security protection level do nonnuclear alert forces fall?
2
Into which physical security protection level do F-16 fighting fall?
3
How many entry control points should be set up for each restricted area?
1
What type of munitions are stored in a close-in security area?
Nuclear Weapons.
Standards and procudres for protecting arms and munitions vary according to
risk category.
Which Department of Defense risk category consists of complete man-portable nonnuclear missiles and rockets?
I
Which option is considered a communications indicator of operation security (OPSEC)?
Call signs.
Performing duties in a critical personnel reliability program position normally requires
Detailed technical knowledge of nuclear weapon systems.
Who provides all AF personnel a safe and healthy work environment in which recognized hazards have been eliminated or controlled?
Commanders.
Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health program, which action is a responsibility of both workers and supervisors?
Understanding and obvserving safety standards.
What category of human factors leading to accidents includes attitude and distractions?
Mental.
Vehicles other than those in the actual proess of being loaded or unloaded may not be parked closer than how many feet from an explosive storage area or facility?
25 Feet.
An electrical storm is considered "in teh near vicinity" when it is within approximentally how many miles of the munitions storage area?
5 miles.
In the Department of Defense hazard classification system, Class 1-explosives are further divided into divisions based on the
nature of the hazard and its potential for injury or damage.
Munitions are grouped into the same hazard division when they have
like explosive characteristics.
Hazard class 1 of the DOD hazard classification system has how many divisions?
6.
Which munitions are associated with explosive class/division 1.4?
Small arms munitions.
What type of report may be submitted on any even or condition that affects flight, ground, or weapons safety, or occupational health?
Hazard.
What TO work package contains the illustrated parts breakdown?
998-00.
What information must be included in explosives operations local written procedures?
Step-by-step procedures in proper sequence for doing the task.
It is essential that missile safety personnel are familiar with
range safety requirements.
The Air Force instruction that governs the intrinsic radiation safety program is 91-
108.
What is the intent of the "as low as reasonably achievable" (ALARA) concept?
Reducing unnecessary radiation exposure.
Allowance standards generally only list what types of items?
Nonexpendable.
You should replenish bench stock items when the quantity is equal to or less than what percentage of the authorized quantity.
50.
Long-life containers should survive how many trips?
100.
Management uses maintenance data collection information for all of the following purposes except to
generate weapon status reports.
When the automated system to document maintenance data (work orders) is not available, use the manual method by completing an
AFTO IMT 349.
The type of maintenance similar to performing a lube, oil, and filter change on your own automobile is known as what kind of maintenace?
Preventative.
Which menu in the tactical missile reporting system allows you to verify who completed a task?
Missile history.
All of the following missiles are tracked using the tactical missile reporting system except
AGM-86.
Performing periodic functional testing on missiles falls under whcih of the maintenance levels?
Intermediate.
Using the "CORRECTIVE ACTION" block, how is an errornous red dash or red diagonal entry corrected on an AFTO IMT 244, Industrial/Support Equiptment Record?
Enter "symbol entered in error, no discrepancy exists" and enter the minimum signature in teh "CORRECTED BY" box.
On AFTO IMT 244, Industrial/Support Equiptment Record, what symbol indicates that an unsatisfactory condition exists on the support equiptment or training equiptment, but is not urgent or dangerous enough to justify removing the equiptment from use?
Red Diagonal (/).
With what agency would you coordinate on matters relating to the security of resources?
Central security control.
Who must be notified of fire symbol changes?
Fire department.
How many keys are high/medium secuirty locks and cylinders received from the manufacturer with?
3.
In accordance with DOD 5100.76-M, you should audit keys, locks, and cylinders
Semiannually.
Which computer database is utilized to maintain status and tracking of munitions activities on an installation?
Munitions Control 2000.
Who appoints accountable officers?
Responsible wing or group commander.
Which of the following documents provided by your MAJCOM, contain teh type and quantities of conventional munitions to be stocked at your base, plus indicate those assets stored at another location for you?
War consumable distribution objective.
What document does the ammunition control point use to record the allocation decision?
Detailed logistics allocation report.
What WRM program allows for the rapid movement of critical munitions assets from one region to another as priorities or circumstances dicdate?
Afloat prepositioned fleet.
Which of the following are standardized, air transportable packages of munitions used in support of specific fighter and bomber aircraft weapons systems?
Standard air munitions packages.
What are the primary causes for munitions shortages?
Poor forecasting and overstatement of requirements.
What is the computer database utilized by munitions personnel for managing forecasts and allocations throughout the Air Force, and is accessed throguh CAS?
Agile munitions support tool.
What major category code is used to replace worn-out and damaged items?
A.
What is established to control requisitions against an item and to ensure all contingencies and training requirements are supported?
Munitions stock levels.
What program is used to request supplemental allocations and authorize loading them into CAS?
Supplemental allocation authorization request.
What are supplemental allocations request called once they are approved?
Special levels.
What is used for requisitioning purposes to offset transportation funding deficits for overseas commands once a year?
Call Forward.
The unit requisitions replace guidance and control units based on what factor?
The number of unserviceable guidance and control units returned to the depot or manufacturer.
When is the responsibility transferred from the carrier to the munitions personnel?
When the in-checker signs for the property.
What process introduces an item into the base munitions inventory?
Receiving.
A receiving inspection must be completed within how many days of in-checking/receipt of munitions assets?
30 days.
What process transfers munitions from base stockpile to a custodian's control?
Issuing.
Who many authorize verbal or written issue request?
MASO.
The transfer to an authorized supply point of a munitions asset that will not be consumed or installed until an unspecified date describes what type of issue?
Custody.
An unfilled issue request is reffered to as a
due-out.
Which type of turn-in would be used for components removed or for the turn-in of empty containers?
Organizational.
What element ensures that the expenditure paperwork is accurately completed?
Munitions Accountability.
Documents for mission capability shipments must be turned over to transportation within
24 hours.
How often will the MASO inventory each custody account?
Once every twelve months.
When funding does not permit the MASO or designated representative to be present, who performs the inventory?
MASO requests the commander of the off-base custody account to appoint disinterested individuals.
How often will account custodians inventory risk category I missiles and rockets maintained outside the MSA?
Once every month.
Which method is used to perform complete inventories?
Closed-warehouse.
What is entered on the count sheet?
Physical count.
The relief of accountability will provide what type of information?
Negligence involved, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use.
How often must document control files be backed up?
At least once weekly.
Shipment paperwork must be returned to document control for filing within how many days after the shipment leaves the base before they are considered delinquent documents?
5 days.
Inventory adjustment paperwork must be returned to document control for filing within how many days from processing before they are considered delinquent documents?
5 days.
What must be on all documents that are permanently filed?
Proper lot numbers and serial numbers.
Who must designate a responsible individual to maintain accountability of assets until a MASO is established at the deployed location?
Installation deployment officer.
Who is responsible for accurate accounting and reporting of all munitions located at the deployed or pre-positioned locations?
The MASO.
What is the minimum skill level required to be a certified munitions inspector?
5.
A munitions item or component never intended or designed to contain explosive material is considered
Non-explosive.
What can be safely used to open a ballooned barrier bag?
A wooden stick.
A receiving inspection must be accomplished within how many days of an asset arriving on your base?
30 calendar days.
Who is responsible for managing the installations storage monitoring inspection program?
The senior munitions inspector.
Munitions in what condition are tagged with DD form 1574/1574-1 (yellow tag)?
Serviceable.
Which unserviceable item tag is used on munitions that are uneconomical to repair?
DD Form 1577.
What CAS program displays condition and status of stockpile and custody assets?
Asset balance inquiry.
Who may authorize local disposal of unserviceable items and non-repairable inert munitions valued at less than $500 per item?
Munitions Accountable Systems Officer.
What type of report is used to identify a shipping related problem caused by the shipping activity?
Supply Discrepancy Report.
The purpose of the SF 364 is to determine what type of discrepancy?
Shipping.
Which example is considered a category I deficiency report?
A deficiency that uncorrected would cause major damage to equipment or a weapons system.
What form is used to report product quality deficiencies?
SF 368.
Which two inspections require you to use TO 11A-1-53?
Pre-issue and shipping.
The material remaining after a munitions item has had its explosive material filler removed by either normal functioning or demilitarization is called
munitions residue.
Which procedure is performed during the initial munitions inspection?
Visual inspection of vehicle seals.
Who must be notified immediately when the documentation for in incoming shipment of nonstandard items is missing or incomplete?
The flight chief.
Which container if the choice for transporting munitions by an ocean going vessel?
20 foot ISO
When you do not have an original container, what can you use to have one built?
SPID requirements.
Who issues the competent approval authority, certification of equivalency, and interim hazard classification?
OO-ALC
Which form is a common document used for the shipment of munitions from army depots or contract facilities?
DD Form 1149.
What are the two greatest dangers to munitions?
Fire and excessive heat.
Igloos are divided into two categories, what are they?
Standard and non-standard.
What is the most secure way of installing a hasp on the door of a munitions storage facility?
Welding.
When lubricating locks how often should you put grease and oil into the lock cylinder?
never.
What is the type of barricade used when protected storage facilities are built underground, into hills, or separated by a hill that may reduce Q-D requirements?
Natural.
What is the type of barricade that uses a select cohesive earth fill, free from unhealthy organic matter, trash, debris, and frozen material?
Artificial.
Who is responsible for posting or changing the fire symbol?
The crew chief of the operation.
In location designator 34A003C001E, what does the A represent?
The designated bay within a warehouse.
What is the explosive result expected from two different explosives that are compatible?
They are expected to produce the same reaction if initiated.
Where should the lite box be stored?
On the top and to the front of the stack.
What may be stored in structures containing explosives?
Inert munitions items.
Who makes a written agreement authorizing custody assets to be courtesy stored?
The munitions storage area flight chief and the organizational commander.
How often are courtesy storage agreements reviewed?
Annually.
What storage method is the concept of storing enough munitions in a single igloo to provide a capability to build specific complete rounds?
Complete round storage.
What storage method was designed and tested to increase the explosive storage capacity of limited NEW igloos, without increasing QD separation requirements?
Buffered storage.
Each weapon storage and security system vault used to store nuclear weapons can store a maximum of how many weapons?
4.
What weapon storage and security system (WS3) group provides physical storage and security for special weapons and related equiptment?
Vault control group.
What weapon storage and security system group provides communications and processing capabilities to status monitor up to 80 vault subsystems?
Console.
What weapons storage and security system major group provides the operator at the monitoring facility the means to observe, visually, access to the control panel and each vault assembly?
Monitor-indicator.

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