Pharm Test 1
Terms
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1. Morphine is classified as all of the following except:
a. CNS depressant
b. Opioid analgesic
c. Opiate
d. anti-inflammatory agent - d
- The drug name patented by the manufacturer is the:
- trade
- The process that occurs between the time a drug enters the body and the time it enters the bloodstream is referred to as
- absorption
- Excretion may be increased when
- protein binding is impaired
- The blood-brain barrier
- does not allow many medications to penetrated the brain for therapeutic effect
- Specify the order of absorption from most rapid to least rapid
- IV, IM, SC, PO
- If a medication is ordered to be given intrathecally, it will be administered into the
- cerebrospinal fluid
- In a toddler, the most important factor when administering medication is the
- weight of the child
- Mr. J., who is admitted for a myocardial infarction, is started on nitroglycerin. His blood pressure drops. This is due to:
- central nervous system depression
- Your client has been taking morphine q2h for chronic pain associated with cancer. It is important to assess him or her for:
- respiratory depression
- Tylenol #3 consists of acetaminophen (Tylenol) and
- codeine
- The following drug is used to reverse the effects of opiods
- naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
- Your client will receive fentanyl via patch. For management of pain control using this method, the nurse is aware that fentanyl:
- lasts 3 days
- 16. When you question a client with chronic pain about current medication, he states, “I am taking oxycodone/aspirin (Percodan), which used to help, but now the effect lasts for a short time.” This probably indicates:
- tolerance
- Aspirin works by:
- blocking transmission of pain impulse
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18. A potentially serious side effect that a person using indomethacin (Indocin) should be aware of is:
a. agranulocytosis
b. bone marrow depression
c. elevated serum potassium levels
d. dysrhythmias - b
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19. The only NSAID that can be administered intramuscularly is:
a. Etodolac (Lodine)
b. Nabumetone (Relafen)
c. Sulindac (Clinoril)
d. ketorolac (Toradol) - d
- 20. Your client has diabetes mellitus, angina, peptic ulcer disease, and asthma. For which one of these problems would you alert the physician before commencing treatment for moderate to severe migraine headaches:
- peptic ulcer disease
- Manifestations of salicylism or salicylate intoxication include:
- tinnitus and decreased hearing
- 22. A major drawback to acetaminophen is potential:
- a. liver damage
- 23. Aspirin is not recommended for use in children because of its association with:
- a. ReyeÂ’s syndrome
- 24. One of the problems associated with barbiturate use is:
- a. tolerance and dependence
- 25. Therapeutic effects of benzodiazepines usually occur in:
- a. 2 to 3 days
- 26. You know that your teaching has been effective if a client who is taking a benzodiazepine states:
- a. “I know this drug needs to be gradually tapered before discontinuation.”
- 27. Thorazine (chlorpromazine) and Compazine(prochlorperazine) can also be used for:
- a. intractable hiccups
- 28. During the initial phase of therapy with psychotherapeutic drugs:
- a. a low therapeutic dose is given initially, then increased gradually until symptoms are eliminated or reduced
- 29. Phenothiazines treat nausea and vomiting by blocking the following receptors:
- a. dopamine
- 30. Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac):
- a. inhibits reuptake of serotonin
- 31. A client is admitted to your unit because of a tricyclic antidepressant overdose. The following nursing diagnosis would be a priority:
- a. respiratory failure related to CNS depression
- 32. Clients taking an MAO inhibitor should be monitored frequently for:
- a. hypertension
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33. The drug commonly used to prevent seizures in a person with a head injury is:
a. carbamazepine (Tegretol)
b. valproic acid (Depakene)
c. phenytoin (Dilantin)
d. Phenobarbital - c
- 34. Abrupt withdrawal of antiseizure agents may precipitate:
- a. respiratory arrest
- 35. Adverse reactions seen in individuals taking large doses of centrally acting muscle relaxants include:
- a. hypotension
- 36. Before administering an IV muscle relaxant, you should inform the client that he or she may experience transient:
- a. blurred vision and flushing
- 37. An expected outcome after the administration of methylphenidate (Ritalin) is:
- a. decreased hyperactivity
- 38. The following statement by the parents of a child receiving methylphenidate indicates that they understand how the drug is to be used:
- a. “We will monitor his height and his weight.”
- 39. When cholinergic drugs are administered, the nurse should observe the client for which one of the following adverse effects:
- a. bronchoconstriction
- 40. An expected outcome of the administration of adrenergic agents is:
- a. bronchodilation
- 41. The use of isoproterenol (Isuprel) is contraindicated in persons with the following condition:
- a. tachycardia
- 42. The drug of choice for treating shock due to an anaphylactic reaction is:
- a. epinephrine (Adrenalin)
- 43. Adverse reactions to bets-adrenergic blockers that the nurse should make the client aware of before discharge include:
- a. hypotension
- 44. Your client, who has been receiving bethanechol (Urecholine) for 1 week, develops sweating, flushing, abdominal cramps, and nausea. A possible explanation for the appearance of these symptoms is:
- a. cholinergic overdose
- 45. Mr. J. is receiving a cholinergic agent and his pulse drops to 50. The treatment of choice for bradycardia is to administer a/an:
- a. anticholinergic drug
- 46. Atropine is prescribed to treat:
- a. bradycardia