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ADVIL what it is it used for?: ACHES AND PAINS
ALAVERT What is it used for?: NON-DROWSY ALLERGY RELIEF
In orgiginal mint and citrus flavor
AlESSE 1.What is this drug used for? 2. What is the dosage? 3. What are the ingrediants?: 1. Oral contreceptive
2. 1 pink tab daily for 21 days 1 light green inert tab for 7
3. .10 Levonorgestrel .02 of ethinyl estradiol
ALTACE 1. What is Altace? 2. Dosage?: 1. Rampipril-Ace inhibitor
2. ALTACE should be given at an initial dose of 2.5 mg, once a day for 1
week, 5 mg, once a day for the next 3 weeks, and then increased as
tolerated, to a maintenance dose of 10 mg, once a day.
What is an ACE inhibitor?: ACE inhibitors help to reduce blood pressure by decreasing production of a protein (called an angiotensin-converting-enzyme, or ACE) â€” produced in the human body â€” that can cause the blood vessels to constrict.
What does Altace reduce?: ALTACE reduced the risk of heart attack, stroke, and death beyond other cardiovascular medications taken alone. These medications included aspirin, cholesterol-lowering agents, and blood pressure medications.
Ambesol 1.What is it used for? 2. What are the different strengths?: 1. Oral health-0ral pain relief
Toothaches, cankersores, cold sores, dentures, braces, teething..
2. Regular, Maximum strength, Cold sore therapy
for adults, Ambesol jr and Baby Ambesol for kids
Antivenin (Crotalidae) Polyvalent (equine origin)1.What is it used for? 2.How is it given: 1. Antivenin is indicated only for the treatment of envenomation caused by bites of those crotalids
(pit vipers)
2. Best intravenously
Antivenin (Micrurus Fulvius) (Equine Origin) 1. What is this drug for? 2. How is it given?: Antivenin (Micrurus fulvius) (equine origin) is indicated only for the treatment of envenomationcaused by bites of those coral snakes
2. Intravenously
What is Benefix used for? How is it administered and supplied?: BeneFIX is indicated for the control and prevention of hemorrhagic episodes in patients with hemophilia B (congenital factor IX deficiency or Christmas disease), including control and prevention of bleeding in surgical settings.
2. IV intravenously, supplied in single use vials which contain nominally 250, 500, or 1000 IU per vial
What is Bursine-2?: Bursine-2 is a live vaccine for protection against infectious bursal disease (IBD) in chickens. Our whole chicken embryo production process and non-cloned master seed combine to give broad protection against IBD. In tests against more than 14 field isolates of IBD from around the world, Bursine-2 has shown consistent efficacy.
What is Caltrate used for? What is it?: Osteoporosis
Bone Health
Calcium supplement
What is Cefa-Lak and Cefa-Dri?: Cefa-Lak (cephapirin sodium) allows dairy producers to treat mastitis in lactating cows. It delivers proven broad-spectrum protection to help reduce mastitis, improve milk quality, and increase milk production for the whole herd.

Cefa-Dri (cephapirin benzathine) provides broad-spectrum mastitis protection for non-lactating cows, and is approved to deliver powerful, bactericidal killing action against the leading mastitis-causing pathogens: Streptococcus agalactiae and Staphylococcus aureus strains resistant to penicillin.

Cefa-Dri and Cefa-Lak feature Opti-Sert®, the exclusive easy-to-use syringe tip for partial insertion, which helps prevent contamination from teat surface bacteria and reduces damage to the teat structures.
What is Centrum?: Multivitamin
Get the essential vitamins and minerals your body needs with Centrum® multivitamins in tablets or chewables. And now we've added lycopene!
What is chapstick?: Keeping your lips looking and feeling healthy is quick and easy with ChapStickÂ® Classics. No wonder itâ€™s Americaâ€™s favorite lip balm. Wherever you go, whenever you need it, ChapStickÂ® Classics protect to help heal for softer, healthier lips every day. So make sure youâ€™ve always got ChapStickÂ®.
What is Cordarone? What is it used for?: amiodarone HCl
Cordarone is a medicine used in adults to treat life-threatening heartbeat problems called
ventricular arrhythmias, for which other treatment did not work or was not tolerated. Cordarone
Tablets have not been shown to help people with life-threatening heartbeat problems live longer.
Treatment with Cordarone Tablets should be started in a hospital to monitor your condition. You
should have regular check-ups, blood tests, chest x-rays, and eye exams before and during
treatment with Cordarone Tablets to check for serious side effects.
What is CYDECTIN?: CYDECTIN (moxidectin) Pour-On, labeled for use in beef and dairy cattle of all ages, is effective against a broad spectrum of important internal and external parasites. This includes protection against the Ostertagia ostertagi (brown stomach worm), the most economically devastating internal cattle parasite in the United States, for 28 days. CYDECTIN is also effective against grubs, lice and horn flies, and is the only pour-on labeled for control of the common scab mite. Its formulation remains fully effective under wet conditions and is non-flammable. A zero-day slaughter withdrawal and zero-day milk discard increases marketing flexibility. And CYDECTIN Pour-On (moxidectin) has no impact on dung beetles, which help increase forage availability, improve pasture health, control parasites, and reduce the spread of animal disease.

Also included in the CYDECTIN line of products is CYDECTIN® Injectable and CYDECTIN® Oral Drench for Sheep. CYDECTIN Injectable is for internal and external parasite control in beef cattle of all breeds and ages including bulls, heifers, brood cows, calves 8 weeks of age and older, and non-lactating dairy cattle, while CYDECTIN Oral Drench for Sheep is for internal parasite control in sheep.
What is Dicural?: Dicural (difloxacin HCl) is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic offering veterinarians
once-per-day dosing to treat deep infections caused by a variety of gram-positive and gram-negative pathogens. With Dicural, effective bactericidal levels are reached within 30 minutes, with high bactericidal plasma levels maintained for up to 24 hours. Veterinarians benefit from the sustained bactericidal efficacy and flexible dosing of Dicural, allowing them to safely regulate the amount of difloxacin administered. Dicural features a long elimination half-life, meaning the drug is slowly eliminated from the body and is available to treat infection.
What is Dimetapp used for? How supplied? What is the active ingrediants?: Colds, Allergies, flu
liguid
Dimetapp® has the congestion-fighting power to relieve stuffy noses. It also tackles even the most bothersome runny noses which lets you and your child breathe a whole lot easier.
Best of all, kids love its yummy grape taste!
Brompheniramine maleate, USP 1 mg .Antihistamine Phenylephrine HCl, USP 2.5 mg Nasal decongestant
What is the active ingrediant in Dimetapp ND: Loratadine 10mg
What is DURAMUNE ADULT?: Duramune Adult is the first USDA-licensed vaccine with 3 year virus challenge data against a trio of deadly canine diseases: canine distemper (CDV), canine adenovirus (CAV-2), and canine parvovirus (CPV). The vaccine is particularly well suited as a booster for adult dogs if an extended vaccination interval program is being utilized.
What is Duramune MAX?: Duramune Max vaccines offer protection against today's most current field isolates of canine parvovirus, canine distemper, canine adenovirus, and canine parainfluenza. The vaccine is also available in combination with and without coronavirus and Leptospira (including the emerging serovars, L. grippotyphosa and L. pomona). All Duramune Max Leptospira vaccines are developed using a subunit manufacturing technique, which eliminates unnecessary cellular debris, leaving the remaining purified surface immunogens to produce the vaccine.
What is EFFEXOR?: Effexor (venlafaxine hydrochloride) is a structurally novel antidepressant for oral administration.
Effexor (venlafaxine hydrochloride) is indicated for the treatment of major depressive disorder.
The efficacy of Effexor in the treatment of major depressive disorder was established in 6-week
controlled trials of adult outpatients whose diagnoses corresponded most closely to the DSM-III
or DSM-III-R category of major depression and in a 4-week controlled trial of inpatients meeting
diagnostic criteria for major depression with melancholia
What is EFFEXOR XR?: Effexor XR (venlafaxine hydrochloride) extended-release capsules is indicated for the treatment of major depressive disorder.

The efficacy of Effexor XR in the treatment of major depressive disorder was established in 8- and 12-week controlled trials of adult outpatients whose diagnoses corresponded most closely to the DSM-III-R or DSM-IV category of major depressive disorder.
Effexor XR is indicated for the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) as defined in DSM-IV. Anxiety or tension associated with the stress of everyday life usually does not require treatment with an anxiolytic.

Effexor XR is indicated for the treatment of Social Anxiety Disorder, also known as Social Phobia, as defined in DSM-IV (300.23).
What is EMBREL?: ENBREL is indicated for reducing signs and symptoms, inducing major clinical response, inhibiting the progression of structural damage, and improving physical function in patients with moderately to severely active rheumatoid arthritis. ENBREL can be initiated in combination with methotrexate or used alone.

ENBREL is indicated for reducing signs and symptoms of moderately to severely active polyarticular-course juvenile rheumatoid arthritis in patients who have had an inadequate response to one or more disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs.

ENBREL is indicated for reducing signs and symptoms, inhibiting the progression of structural damage of active arthritis, and improving physical function in patients with psoriatic arthritis. ENBREL can be used in combination with methotrexate in patients who do not respond adequately to methotrexate alone.

ENBREL is indicated for reducing signs and symptoms in patients with active ankylosing spondylitis.

ENBREL is indicated for the treatment of adult patients (18 years or older) with chronic moderate to severe plaque psoriasis who are candidates for systemic therapy or phototherapy.
What are EtoGesic® Tablets?: EtoGesic Tablets (etodolac) are a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can be given once daily to manage the pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis in dogs. With EtoGesic, dogs can move more freely and enjoy a fuller, more active life. The product is rapidly absorbed, has a long half-life, and can be given once per day with or without food.
What is Fel-O-Vax®: Fort Dodge Animal Health's Fel-O-Vax combination vaccines are recommended for the vaccination of healthy cats as an aid in the prevention of important feline diseases.
Fel-O-Vax Lv-K® IV, our leading feline vaccine, provides protection against feline rhinotracheitis, feline panleukopenia, feline calicivirus, feline pneumonitis, and feline leukemia.
What is Fibercon given for?: Constipatioon and Irritable Bowel Syndrome.FiberCon is the bulk forming fiber therapy that's safe, gentle and has the natural action of fiber in a convenient caplet to help you relieve bloating constipation.
What is Fluvac Innovator?: Fluvac Innovator®
Fort Dodge Animal Health's Fluvac Innovator line of equine vaccines contains the Kentucky '97 isolate of influenza for up-to-date protection against current influenza strains and various viral pathogens. Research shows regular vaccination with updated vaccines is the best way to protect horses against modern flu strains. Not all equine influenza vaccines offer the same degree of protection against newer virus strains as that available with Fluvac Innovator.
What is GiardiaVax?: GiardiaVax is the first vaccine approved in the United States to help prevent canine disease caused by the waterborne protozoal parasite Giardia. Fort Dodge Animal Health added GiardiaVax to its vaccine line to help veterinarians prevent a disease that is difficult to diagnose, but with a high prevalence in the canine population. GiardiaVax has been proven to prevent clinical disease caused by G. lamblia infection in dogs and to significantly reduce the incidence, severity, and duration of cyst shedding.
What is Hetacin-K?: Hetacin-K (Hetacillin Potassium) delivers effective and economical mastitis control in lactating cows, plus the option of partial or full insertion with Opti-SertÂ® (protective cap). The exclusive, easy-to-use syringe tip for partial insertion, helps prevent contamination from teat surface bacteria and reduces damage to the teat structures. Hetacin-K treats major mastitis causing pathogensâ€”Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli.
What is HibTITER® Haemophilus b Conjugate Vaccine (Diphtheria CRM197 Protein Conjugate): Haemophilus b Conjugate Vaccine (Diphtheria CRM197 Protein Conjugate) HibTITER is indicated for the immunization of children 2 months to 71 months of age against invasive diseases caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b.

As with any vaccine, HibTITER may not protect 100% of individuals receiving the vaccine.

The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP), the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) and the American Academy of Family Physicians (AAFP) encourage the routine simultaneous administration of H. influenzae type b vaccines with other currently recommended vaccines, but at different sites.
What is Inderal?: Inderal® (propranolol hydrochloride) is a synthetic beta-adrenergic receptor blocking agent
What is Inderal, or Inderal LA used for?: INDICATIONS AND USAGE
1.Hypertension
Inderal is indicated in the management of hypertension. It may be used alone or used in
combination with other antihypertensive agents, particularly a thiazide diuretic. Inderal is not
indicated in the management of hypertensive emergencies.
2.Angina Pectoris Due to Coronary Atherosclerosis
Inderal is indicated to decrease angina frequency and increase exercise tolerance in patients with
angina pectoris.
3. Atrial Fibrillation
Inderal is indicated to control ventricular rate in patients with atrial fibrillation and a rapid
ventricular response.
4. Myocardial Infarction
Inderal is indicated to reduce cardiovascular mortality in patients who have survived the acute
phase of myocardial infarction and are clinically stable.
5. Migraine
Inderal is indicated for the prophylaxis of common migraine headache. The efficacy of
propranolol in the treatment of a migraine attack that has started has not been established, and
propranolol is not indicated for such use.
6. Essential Tremor
Inderal is indicated in the management of familial or hereditary essential tremor. Familial or
essential tremor consists of involuntary, rhythmic, oscillatory movements, usually limited to the
upper limbs. It is absent at rest, but occurs when the limb is held in a fixed posture or position
against gravity and during active movement. Inderal causes a reduction in the tremor amplitude,
but not in the tremor frequency. Inderal is not indicated for the treatment of tremor associated
with Parkinsonism.
7. Hypertrophic Subaortic Stenosis
Inderal improves NYHA functional class in symptomatic patients with hypertrophic subaortic
stenosis.
8. Pheochromocytoma
Inderal is indicated as an adjunct to alpha-adrenergic blockade to control blood pressure and
reduce symptoms of catecholamine-secreting tumors.
What is Inderide used for?: Inderide is indicated in the management of hypertension.Inderide Tablets for oral administration combine two antihypertensive agents: Inderal
(propranolol hydrochloride), a beta-adrenergic blocking agent, and hydrochlorothiazide, a
thiazide diuretic-antihypertensive. Inderide 40/25 Tablets contain 40 mg propranolol
hydrochloride and 25 mg hydrochlorothiazide; Inderide 80/25 Tablets contain 80 mg propranolol
hydrochloride and 25 mg hydrochlorothiazide.
What is Ketaset?: Ketaset (ketamine hydrochloride) is a rapid-acting anesthetic for diagnostic or minor surgeries. Ketaset is a nonnarcotic and nonbarbiturate agent. In contrast to other anesthetic agents, Ketaset can maintain protective reflexes, such as coughing and swallowing, enhancing assurance of a patent airway.
What is Leptovax 4?: LeptoVaxâ„¢ 4
LeptoVax 4, a stand-alone canine Leptospira vaccine and part of the DuramuneÂ® Max line of Leptospira combination vaccines, is proven effective against the two Leptospira serovars reported as emerging threats (grippotyphosa and pomona), as well as traditional serovars icterohaemorrhagiae and canicola. Fort Dodge Animal Health uses an innovative process to manufacture our updated canine Leptospira vaccines. Our exclusive subunit technology reduces cellular debris resulting in a purer product, which is proven to be both safe and effective under field conditions.
What is Lo/Ovral® Tablets (0.3 mg norgestrel and 0.03 mg ethinyl estradiol tablets)?: Birth control pills
Mode of Action
Combination oral contraceptives act by suppression of gonadotropins. Although the primary
mechanism of this action is inhibition of ovulation, other alterations include changes in the
cervical mucus (which increase the difficulty of sperm entry into the uterus) and the
endometrium (which reduce the likelihood of implantation).
INDICATIONS AND USAGE
Oral contraceptives are indicated for the prevention of pregnancy in women who elect to use this
product as a method of contraception.
What is LymeVax?: Fort Dodge Animal Health's LymeVax vaccine protects dogs against Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. LymeVax provides a broad base of protection and has been shown to maintain antibody levels for 53 weeks after vaccination. The vaccine is also available in combination with The Puppyshot® and The Puppyshot® Booster, combining Fort Dodge Animal Health's top two canine biologicals into a single injection.
What is Minocin® (minocycline hydrochloride) Pellet-Filled Capsules?: Oral Antibiotic
To reduce the development of drug-resistant bacteria and maintain the effectiveness of
Minocin (minocycline hydrochloride) Pellet-Filled Capsules and other antibacterial drugs,
Minocin (minocycline hydrochloride) Pellet-Filled Capsules should be used only to treat or
prevent infections that are proven or strongly suspected to be caused by bacteria.
DESCRIPTION
MINOCIN minocycline hydrochloride, is a semisynthetic derivative of tetracycline, 4,7-
Bis(dimethylamino)-1,4,4a,5,5a,6,11,12a-octahydro-3,10,12,12a-tetrahydroxy-1,11-dioxo-2-
naphthacenecarboxamide monohydrochloride
What is Monocin used to treat?: INDICATIONS AND USAGE
MINOCIN Pellet-Filled Capsules are indicated in the treatment of the following infections due to
susceptible strains of the designated microorganisms:
Rocky Mountain spotted fever, typhus fever and the typhus group, Q fever, rickettsialpox
and tick fevers caused by rickettsiae.
Respiratory tract infections caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Lymphogranuloma venereum caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
Psittacosis (Ornithosis) due to Chlamydia psittaci.
Trachoma caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, although the infectious agent is not always
eliminated, as judged by immunofluorescence.
Inclusion conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
Nongonococcal urethritis, endocervical, or rectal infections in adults caused by
Ureaplasma urealyticum or Chlamydia trachomatis.
Relapsing fever due to Borrelia recurrentis.
Chancroid caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.
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Plague due to Yersinia pestis.
Tularemia due to Francisella tularensis.
Cholera caused by Vibrio cholerae.
Campylobacter fetus infections caused by Campylobacter fetus.
Brucellosis due to Brucella species (in conjunction with streptomycin).
Bartonellosis due to Bartonella bacilliformis.
Granuloma inguinale caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis.
Minocycline is indicated for the treatment of infections caused by the following gram-negative
microorganisms when bacteriologic testing indicates appropriate susceptibility to the drug:
Escherichia coli.
Enterobacter aerogenes.
Shigella species.
Acinetobacter species.
Respiratory tract infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae.
Respiratory tract and urinary tract infections caused by Klebsiella species.
MINOCIN Pellet-Filled Capsules are indicated for the treatment of infections caused by the
following gram-positive microorganisms when bacteriologic testing indicates appropriate
susceptibility to the drug:
Upper respiratory tract infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Skin and skin structure infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus. (Note: Minocycline
is not the drug of choice in the treatment of any type of staphylococcal infection.)
When penicillin is contraindicated, minocycline is an alternative drug in the treatment of the
following infections:
Uncomplicated urethritis in men due to Neisseria gonorrhoeae and for the treatment of
other gonococcal infections.
Infections in women caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum.
Yaws caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue.
Listeriosis due to Listeria monocytogenes.
Anthrax due to Bacillus anthracis.
Vincentâ€™s infection caused by Fusobacterium fusiforme.
Actinomycosis caused by Actinomyces israelii.
Infections caused by Clostridium species.
In acute intestinal amebiasis, minocycline may be a useful adjunct to amebicides.
In severe acne, minocycline may be useful adjunctive therapy.
Oral minocycline is indicated in the treatment of asymptomatic carriers of Neisseria meningitidis
to eliminate meningococci from the nasopharynx. In order to preserve the usefulness of
minocycline in the treatment of asymptomatic meningococcal carriers, diagnostic laboratory
procedures, including serotyping and susceptibility testing, should be performed to establish the
carrier state and the correct treatment. It is recommended that the prophylactic use of
minocycline be reserved for situations in which the risk of meningococcal meningitis is high.
What is MYLOTARG® (gemtuzumab ozogamicin for Injection) used for: cancer
MYLOTARG is indicated for the treatment of patients with CD33+ acute myeloid leukemia in first relapse who are 60 years of age or older and who are not considered candidates for other cytotoxic chemotherapy. The safety and efficacy of MYLOTARG in patients with poor performance status and organ dysfunction has not been established.
The effectiveness of MYLOTARG is based on overall response (OR) rates. There are no controlled trials demonstrating a clinical benefit, such as improvement in disease-related symptoms or increased survival, compared to any other treatment
What is Neumega?: NEUMEGA is indicated for the prevention of severe thrombocytopenia and the reduction of the need for platelet transfusions following myelosuppressive chemotherapy in adult patients with nonmyeloid malignancies who are at high risk of severe thrombocytopenia. Efficacy was demonstrated in patients who had experienced severe thrombocytopenia following the previous chemotherapy cycle. NEUMEGA is not indicated following myeloablative chemotherapy. The safety and effectiveness of NEUMEGA have not been established in pediatric patients.
What is Nolvasan?: Nolvasan (chlorhexidine diacetate), an EPA-registered chlorhexidine disinfectant, works against at least 60 different bacteria, fungi, yeasts, and viruses. Nolvasan is non-corrosive, has minimal to no skin irritation, and retains antimicrobial activity in the presence of organic matter. The unique binding of Nolvasan to skin proteins provides residual activity for as long as two days.
What is Norplant?: The NORPLANT SYSTEM kit contains levonorgestrel implants, a set of six flexible closed
capsules made of silicone rubber tubing (Silasticï›š, dimethylsiloxane/methylvinylsiloxane
copolymer), each containing 36 mg of the progestin levonorgestrel contained in an insertion kit
to facilitate implantation. The capsules are sealed with Silastic (polydimethylsiloxane) adhesive
and sterilized. Each capsule is 2.4 mm in diameter and 34 mm in length. The capsules are inserted in a superficial plane beneath the skin of the upper arm.
Oruvail® (ketoprofen) Extended-Release Capsules?: Ketoprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.Orudis and Oruvail are indicated for the management of the signs and symptoms of rheumatoid
arthritis and osteoarthritis.
Oruvail is not recommended for treatment of acute pain because of its extended-release
characteristics (see â€œPHARMACOKINETICSâ€).
Orudis is indicated for the management of pain. Orudis is also indicated for treatment of primary
dysmenorrhea.
What is Pinncacle IN?: Pinnacle® I.N.
Pinnacle I.N. is the first intranasal equine strangles vaccine available to U.S. horse owners. Its exclusive delivery system eliminates intramuscular inflammation and lameness that may be associated with vaccines administered parenterally. Dosing is easy with Pinnacle I.N. A 2 mL dose is placed in one nostril, followed by a second dose two to three weeks later. Pinnacle I.N. stimulates mucosal immunity at the site of natural infection for a fast, effective response.
What is Phospholine Iodide? (echothiophate iodide for ophthalmic solution): Glaucoma
Chronic open-angle glaucoma. Subacute or chronic angle-closure glaucoma after iridectomy or
where surgery is refused or contraindicated. Certain non-uveitic secondary types of glaucoma,
especially glaucoma following cataract surgery.
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Accommodative Esotropia
Concomitant esotropias with a significant accommodative component.
What is Phenergan used for?: Motion Sickness NauseaPhenergan, either orally or by suppository, is useful for:
Perennial and seasonal allergic rhinitis.
Vasomotor rhinitis.
Allergic conjunctivitis due to inhalant allergens and foods.
Mild, uncomplicated allergic skin manifestations of urticaria and angioedema.
Amelioration of allergic reactions to blood or plasma.
Dermographism.
Anaphylactic reactions, as adjunctive therapy to epinephrine and other standard measures, after
the acute manifestations have been controlled.
Preoperative, postoperative, or obstetric sedation.
Prevention and control of nausea and vomiting associated with certain types of anesthesia and
surgery.
Therapy adjunctive to meperidine or other analgesics for control of post-operative pain.
Sedation in both children and adults, as well as relief of apprehension and production of light
sleep from which the patient can be easily aroused.
Active and prophylactic treatment of motion sickness.
Antiemetic therapy in postoperative patients.
What is Orvette?: Progestin-only oral contraceptives are indicated for the prevention of pregnancy.
What is PIPRACIL (piperacillin for injection): Therapeutic: PIPRACIL is indicated for the treatment of serious infections caused by susceptible
strains of the designated microorganisms in the conditions listed below:
Intra-Abdominal Infections including hepatobiliary and surgical infections caused by E. coli,
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, enterococci, Clostridium spp., anaerobic cocci, or Bacteroides spp.,
including B. fragilis.
Urinary Tract Infections caused by E. coli, Klebsiella spp., P. aeruginosa, Proteus spp.,
including P. mirabilis, or enterococci.
Gynecologic Infections including endometritis, pelvic inflammatory disease, pelvic cellulitis
caused by Bacteroides spp., including B. fragilis, anaerobic cocci, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, or
enterococci (E. faecalis).
Septicemia including bacteremia caused by E. coli, Klebsiella spp., Enterobacter spp.,
Serratia spp., P. mirabilis, S. pneumoniae, enterococci, P. aeruginosa, Bacteroides spp., or
anaerobic cocci.
Lower Respiratory Tract Infections caused by E. coli, Klebsiella spp., Enterobacter spp.,
P. aeruginosa, Serratia spp., H. influenzae, Bacteroides spp., or anaerobic cocci. Although
improvement has been noted in patients with cystic fibrosis, lasting bacterial eradication may not
necessarily be achieved.
Skin and Skin Structure Infections caused by E. coli, Klebsiella spp., Serratia spp.,
Acinetobacter spp., Enterobacter spp., P. aeruginosa, Morganella morganii,
Providencia rettgeri, Proteus vulgaris, P. mirabilis, Bacteroides spp., including B. fragilis,
anaerobic cocci, or enterococci.
Bone and Joint Infections caused by P. aeruginosa, enterococci, Bacteroides spp., or anaerobic
cocci.
Uncomplicated Gonococcal Urethritis caused by N. gonorrhoeae.
PIPRACIL has also been shown to be clinically effective for the treatment of infections at
various sites caused by Streptococcus species including S. pyogenes and S. pneumoniae;
however, infections caused by these organisms are ordinarily treated with more narrow spectrum
penicillins. Because of its broad spectrum of bactericidal activity against gram-positive and
gram-negative aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, PIPRACIL is particularly useful for the treatment
of mixed infections and presumptive therapy prior to the identification of the causative
organisms.
Also, PIPRACIL may be administered as single drug therapy in some situations where normally
two antibiotics might be employed.
Piperacillin has been successfully used with aminoglycosides, especially in patients with
impaired host defenses. Both drugs should be used in full therapeutic doses.
What is Polyflex?: Polyflex®
A broad-spectrum penicillin, Polyflex (ampicillin trihydrate), is active against a wide range of common gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. It effectively treats respiratory tract infections, such as shipping fever in beef and dairy cattle and calves, including vealers. It has a six-day pre-slaughter withdrawal and a 48-milk withdrawal period after the last treatment. Polyflex also provides effective treatment for urinary tract, gastrointestinal, and skin (soft tissue) infections in cats and dogs.
What is Premarin® (conjugated estrogens) Vaginal Cream?: PREMARIN Vaginal Cream is indicated in the treatment of atrophic vaginitis and kraurosis vulvae.
What is Premain Intravenous used for?: Premarin Intravenous is used to:
⬢ treat certain types of abnormal uterine bleeding due to hormonal imbalance when your doctor
has found no other cause of bleeding.
What is PREMPHASE® (conjugated estrogens/medroxyprogesterone acetate tablets)?: INDICATIONS AND USAGE
PREMPRO or PREMPHASE therapy is indicated in women who have a uterus for the:
1. Treatment of moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms associated with the menopause.
2. Treatment of moderate to severe symptoms of vulvar and vaginal atrophy associated with
the menopause. When prescribing solely for the treatment of symptoms of vulvar and
vaginal atrophy, topical vaginal products should be considered.
3. Prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis. When prescribing solely for the prevention
of postmenopausal osteoporosis, therapy should only be considered for women at
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significant risk of osteoporosis and for whom non-estrogen medications are not
considered to be appropriate. (See CLINICAL STUDIES.)
The mainstays for decreasing the risk of postmenopausal osteoporosis are weight-bearing
exercise, adequate calcium and Vitamin D intake, and when indicated, pharmacologic
therapy. Postmenopausal women require an average of 1500 mg/day of elemental
calcium. Therefore, when not contraindicated, calcium supplementation may be helpful
for women with suboptimal dietary intake. Vitamin D supplementation of 400-800
IU/day may also be required to ensure adequate daily intake in postmenopausal women.
What is Preparation H® used for?: 1. Anal itch
For prompt, soothing, safe relief of internal and external hemorrhoidal symptoms and anal itching turn to Preparation H®, the
leader in hemorrhoidal symptom relief for more than 50 years.
What is Presponse® and Presponse® HM?: Presponse® and Presponse® HM
Presponse and Presponse HM provide cattle with protection against two major causes of bacterial pneumonia via a single, convenient, and economical dose. Presponse HM provides protection against Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella multocida. Pneumonia due to Pasteurella species is estimated to be the top killer of cattle in the United States, and
M. haemolytica is the most significant bacterial contributor to shipping fever, which costs U.S. cattle producers an estimated $700 million annually in death loss and treatment cost.
What is Prevnar®, Pneumococcal 7-valent Conjugate Vaccine (Diphtheria CRM197 Protein): Prevnar® is indicated for active immunization of infants and toddlers against invasive disease caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae due to capsular serotypes included in the vaccine (4, 6B, 9V, 14, 18C, 19F, and 23F). The routine schedule is 2, 4, 6, and 12 to 15 months of age.

The decision to administer Prevnar® should be based primarily on its efficacy in preventing invasive pneumococcal disease. As with any vaccine, Prevnar® may not protect all individuals receiving the vaccine from invasive pneumococcal disease.

Prevnar® is also indicated for active immunization of infants and toddlers against otitis media caused by serotypes included in the vaccine. However, for vaccine serotypes, protection against otitis media is expected to be substantially lower than protection against invasive disease. Additionally, because otitis media is caused by many organisms other than serotypes of S. pneumoniae represented in the vaccine, protection against all causes of otitis media is expected to be low.

This vaccine is not intended to be used for treatment of active infection.
What is Primatene used for?: Asthma..Primatene® Mist is the fastest type of asthma relief available without a prescription, and is the #1 over-the-counter medicine sold for the relief of physician-diagnosed, bronchial asthma.
What is Protonix® (pantoprazole sodium)?: Protonix® Delayed-Release Tablets
Short-Term Treatment of Erosive Esophagitis Associated With Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
PROTONIX® Delayed-Release Tablets are indicated for the short-term treatment (up to 8 weeks) in the healing and symptomatic relief of erosive esophagitis. For those patients who have not healed after 8 weeks of treatment, an additional 8-week course of PROTONIX may be considered.

Maintenance of Healing of Erosive Esophagitis
PROTONIX Delayed-Release Tablets are indicated for maintenance of healing of erosive esophagitis and reduction in relapse rates of daytime and nighttime heartburn symptoms in patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Controlled studies did not extend beyond 12 months.

Pathological Hypersecretory Conditions Including Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
PROTONIX Delayed-Release Tablets are indicated for the long-term treatment of pathological hypersecretory conditions, including Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

Protonix® I.V. for Injection
Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease Associated With a History of Erosive Esophagitis
PROTONIX I.V. for Injection is indicated for short-term treatment (7 to 10 days) of patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and a history of erosive esophagitis.

Pathological Hypersecretion Associated with Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
PROTONIX I.V. for Injection is indicated for the treatment of pathological hypersecretory conditions associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome or other neoplastic conditions.
What is Pyramid 5?: PYRAMID 5, with Metastim®, aids in preventing IBR, Type 1 and 2 BVD, BRSV and PI3, while the combination of the modified-live Singer and 5912 BVD strains provides for optimum antigenic diversity.

The PYRAMID brand of modified-live vaccines for the BRSV fraction was the first to be licensed by the United States Department of Agriculture for single-dose administration, as well as the option of subcutaneous or intramuscular injection. In addition, the exclusive, state-of-the-art, dual-phase adjuvant system, MetaStim, increases immunological response by enhancing antigen presentation, while providing excellent stimulation of short- and long-term immune responses. PYRAMID is also available in combination with Leptospira (PYRAMID 9) and Mannheimia haemolytica.

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
Bovine viral diarrhea
Bovine respiratory syncytial virus
Parainfluenza-3 virus
What is Quest Gel?: QUEST® Gel
QUEST Gel (moxidectin) provides horse owners with safe, effective control against a broad spectrum of internal parasites, including bots. Numerous research trials have demonstrated the safety and effectiveness of moxidectin in breeding mares, stallions, and foals 6 months or older. QUEST delays reappearance of strongyle eggs for 84 days, permits parasite and bot control with only four treatments per year, kills small strongyles in the encysted state with a single dose, and is formulated as an easy-to-use, clear gel that offers less mess and stress on horses and their owners.
What is Rapamune?: RAPAMUNE® (sirolimus) is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ rejection in patients aged 13 years or older receiving renal transplants. It is recommended that RAPAMUNE be used initially in a regimen with cyclosporine and corticosteroids. In patients at low to moderate immunologic risk cyclosporine should be withdrawn 2 to 4 months after transplantation and RAPAMUNE dose should be increased to reach recommended blood concentrations.

The safety and efficacy of cyclosporine withdrawal in high-risk patients have not been adequately studied and it is therefore not recommended. This includes patients with Banff grade III acute rejection or vascular rejection prior to cyclosporine withdrawal, those who are dialysis-dependent, or with serum creatinine >4.5 mg/dL, black patients, retransplants, multi-organ transplants, patients with high panel of reactive antibodies.

The safety and efficacy of Rapamune® have not been established in pediatric patients less than 13 years old, or in pediatric (< 18 years) renal transplant recipients considered at high immunologic risk.
What is ReFacto?: ReFacto® Antihemophilic Factor (Recombinant) is indicated for the control and prevention of hemorrhagic episodes and for surgical prophylaxis in patients with hemophilia A (congenital factor VIII deficiency or classic hemophilia).

ReFacto is indicated for short-term routine prophylaxis to reduce the frequency of spontaneous bleeding episodes. The effect of regular routine prophylaxis on long-term morbidity and mortality is unknown.

ReFacto can be of a significant therapeutic value for treatment of hemophilia A in certain patients with inhibitors to factor VIII. In clinical studies of ReFacto, study subjects who developed inhibitors on study continued to manifest a clinical response when inhibitor titers were < 10 BU. When an inhibitor is present, the dosage requirement of factor VIII is variable. The dosage can be determined only by a clinical response and by monitoring of circulating factor VIII levels after treatment.

ReFacto does not contain von Willebrand factor and therefore is not indicated in von Willebrand's disease.
Suvaxyn RespiFend® MH: Suvaxyn RespiFend® MH is an inactivated and adjuvanted bacterin to help protect healthy swine against disease caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae. It safely and effectively reduces lung lesions caused by this disease organism. Because Mycoplasma infections can predispose swine to other respiratory diseases, such as Pasteurella and Actinobacillus infections, vaccinating with Suvaxyn RespiFend MH can help reduce the severity of these illnesses.
What is Synanthic?: Synanthic®
Synanthic (oxfendazole) dewormer, for use in beef cattle and female dairy cattle prior to breeding age, is a low-dose internal parasiticide that controls a broad range of economically important parasites. The product is available in two formulations: a prescription 22.5 percent suspension and a liquid 9.06 percent suspension, administered orally using a standard drenching gun. Cattle must not be slaughtered until seven days after treatment.

Synanthic should not be used in female dairy cattle of breeding age. Consult the full product labeling for complete directions and important safety information.
What is Synovex implants?: SYNOVEX® Implants
Fort Dodge Animal Health's SYNOVEX line of growth implants for beef cattle, designed to increase feed efficiency and/or rate of weight gain in beef cattle, includes SYNOVEX C calf implants, SYNOVEX® H for heifers, SYNOVEX® S for steers, and high-performance feedlot implant SYNOVEX® CHOICE and SYNOVEX® Plus which both contain trenbolone acetate and estradiol benzoate. Few production tools are more important for beef producers in today's economic climate than growth implants and independent research has demonstrated few management practices show a higher return on investment than programmed use of growth enhancing implants.
What is Telazol?: Telazol®
Fort Dodge Animal Health's Telazol is the only injectable dissociative anesthetic/tranquilizer combination product for animals approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Telazol is a rapid-acting anesthetic combination of Tiletamine HCL and Zolazepam HCL. This product provides anesthesia with muscle relaxation and analgesia that can protect reflexes such as coughing and swallowing. Telazol is approved for use in cats and dogs.
What is Today/Tomorrow?: ToDAY® / ToMORROW®
ToDAY (cephapirin sodium) allows dairy producers to treat mastitis in lactating cows. It delivers proven broad-spectrum protection to help reduce mastitis, improve milk quality, and increase milk production for the whole herd.

ToMORROW (cephapirin benzathine) provides broad-spectrum mastitis protection for dry cows, and is approved to deliver powerful, bactericidal killing action against the leading mastitis-causing pathogens: Streptococcus agalactiae and Staphylococcus aureus strains resistant to penicillin.

ToDAY and ToMORROW feature Opti-Sert®, the exclusive easy-to-use syringe tip for partial insertion, helps prevent contamination from teat surface bacteria, and reduces damage to the teat structures.
What is Torbugesic® and Torbutrol® Family: Butorphanol tartrate is the active ingredient in the Torbugesic and Torbutrol family of products. It is a potent opioid analgesic that has approved indications to relieve pain caused by major or minor trauma and surgical procedures, as well pain associated with colic. It is also approved to relieve chronic non-productive cough. Butorphonal tartrate is approved for use in horses, dogs and cats and is available in tablet and injectable form.
Wbat is Trecator?: Trecator is primarily indicated for the treatment of active tuberculosis in patients with
M. tuberculosis resistant to isoniazid or rifampin, or when there is intolerance on the part of the
patient to other drugs. Its use alone in the treatment of tuberculosis results in the rapid
development of resistance. It is essential, therefore, to give a suitable companion drug or drugs,
the choice being based on the results of susceptibility tests. If the susceptibility tests indicate that
the patient's organism is resistant to one of the first-line antituberculosis drugs (i.e., isoniazid or
rifampin) yet susceptible to ethionamide, ethionamide should be accompanied by at least one
drug to which the M. tuberculosis isolate is known to be susceptible.3 If the tuberculosis is
resistant to both isoniazid and rifampin, yet susceptible to ethionamide, ethionamide should be
accompanied by at least two other drugs to which the M. tuberculosis isolate is known to be
susceptible.
What are Triangle Cattle Vaccines used for?: Triangle® Cattle Vaccines
Triangle 9 + Type II BVD and Triangle 4 + Type II BVD vaccines provide protection against IBR, Type 1 and 2 BVD, BRSV and PI3. The Triangle line of killed vaccines contains Singer and 5912 BVD strains, which provide for optimum BVD antigenic diversity. Triangle 9 + Type II BVD also contains five serovars of Leptospira.

Available from veterinarians and animal health suppliers, Triangle products help protect beef and dairy cattle against the four major viral respiratory pathogens, including BVDV, the most economically important viral pathogen of U.S. beef and dairy cattle. As viral strains in the cattle population have evolved over time, vaccine protection has changed as well. Current research suggests the Type 2 form of the BVD virus may now cause the majority of major BVD disease outbreaks.
What is TriphasilÂ® (levonorgestrel and ethinyl estradiol tablets â€” triphasic regimen) 21- and 28-day regimens?: Oral contraceptive
What is Tygacil?: TYGACIL is indicated for the treatment of infections caused by susceptible strains of the designated microorganisms in the conditions listed below for patients 18 years of age and older:

Complicated skin and skin structure infections caused by Escherichia coli, Enterococcus faecalis (vancomycin-susceptible isolates only), Staphylococcus aureus (methicillin-susceptible and -resistant isolates), Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus anginosus grp. (includes S. anginosus, S. intermedius, and S. constellatus), Streptococcus pyogenes and Bacteroides fragilis.

Complicated intra-abdominal infections caused by Citrobacter freundii, Enterobacter cloacae, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella oxytoca, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Enterococcus faecalis (vancomycin-susceptible isolates only), Staphylococcus aureus (methicillin-susceptible isolates only), Streptococcus anginosus grp. (includes S. anginosus, S. intermedius, and S. constellatus), Bacteroides fragilis, Bacteroides thetaiotaomicron, Bacteroides uniformis, Bacteroides vulgatus, Clostridium perfringens, and Peptostreptococcus micros.

Appropriate specimens for bacteriological examination should be obtained in order to isolate and identify the causative organisms and to determine their susceptibility to tigecycline. TYGACIL may be initiated as empiric monotherapy before results of these tests are known.

To reduce the development of drug-resistant bacteria and maintain the effectiveness of TYGACIL and other antibacterial drugs, TYGACIL should be used only to treat infections that are proven or strongly suspected to be caused by susceptible bacteria. When culture and susceptibility information are available, they should be considered in selecting or modifying antibacterial therapy. In the absence of such data, local epidemiology and susceptibility patterns may contribute to the empiric selection of therapy.
What is West Nile-Innovator?: West Nile-Innovator®
Fort Dodge Animal Health's West Nile-Innovator vaccine is the first vaccine fully licensed by the USDA to aid in the prevention of viremia caused by West Nile virus. West Nile-Innovator has been proven 95% effective under both natural mosquito challenge and severe laboratory challenge, with one-year duration of immunity.

West Nile-Innovator is available in combination with equine encephalomyelitis (Sleeping Sickness) and tetanus (in two of the combinations) for safe, effective, convenient protection against mosquito-borne diseases.
What is Zosyn® (piperacillin/tazobactam for injection): ZosynÂ® (piperacillin/tazobactam), is an injectable antibacterial combination product consisting of the semisynthetic antibiotic piperacillin sodium and the ÃŸ-lactamase inhibitor tazobactam sodium for IV administration approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

ZOSYN is indicated for the treatment of adults with:

Nosocomial pneumonia (moderate to severe) caused by piperacillin-resistant, ÃŸ-lactamase producing strains of Staphyloccocus aureus and by piperacillin/tazobactam-susceptible Acinetobacter baumannii, Haemophilus influenzae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Nosocomial pneumonia caused by P. aeruginosa should be treated in combination with an aminoglycoside).
Community-acquired pneumonia (moderate severity only) caused by piperacillin-resistant, ÃŸ-lactamase producing strains of Haemophilus influenzae.
Appendicitis (complicated by rupture or abscess) and peritonitis caused by piperacillin-resistant, ÃŸ-lactamase producing strains of Escherichia coli or the following members of the Bacteroides fragilis group: B. fragilis, B. ovatus, B. thetaiotaomicron, or B. vulgatus.
Uncomplicated and complicated skin and skin structure infections, including cellulitis, cutaneous abscesses, and ischemic/diabetic foot infections caused by piperacillin-resistant, ÃŸ-lactamase producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus.
Infections caused by piperacillin-susceptible organisms for which piperacillin has been shown to be effective are also amenable to ZOSYN treatment due to its piperacillin content. However, before prescribing, please consult the full Prescribing Information.
What is Robutussin?: Over the counter cold and flu medicine

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