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Respiratory Protection Program
A program which identifies Employees as requiring respirator protection equipment due to the nature of their work or job.
Hearing Conservation Program
A program which surveys and identifies potentially hazardous noise levels and personnel at risk.
Sight Conservation Program
A program which surveys all activity work areas equipment and processes to determine which are eye hazards, which personnel require eye protection and what type of protection is required.
Personal Protective Equipment Program(PPE)
A program which assess all workplaces to determined if hazards are present that necessitate the use of Personal Protective Equipment.
Identify the F/A-18 danger areas.
Flammable liquids, compressed gasses, Canopy, seat and DFIRS explosive devices, Airframe and external stores, Engine, Radar antenna, APU exhaust
Identify the minimum safe distance safe distances from turning aircraft intakes/exhaust at the following power settings: Idle
9 feet radius intake / 115-155 feet from exhaust
Identify the minimum safe distance safe distances from turning aircraft intakes/exhaust at the following power settings: Military
25 feet radius from intake / 325-725 feet from exhaust
Identify the minimum safe distance safe distances from turning aircraft intakes/exhaust at the following power settings: Max
25 feet radius from intake / 850-925 feet from exhaust
State the purpose and identify the location of the aircraft STEP, NO STEP areas:
To avoid in damaging the composite material through out the aircraft structure extreme caution should be used with toolboxes and heavy parts with sharp edges.

Areas to avoid are your leading edge flaps, Trailing edge flaps, horizontal stabilators, ailerons, and radome surfaces.
State the general safety precautions associated with applying and removing external power.
Circuit breakers and switches must be position as specified in the required MIMS, inspect power cables and cable assembly plugs, Ensure power source is secured prior to application and removal, ensure power unit is chocked and facing away from aircraft.
Identify the personnel danger areas during Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) operations.
At 19-inch diameter the exhaust reaches a 24-MPH with a temperature range of 250-300 Fahrenheit. NOTE: This poses an extreme danger to anyone that might be working underneath the aft section of the aircraft. Or a fire hazard should a puddle of fuel or flammable solvent may be on the deck.
State the precautions/restrictions that apply to performing maintenance on ordnance loaded aircraft.
Major maintenance on aircraft is prohibited, Minor maintenance and routine servicing necessary to ready the aircraft for the next launch may be conducted after all weapons have been safeties to the maximum degree as specified in loading check list.
Identify the precautions that must be observed when handling graphite or carbon/epoxy composite materials.
Wear respirators and goggles, close weave cotton gloves when handling these materials.

Fiber will embed into exposed skin and become difficult to remove
number of tie-down points on the F/A-18 Hornet and identify their location.
1) There are 12 tie down points.
A) 1, 2 - Nose landing gear.
B) 3 - Bottom fwd fuselage, behind drag brace.
C) 4, 6, 8 - Left main landing gear.
D) 5, 7, 9 - Right main landing gear.
E) 10, 11 - Port/STBD wing.
F) 12 - Bottom aft fuselage fwd tail hook.
State the proper procedures for aircraft grounding.
Ground to earth first then to one of the a/c grounding points.
State the purpose of aircraft plugs and covers.
To protect a/c opening and protruding surfaces from physical and environmental damage and FOD intrusion.
Discuss the requirements, duties, and responsibilities of the following Aircraft Handling Team personnel:
* Note - All move team will have whistles at the ready during a/c movement.
Move Director, Brake Rider, Chock Walker, Safety Observer (Wing-Walker/Tail-Walker), Tractor Driver
Discuss towing preparations.
1) Minimum structural access doors must be installed to prevent damage to a/c.
2) Radome must be closed and secured (if installed).
3) Do not tow a/c with doors 68 L/R open. (engine bay doors).
4) Ensure a/c emergency brake accumulator pressure gauge reads 2900 psi minimum.
5) Ensure a/c is clear of all obstacles and support equipment.
State the purpose of the landing gear aircraft ground safety pins.
Landing gear safety pins safeties nose and main landing gear in the down position, preventing gear retraction.
Describe the hazard associated with canopy static buildup.
During flight a high voltage (100,000 volts) static electrical charge may build up and be stored in the windshield and canopy. This is a hazard to touch unless it is discharged using a static charge removal kit.
Briefly discuss the canopy static discharge process.
1) Make sure a/c is properly grounded.
2) Ensure static charge removal kit has had a continuity check within the last 30 days.
3) Connect kit to aircraft nose landing gear wheel well ground receptacle.
4) Run the kit mittens over the canopy and windshield until static discharge is gone.
State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.
the primary contamination measurement method used at all levels of maintenance.
State the purpose of a tactical paint scheme.
to lessen the probability of visual or photographic detection.
State the purpose of the following publications and their application to the F/A-18: NAVAIR 01-1A-509
Provides information on material and procedures for the prevention and repair of corrosion damage to equipment
State the purpose of the following publications and their application to the F/A-18: NAVAIR A1-F18AC-SRM-500
1 Provides corrosion control procedures for organizational, intermediate, and depot levels of Maintenance.

2) Should be used with NA 01-1A-509.
State the three modes of wheel brake operation.
1) Normal brake

2) Emergency brake

3) Parking brake
Discuss the purpose of composite airframe materials.
New materials are used in aircraft to limit weight, decrease effects of corrosion attack and to increase strength.
Discuss the following repair terms: Temporary Repair
One, which may allow aircraft to be flown until permanent repair can be made.
Discuss the following repair terms: One-time flight
Repair made to restore limited load carrying requirements to allow an aircraft to be flown to a repair station for permanent repairs.
Discuss the following repair terms: Permanent repair
Repair equals or exceeds strength of original structure or component with no adverse affects on structural integrity, fatigue life, safety , or flying characteristics.
State the type and identify the models of engines used in the F/A-18.
1. LOW BY-PASS AXIAL FLOW TURBO FAN WITH AFTER BURNER.

A) ENGINE SECTIONS -

1) FAN

2) COMPRESSOR

3) COMBUSTION

4) HIGH PRESSURE TURBINE

5) LOW PRESSURE TURBINE

6) AFTER BURNER
State the three modes of operation for the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU).
1) MAIN ENGINE START (MES)

2) GROUND MAINTENANCE MODE (GMM) - GIVES THE A/C HYDRAULIC & ELECTRICAL POWER.

3) ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL SYSTEM (ECS) - BRINGS AIR INTO THE COCKPIT.
State the purpose and identify the location of the In-Flight Refueling (IFR) probe.
1) LOCATED ON THE RIGHT FORWARD PART OF FUSELAGE.

2) ALLOWS A/C TO TAKE FUEL FROM A TANKER

A) ELECTRICALLY CONTROLLED (W/SWITCH IN COCKPIT), HYDRAULICALLY OPERATED.
Explain the purpose of the Aircraft Fuel Storage system.
1) THE F/A-18 CAN HOLD THREE DROP TANKS WHICH CARRY 330 GAL'S EACH OR A

TOTAL OF 2240 LBS.

2) HAS 4 INTERNAL CELLS PLUS THE WINGS HOLD FUEL.

A) INTERNAL - 10,200 LBS.

B) W/1 DROP TANK - 13,500 LBS.

C) W/2 DROP TANKS - 15,000 LBS.

D) W/3 DROP TANKS - 17,500 LBS.
State the purpose of the foam-lined wing tanks.
1) FOR FIRE AND EXPLOSIVE PROOFING

2) IF HIT IN WING DURING COMBAT MISSION WILL NOT CATCH FIRE OR EXPLODE.

A) THERE IS A SWITCH IN THE COCKPIT WHICH KEEPS FUEL FROM

TRANSFERRING TO THE WINGS WHICH THE PILOT CAN USE IF THE WING IS HIT.
State the difference between a barometric and radar altimeter.
BAROMETRIC ALTIMETER - uses pitot-static pressure to indicate altitude above sea level.

RADAR ALTIMETER - uses radio echoes to determine altitude above ground level. (Terrain)
Define: AZIMUTH
Angle of position of bearing. (measured clockwise).
Define: BEARING
Angle of position of object.
Define: RANGE
distance to the target or station.
Define: HEADING
the direction you are pointing.

1) True heading - direction measured by true north.

2) Magnetic direction - direction based on the 360-azimuth circle going counter clockwise (with the 0/360-azimuth radial aligned with magnetic north).

3) Relative direction - uses the current direction that an object is facing as the 0/360-azimuth alignment.
State the objective of the Explosive Qualification and Certification Program
To ensure military and civilian personnel are qualified / certified in the safe handling, stowage and transportation of ordnance in which they are associated with.
State the purpose of suspension/accessory equipment.
To suspend single stores, bombs, and a variety of missile launchers.
State the purpose of an impulse cartridge (Cartridge Actuated Devices (CADS)
To eject single stores and a variety of weapons from the aircraft.
State the purpose of the following types of free-fall weapons/stores: Cluster Bomb Units (CBUs)
Free fall weapon containing several small bomblettes used against armored vehicles.
State the purpose of the following types of free-fall weapons/stores: Fire bombs
Used against dug in troops.
State the purpose of the following types of free-fall weapons/stores: Air-laid Mines
Used to defend our straights, port approaches and coastal barriers.
State the purpose of the following types of free-fall weapons/stores: Glide weapons
Designed to deliver self guided high explosive weapons from the attacking aircraft. Does not have a rocket motor (propulsion section)
State the purpose of the following types of free-fall weapons/stores: Pyrotechnics
Used for signaling, marking, and search and rescue.
State the purpose of the following types of free-fall weapons/stores: Practice Bombs
Inexpensive way to keep our pilots trained
AIM
Air-launched intercept-aerial guided missile. (Air intercept missile).
AGM
Air-launched surface-attack guided missile. (Air to ground missile).
CATM
Captive air training missile.
HERO
Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance.

1) OP3565 is the main hero manual.
Describe the application of the following types of bombs: Retarded
Retarded- slows the weapon down before it gets to the target in order to allow the jet to get away from bomb. Used for low level bombing missions.
Describe the application of the following types of bombs: Non-retarded
Nonretarded- No means to slow bomb down. Used in high level bombing missions where the pilot and aircraft are safe from the bombs detonation.
Explain the significance of the following color coding on weapons: Yellow
Missile is a high explosive. (Can be seen from afar).
Explain the significance of the following color coding on weapons: Brown
Missile has a live rocket motor.
Explain the significance of the following color coding on weapons: Blue
Inert and for training use only.
Define the following types of weapon guided systems: Active
missile is self-guiding and works by itself.

1) Sends and receives its own signal.
Define the following types of weapon guided systems: Semi-active
Needs independent or external source to track and lock on target.

1) Any a/c can send out a signal to target and missile receives the signal back to lock on to target.
Define the following types of weapon guided systems: Passive
Heat seeking infrared.

1) Locks onto heat
Describe the purpose of chaff and flares as countermeasure devices: Chaff
Very fine pieces of metal that are expelled into the airway.

1) Used for radar guided missiles.

2) Degrades launching missiles target lock.

3) F/A-18 can carry four buckets of chaff / each bucket carries 30 tubes.
Describe the purpose of chaff and flares as countermeasure devices: Flares
Used for heat seeking infrared missiles.

1) F/A-18 can carry four buckets of flares / each bucket carries 30 flares.

2) A flare reaches 4000 degrees Fahrenheit.
Identify the minimum requirements for aircrew Personnel Protective Equipment
1) Flight suit (aremid6 cloth)

2) Aircrew fliers boots

3) Anti-g garment

4) Helmet

5) Survival radio/beacon

6) Aviator flight gloves (aremid cloth)

7) Anti-exposure suit

8) Identification tags (dog tags)

9) Survival knife and sheath

10) Personal survival kit

11) Signal device

12) Flashlight

13) Life preserver

14) Laser eye protection
State the purpose of the Environmental Control System (ECS.)
Provides aircrew comfort (i.e.. pressurization/temp. control) and avionics cooling. (Has 14 subsystems)
State the purpose of the following personal flight equipment: Oxygen Mask
1) designed to be worn over the face, forming a seal to the cheeks over the bridge of the nose and under the chin.
2) Used with a regulator which provides breathing gas
State the purpose of the following personal flight equipment: Oxygen Regulator
Reduces and regulates supply oxygen pressure for breathing.
State the purpose of the following personal flight equipment: Life Preserver
Designed as a constant wear item for use with the SV-2B survival vest or integrated torso harness and provides a minimum of 65 pounds of buoyancy.
State the purpose of the following personal flight equipment: Anti-Gravity (Anti-G) Suit
Provides protection for the aircrew man against the effect of the high g-forces experienced in high performance aircraft.
State the objective of the Egress Systems Checkout Certification Program.
1) To thoroughly familiarize personnel working in or around the cockpit with the ejection Systems / Any special hazards associated with those systems, and to routinely monitor all such qualified personnel.

2) All maintenance personnel must qualify upon arrival to command / prior to working on a/c.

3) All qualified personnel must re-qualify every 6 months.

4) TAD personnel must re-qualify after being away from command for 90 days.
State the purpose of the ejection seat.
1) For supplying a place for the aircrew to sit during normal conditions.

2) For propelling an occupant out and away from the aircraft in an emergency condition.
Define the following conditions: Hypoxia
The higher the altitude the amount of oxygen per unit of volume of air decreases, there for the oxygen intake is reduced unless the individual breaths additional oxygen the eyes, body, and muscles will fail.
Define the following conditions: Anoxia
Complete lack of oxygen.
Identify the two types of Aviator's Breathing Oxygen (ABO.)
A) gaseous oxygen (type I)

B) Liquid oxygen (type II)
Define and explain the following acronyms: SEAD (SUPPRESSION OF ENEMY AIR DEFENSES)
1) Protection against enemy air attacks.

2) Contained to a specific area.

3) Electronic warfare.
Define and explain the following acronyms: WAS (WAR AT SEA)
Bombing ships
Define and explain the following acronyms: CAS (CLOSE AIR SUPPORT)
Bombing in support of ground troops
Define and explain the following acronyms: MAS (MARITIME AIR SUPERIORITY)
We have air superiority
Define and explain the following acronyms: ACM (AIR COMBAT MANEUVERING)
Dog fight.
Define and explain the following acronyms: CAC (COMBAT AIR CONTROL)
Drilling holes in the sky while watching for threatening a/c.
Define and explain the following acronyms: FCF (FUNCTIONAL CHECK FLIGHT)
1) Checking a/c to ensure everything is working correctly.

2) Four types - A, B, C, D

3) A type must be done if a/c not flown for 30 days.
Define and explain the following acronyms: FCLP (FIELD CARRIER LANDING PRACTICE)
Practice landing for carriers done on land.
Define and explain the following acronyms: VMC (VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS)
Expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling equal to or better than specified minimums. (blue skies)
Define and explain the following acronyms: IMC (INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS)
Expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling less than the minima specified.
Define and explain the following acronyms: VFR (VISUAL FLIGHT RULES)
Rules that govern the procedures for conducting flights under visual conditions.
Define and explain the following acronyms: IFR (INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES)
Rules for governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight.
Discuss the purpose of the Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC)
Primary control of airborne aircraft operating from the carrier except those Authority. (Ship/airfield)
Describe the following: Fresnel Lens Optical Landing Sysytem (FLOLS)
Provides the pilot with a visual indication of his/her relative position with respect to a prescribed glide slope.

1) Glide scope - designed to bring the aircraft down to the deck, within the cross-deck pendant pattern, with a sage arresting hook clearance above the stern ramp of the carrier.
Describe the following: Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System (MOVLAS)
An emergency signaling system that is intended to be used when the primary optical landing system is rendered inoperative.

1) Works the same as the FLOLS but it's a smaller version.
Aircraft Structure: Radome
Provides an electrically transparent window for transmission and reception of radar signals. Spans from Y coordinate 60.50 to Y coordinate 128.50.
Aircraft Structure: Forward Fuselage
Spans from Y coordinate 128.50 to Y coordinate 383.00 or from the end of the Nose Radome to the forward edge of panel 26.
Aircraft Structure: Center Fuselage
Spans from Y coordinate 383.00 to Y coordinate 557.50 or from the forward edge of panel 26 to the aft edge of panel 55L/R.
Aircraft Structure: Aft Fuselage
Spans from Y coordinate 557.50 to the end of the aircraft or from panel 54L/R to the exhaust nozzles.
Aircraft Structure: Wing Fuselage
Provides lift for the aircraft, stores fuel, houses LEF's, TEF's and Ailerons, outboard section folds for carrier operation, allows for attachment of non jettison able pylons for weapons/fuel stores. Attached to the center fuselage by wall lugs which mate lugs on the wing main torque box.
Aircraft Structure: Leading Edge Extension
Provides added lift at high angles of attack. Mounted on either side of the Forward Fuselage they are an extension of the wing leading edge. The port LEX houses the Boarding Ladder.
Flight Control Surfaces: Ailerons
In flight, the ailerons are commanded asymmetrically to produce roll motion. The ailerons are located on the outboard trailing edge of each wing.
Flight Control Surfaces: Leading Edge Flaps
When taking off or landing the leading edge flaps deflects symmetrically to change lift. In flight they deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion. The leading edge flaps are located on the inboard and outboard leading edge of each wing.
Flight Control Surfaces: Trailing Edge Flaps
When taking off or landing the leading edge flaps deflects symmetrically to change lift. In flight they independently deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion. The trailing edge flaps are located on the trailing edge of each wing.
Flight Control Surfaces: Stabilators
The stabilators deflect symmetrically to produce pitch motion and asymmetrically to produce roll motion. The stabilators are located on either side of the tail of the aircraft.
Flight Control Surfaces: Rudders
During take off or landing when the AOA is less than 8 degrees the rudders toe-in to increase lift and improve stability, when AOA is more than 8 degrees the rudders toe-out to improve stability. In flight the rudders are commanded symmetrically to produce yaw motion. The rudders are located on the rear of each vertical stabilizer.
Flight Control Surfaces: Speed Brakes
Under certain conditions the speed brake may be extended into the air stream creating drag and slowing the aircraft's airspeed. The speed brake is located on top of the Aft Fuselage between the vertical stabilizers.
Hydraulics: Hydraulic System 1
Provides hydraulic fluid pressure to the primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source.
Hydraulics: Hydraulic System 2
Provides hydraulic fluid pressure to the primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source. The system also supplies pressure to all other non-flight control systems.
Hydraulics: Auxiliary Power Unit Accumulator
Provides required fluid pressure to the APU start and emergency hydraulic systems.
Hydraulics: Switching Valves
Each switching valve allows backup hydraulic pressure to replace the primary hydraulic pressure, if the primary hydraulic pressure fails. If primary hydraulic is restored, the switching valve shifts to normal operating position.
Landing Gear: NLG
Provides landing, takeoff and taxi energy absorption, and tire/runway compliance. Located on the underside of the Forward Fuselage.
Landing Gear: MLG
Provides a stable platform for aircraft carrier and shore based operations. Also absorbs the energy from ground loads during landing and taxi operations. Located on the underside of the Center Fuselage.
Landing Gear: Wheel Brakes
Provides pilot modulated individual wheel-controlled braking. An anti skid system is combined with the normal system to prevent wheel skid. Located on the main landing gear wheels.
Landing Gear: Launch Bar
Provides a means of steering the aircraft during carrier deck tracking and engages the catapult, applying catapult tow forces to the aircraft. Located on the forward side of the nose landing gear shock strut.
Landing Gear: Arresting Hook
Provides a means of stopping the aircraft where normal runway landings are not available. Located on the underside of the Aft Fuselage.
Environmental Control Systems: Bleed Air System
Engine bleed air is extracted from the last compressor stage of both engines, regulated and routed to the air cycle air conditioning system.
Environmental Control Systems: Air Cycle Air Conditioning System
Cools and conditions hot bleed air for use in various aircraft systems.
Environmental Control Systems: Anti-Gravity System
Automatically regulates the air to the pilot's anti-g suit to increase pilot tolerance to high acceleration levels.
Environmental Control Systems: Oxygen System
In bunos 161353 thru 164068, oxygen is supplied from a 10 liter liquid oxygen system. Oxygen is routed from the left console to the ejection seat, through the survival kit, to the pilot's oxygen regulator connector.
Environmental Control Systems: On-Board Oxygen Generating System
On bunos 164196 and up OBOGS removes nitrogen and other contaminants from engine bleed air. The resultant product gas is an oxygen rich breathing mixture for pilots use.
Egress Systems: Ejection Seat System
Provides support for the crewmember during normal flight conditions and a method of escape from the aircraft during emergency conditions.
Egress Systems: Canopy System
Provides entry to the cockpit and protects the crewmember from the elements. May be operated electrically or manually and can be jettisoned in an emergency.
Egress Systems: Emergency Oxygen System
Oxygen is required at altitudes over 10,000 feet. The emergency oxygen bottle, located in the ejection seat survival kit, is actuated automatically upon ejection or manually in the case of an oxygen system failure.
Note* Lasts 10 minutes*
Fire Systems: Fire Detection System
Provides fire warning for the APU bay, left and right AMAD bays and the left and right engine bays. Warning lights in the cockpit and a voice alert indicate fire conditions.
Fire Systems: Fire Extinguishing System
A one-shot one-bay system using a single fire extinguisher. During ground operation of the APU the system is automatic. During flight the pilot manually selects the bay and discharges the extinguisher.
Electronic Flight Control System
The Electronic flight control system is made up of two flight control computers, control surface servo actuators, air data and inertial sensors and control sensors. The system also includes a built-in test to provide failure warning and fault isolation. The flight control computers combine inputs with air data and inertial inputs and provide electrical signals to servo actuators. The servo actuators move control surfaces the direction and amount required to produce desired aircraft motion.
Purpose of the Backup Mechanical System
Provides automatic connection of a direct mechanical link from the stick to the differential stabilator servo actuators. This provides limited pitch and roll control after a complete electrical failure or complete failure of both flight control computers.
Emergency Extension of the Landing Gear
Emergency extension is primarily free fall aided by stored energy in the MLG shock absorber and hydraulic system no. 2B pressure. Hydraulic system no. 2B pressure is supplied by the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) and emergency brake accumulators and serves to unlock the landing gear up lock mechanisms and aid in landing gear down lock. Emergency extension is controlled by the LDG GEAR control.
Safety Precautions: Ejection Seat
1. Main Firing Handle Safety Pin: Safeties the ejection control handle during all ground parking, servicing and towing. It is inserted through the hole in the base of the ejection control handle.

2. Ejection Seat Safe/Armed Handle: Safeties the ejection control handle, preventing accidental seat ejection. In the safe position it is rotated full up and forward to the locked SAFE position.
Safety Precautions: Canopy Jettison System
Canopy Jettison Ground Safety Pin: Safeties the internal CANOPY JETT lever, preventing accidental canopy jettison by movement of internal CANOPY JETT lever. The pin must penetrate internal CANOPY JETT lever mounting plate and initiator lever to prevent accidental canopy jettison.
Safety Precautions: Canopy Normal System
1. Make sure the windshield and canopy static charge is removed.

2. Canopy must be closed and locked in winds over 60 knots.

3. Do not move aircraft until access to cockpit is possible.

4. Snow must be removed prior to opening.

5. Canopy should not be operated when ambient temperature is below 0 degrees F.

6. Inspect canopy sills and dorsal deck for foreign objects prior to closing canopy.
Safety Precautions: Liquid Oxygen
1. Oxygen in its liquid form has a temperature of -297 degrees Fahrenheit. Do not touch implements containing LOX or wear clothing not specified in the NA 13-1-6.4.

2. LOX has an expansion ratio of 862 to 1 and can generate up to 12,000 psi if allowed to evaporate in a sealed container. Do not cap vent ports on liquid oxygen systems.

3. Many materials will burn violently when saturated with liquid oxygen. An enriched-oxygen fire is virtually impossible to extinguish until the oxygen supply is cut off. Hydrocarbons will burn explosively when saturated with oxygen and subjected to mild shock or impact.
Secondary power systems: Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
to provide pneumatic air for motoring over/starting a main engine or to drive an AMAD, can also be used for ground check out of the ECS. Located in door 52.
Secondary power systems: Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive (AMAD)
each AMAD drives a hydraulic pump, generator and motive flow boost pump. Located in door 53 L/R.
Secondary power systems: Secondary Power Compressed Air
provides pneumatic power for operating the air turbine starter or the environmental control system. An air connection is located in the right well wheel and allows use of an external air source for system operation (huffer starts).
Power Plant and related systems: Engines
F404-GE-400 or F404-GE-402 - axial-flow turbo fan engine with afterburner.
Power Plant and related systems: Ignition
alternator, electrical control unit, ignition exciter, main igniter and after burner igniter. Remains on until engine reaches 45% or throttle is moved to off, A/B ignition comes on when A/B is selected and remains on until light off is detected.
Power Plant and related systems: Lubrication
self contained oil system, supply tank, combination lube and scavenge pump, filters, oil cooler, gear box, engine sumps, scavenge screens, magnetic chip detectors, pressure transducer and inter connecting tubes. MIL-L-23699.
Power Plant and related systems: Main fuel
throttle movement is mechanically transmitted through the power lever control (PLC). The PLC acts as a power booster and positions the main fuel control.
Power Plant and related systems: Afterburner fuel
when throttle is moved to AB the ECA positions the AB metering valve to a minimum (pilot) flow and holds this until light off is sensed.
Power Plant and related systems: Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN)
automatically controls the throat area (A8) for the exhaust gases from the turbine and AB.
Power Plant and related systems: Variable Geometry
Automatically positions the fan and compressor inlet guide vanes and compressor variable stators to the most efficient position for engine operation.
Power Plant and related systems: Anti-icing
uses fourth stage high pressure compressor bleed air to prevent build up of ice on the front frame struts, inlet guide vanes and inlet center body.
Power Plant and related systems: Engine instrument - Integrated fuel - engine indicator (IFEI)
displays compressor speed, exhaust gas temperature, fuel flow, variable exhaust nozzle position, oil pressure and fuel quantities.
Power Plant and related systems: Throttle
movement is transmitted by mechanical linkage and airframe mounted throttle boost actuators to the Power Lever Control (PLC).
Fuel Systems: Fuel storage
fuel is carried internally by four interconnected fuselage tanks and two wing tanks. External fuel can also be carried on three 330 gallon tanks.
Fuel Systems: Refuel/ Defuel
can be done with or without electrical power. Maximum supply pressure is 55 psi. Re-fueled through a single point pressure receptacle in door 8 or the IFR probe. De-fuel is done by applying suction pressure at the refuel/ defuel receptacle.
Fuel Systems: Internal Fuel Transfer
keeps the feed tanks (2 and 3) full and controls the sequence of tank to tank transfer.
Fuel Systems: Center of Gravity (CG) Control
the signal data computer monitors the amount of fuel in tanks 1 and 4, therefore, if fuel in tank 4 becomes excessive the computer will close the valves in the effected tank to prevent an aft CG problem.
Fuel Systems: Hot Fuel Re circulation
cools the fuel, which is used to dissipate heat from the AMAD and hydraulic system.
Fuel Systems: Fuel Pressurization and Vent
provides regulated engine bleed air to all internal tanks. Pressurization prevents boil off at high altitude and provides positive pressure to tank bladders and to external tanks for fuel transfer. The internal tanks vent into a vent tank which in turn is vented through the outlets in each vertical fin.
Fuel Systems: Fuel Quantity and Gauging
Integrated Fuel-Engine Indicator is the primary fuel quantity display. Normally, total fuel and internal fuel will be displayed in pounds. The QTY push button switch will change the amounts in pounds to :

Tank no. 2 and no. 3

Tank no. 1 and no. 4

Left wing tank and right wing tank

External left and external right

Centerline (external)

The IFEI will also display BINGO.
State the components driven by the Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive (AMAD)
Hydraulic pump, generator and motive flow boost pump.
How does the AMAD interface with the APU and engine?
The AMAD is pneumatically connected to APU through the air turbine starter (ATS). The AMAD transmits power from the ATS to the engine for starting and motoring. Power to drive the AMAD accessories is provided by the engine during normal operation and by the APU in the ground maintenance mode of operation.
What safety precautions must be observed during engine ground turn-up?
Operation of APU or engines to test for fuel leaks in the engine, AMAD or APU, Do not enter area of 9 foot radius of engine inlets while engines are at idle and 25 foot while at MIL or MAX power.
State the purpose of the following components of the Stores Management System (SMS): Armament control processor set
Multiplex data on the armament mux bus allows the armament computer to monitor and control the weapon station and gun system.
State the purpose of the following components of the Stores Management System (SMS): Command Launch Computer (CLC)
The command launch computer (CLC) controls and monitors the high speed anti-radiation missile (HARM).
State the purpose of the following components of the Stores Management System (SMS): Electrical fuzing power supply (PP-6419)
On BUNO 163427 THRU 165206 the electrical fuzing power supply provides the electrical fuzing function of the SMS for weapons requiring electrical fuzing. On BUNO 165207 AND UP the armament computer provides the electrical fuzing function to the SMS weapon requiring electrical fuzing.
Describe the following characteristics of the M61 20mm Gun system: Rate of fire
High-6000 rounds per minute; Low-4000 rounds per minute.
Describe the following characteristics of the M61 20mm Gun system: Capacity
The system can accommodate a maximum of 578 rounds of 20mm ammunition.
Describe the following characteristics of the M61 20mm Gun system: Modes of operation
Depending on the mission objective, the gun can be operated in the Air-to-Ground (A/G) or Air-to-Air (A/A) modes.
State the purpose of the Countermeasures Dispensing system (AN/ALE-39/47).
The system provides protection for the aircraft against enemy radars and missiles by ejecting chaff, flares, or other jammer payloads.
State the basic armament configuration of the F/A-18 aircraft.
The basic armament configuration of the F/A-18 aircraft consists of LAU-116 missile launchers, wing tip mounted LAU-7 missile launchers, SUU-63 pylons, SUU-62 pylons, BRU-32 bomb racks and a M61 Gun.
Air to Air: AIM-7 series (sparrow) guided missile
is a supersonic, radar guided, air-to-air weapon. Semi-active CW homing radar and hydraulically operated control surfaces direct and stabilize the missile on course.
Air to Air: AIM-9 series (sidewinder) guided missile
is a supersonic, air-to-air weapon, with a passive infrared target detection, proportional-navigation guidance, and torque-balance control system.
Air to Air: AIM-120 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM)
is a supersonic, air-to-air weapon, with active radar target detection and on-board inertial navigation guidance.
Air to Ground: AGM-65 (maverick) series missile
is a guided, rocket propelled, air-to-ground missile for use against field fortifications, surface to air missile sites and armored vehicles. The forward section of the missile consists of a hermetically sealed guidance unit and main section.
Air to Ground: AGM-84 (series) missile
1. Harpoon- is a long range, all weather anti ship missile. It can be launched at various altitudes, airspeeds, and aircraft attitudes and uses a low level cruise trajectory, active radar guidance and terminal maneuvering to destroy the target.

2. Standoff Land Attack Missile (SLAM)- is an air-to-ground guided missile designated for use against both stationary and mobile targets. The SLAM can be loaded with up to three pre-planned (PP) mission and one target of opportunity (TOO) mission.

c. AGM-88 High-speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM)- is a passive supersonic, air-to-ground missile.
Explain the term ANTI-AIR WARFARE (AAW)
The detection, tracking, destruction or neutralization of enemy air platforms and airborne weapons, whether launched by the enemy from air, surface, subsurface, or land platforms.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an ANTI-AIR WARFARE (AAW) mission.
The Hornet's specific strengths lie in its ability to detect contacts at medium range (around 40nms) and contacts that are not hot to the fighters (i.e. beaming, dragging or flanking). The Hornet performs AAW in many areas: Pre Strike Sweep (Offensive Counter Air - OCA) as a stand alone sweep into enemy territory to attack enemy aircraft, Close Escort - (Defensive Counter Air - DCA) as an attached or detached shielding fighter element to a strike package, High Value Airborne Asset Protection (HVAAP) which normally escorts the Prowler into enemy territory to protect it from enemy airborne attack.
Explain the term AMPHIBIOUS WARFARE (AMW)
Attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and by landing forces embarked in ships or craft designed to achieve a shore presence in a littoral zone. This includes fire support for troops in contact with enemy forces through the use of close air support or shore bombardment.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an AMPHIBIOUS WARFARE (AMW) mission.
The Hornet performs AMW primarily through Close Air Support (CAS), and are controlled via a ground based Forward Air Controller (FAC) or a Forward Air Controller - Airborne (FAC-A)an air based controller in an F-14 or A-10. CAS involves our checking in with the FAC or FAC-A and having our eyes talked onto the target area from large features to small until we have the actual target in sight. We then drop ordnance on the target, and may get corrections from the FAC for follow on ordnance delivery.
Explain the term ANTI-SURFACE SHIP WARFARE (ASU)
The detection, tracking, and destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an ANTI-SURFACE SHIP WARFARE (ASU) mission
We have little to do with ASU. This became a PMA of ours during the cold war, when it was likely that we would openly engage in hostilities with the Soviet Fleet. Currently, we perform Sledge Hammer events to practice attacking a large combatant, but the most likely use of ASU for the Hornet is our destroying a small, heavily armed boat, inbound to the CVN.
Explain the term ANTI-SUBMARINE WARFARE (ASW)
The detection, tracking, and destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an ANTI-SUBMARINE WARFARE (ASW) mission.
We currently don't do any ASW. S-3's and Helicopter do the bulk of this mission.
Explain the term COMMAND, CONTROL, AND COMMUNICATIONS (CCC)
Providing communications and related facilities for coordination and control of external organizations or forces, and control of own unit's capabilities.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a COMMAND, CONTROL, AND COMMUNICATIONS (CCC) mission.
The Hornet performs CCC on virtually every mission, with the integration of our Ground Control Intercepts (GCI) or Airborne Intercept Control (AIC). If we perform any mission within the battle group, we are normally assigned a controller to alert us to hostile aircraft in the vicinity. Talking to the AIC or GCI controllers exercises this PMA.
Explain the term COMMAND AND CONTROL WARFARE (C2W)
The integrated use of psychological operations (PSYOP), military deception, operations security (OPSEC), electronic warfare (EW), and physical destruction; mutually supported by intelligence, to deny information to, influence, degrade, or destroy adversary C2 capabilities while protecting friendly C2 capabilities against such actions C2W is a subset of IW (below) that specifically attacks and protects the C2 target set. Formerly Electronic Warfare (ELW) and subsequently Space & Electronic Warfare (SEW).
discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a COMMAND AND CONTROL WARFARE (C2W) mission.
The E-2 and Air Force Rivet Joint assets are primarily responsible for this, as well as the ES-3's on board
Explain the term FLEET SUPPORT OPERATIONS (FSO)
Naval forces and designated shore facilities providing supporting services other than logistics replenishment to fleet units.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a FLEET SUPPORT OPERATIONS (FSO) mission.
This is not one of our PMA's. We occasionally run missile profiles against the battle group ships.
Explain the term INTELLIGENCE (INT)
The collection, processing, and evaluation of information to determine location, identification, and capability of hostile forces through the employment of reconnaissance, surveillance, and other means.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a INTELLIGENCE (INT) mission.
This is not one of our PMA's. Our input to INT involves the pilot's airborne observations as well as any airborne sensor footage (FLIR) that we might be able to collect.
Explain the term MINE WARFARE (MIW)
The use of mines for control/denial of sea or harbor areas, and mine countermeasures over, under, or upon the surface.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a MINE WARFARE (MIW) mission.
This is one of our PMA's, and is the only mission area that is strategic in nature. We have few opportunities to practice mining, and they usually occur during workups. We are evaluated during the IDTC by having a CV wide MINEX as well as the Mine Readiness Certification and Inspection (MRCI). Each Hornet can carry 2 mines, and with GPS and the Hornet's precise delivery capability, we are able to place mines with remarkable accuracy.
Explain the term MOBILITY (MOB)
The ability of naval forces to maneuver and maintain themselves in all situations over, under, or upon the surface.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a MOBILITY (MOB) mission.
Mobility involves our ability to deploy and get around. It is one of our PMA's. We get points for and include our pilot's NATOPS and Instrument checks, CQ simulators, FCLPs, shipboard CQ and Airways Navigation.
Explain the term NON-COMBATANT OPERATIONS (NCO)
Selected operations of a noncombatant nature not clearly categorized in any other warfare mission area. Included in this category are the necessary support requirements and/or special missions that are required of a unit but not directly related to the other Warfare Mission Areas.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a NON-COMBATANT OPERATIONS (NCO) mission.
Not one of our PMA's. Our squadron's involvement with Non-Combat Expeditionary Operations (NEO) has become more likely in the last few years. NEO's would normally involve flying protection for a helicopter evacuation of an area that is becoming dangerous for US citizens. Or flying presence ops over a country to establish stability and announce that US forces are in the area.
Explain the term STRIKE WARFARE (STW)
The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons. This includes, but is not limited to, strategic targets, building yards, and operating bases from which the enemy is capable of conducting air, surface, or subsurface operations against U.S. or allied forces.
Discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a STRIKE WARFARE (STW) mission.
This is one of our most important PMA's. The squadron fly's STW missions in all theaters we pull into. Strike planning is a necessary part of the pilot's mission. The Hornet's involvement in STW can include dropping MK-80 series bombs, GBU's, Walleye, Maverick, JSOW and HARM. STW missions include executing pre-planned strikes in country, interdiction bombing campaigns, kill box missions and contingency operations.

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