Psychology of Criminal Justice

Start Studying!

Terms

undefined, object

copy deck

According to Chapter 3, Jeffrey Dahmerâ€™s crimes can be explained by which theory of crime?: No existing theory adequately explains his crimes.
According to Chapter 3, juveniles are responsible for committing about _______ of violent crimes.: 25%
The positivist school of criminology focuses on...: factors that determine criminal behavior
With regard to punishment, positivists believe which of the following?: Punishment should fit the criminal rather than the crime.
Those within the classical school of criminology believed which of the following with regard to punishment?: The punishment should fit the crime.
Anomie is best defined as...: feeling of normlessness that often precedes suicide and crime.
If the monozygotic concordance rate is significantly higher than the dizygotic rate...: one typically concludes that the behavior is genetically influenced
What percentage of psychopaths are men?: 80%
The Innocence Project completed an analysis of the first 150 cases in which a previously incarcerated person was exonerated by DNA and found that a majority of these cases involved...: mistaken eyewitness identification
Sometimes police just look for evidence that implicates a suspect that has been identified by an eyewitness and stop investigating any other leads. This situation is an illustration of...: confirmation bias
If a weapon is present when a crime is committed, a witness will tend to pay more attention to the weapon than to other things (e.g., the face of a perpetrator). What is this effect called?: weapon focus effect
What is the correct order of processes in perception and memory (first to last)?: encoding, storage, retrieval
A robbery occurs at a liquor store. The clerk identifies the defendant in a police lineup. The defendant claims he had been in the store earlier to get change, but had not robbed the store. If the defendant is telling the truth, the clerkâ€™s identificat: unconscious transference
The other race effect refers to the idea that...: eyewitnesses are usually better at recognizing and identifying members of their own race or ethnic group than members of another race or ethnic group.
Which of the following statements is not true about witness confidence?: Witness confidence is a good indicator of witness accuracy.
According to research presented in Chapter 5, what tends to happen when hypnotized subjects are asked leading questions?: They make more errors than they would if they were just hypnotized or just asked leading questions
Loftus (1974) gave subjects a description of an armed robbery. Eighteen percent presented with only circumstantial evidence convicted the defendant. When an eyewitnessâ€™ identification was provided in addition to the circumstantial evidence, what: 72% of the jurors convicted him
What recommendation advocated by the Supreme Court in Neil v. Biggers (1972) would psychologists most disagree with when jurors evaluate eyewitness testimony for its accuracy?: Jurors should consider the level of certainty demonstrated by the eyewitness at the time of identification.
An unconscious process in which victims of abuse escape the full impact of an event by psychologically detaching themselves from it is called: dissociation
In delayed reporting statutes...: abuse survivors can bring suit against their alleged attackers within three years from the date of recovering the memory
How did sociologist Richard Ofshe check the accuracy of Paul Ingramâ€™s memory?: He fabricated an event and then asked Ingram to recall it.
A researcher has been interviewing those who have committed serial murders in an effort to learn about their backgrounds, their personalities and features about their crimes such as how they select their victims. He is comparing the information he obtain: criminal profiling
Jim, a disgruntled postal worker, rushed into the post office one Thursday afternoon and sprayed his fellow employees with gunfire, killing ten and wounding many more. According to Chapter 6, what type of multiple murderer is Jim?: a mass murderer
In approximately what percentage of studied mass murders was the assailant related to or well-acquainted with the victims?: 80%
Tom goes to an abortion clinic and kills several women, then he drives to a second abortion clinic and kills several more women. According to Chapter 6, what type of multiple murderer is Tom?: a spree killer
According to Chapter 6, there may be as many as ______ serial murderers in the U.S.: 100
The â€œBTKâ€ Killer, Dennis Rader, confessed to killing 10 people over a span of 30 years. When asked why he did it, he explained that he killed for the sexual satisfaction that he got from the experience. According to Chapter 6, what kind of serial mur: hedonistic-oriented
The landmark case in which a defendant appealed his murder conviction because a trial judge did not allow information about the results of a physiological deception test was...: Frye v. United States.
What is the main problem with the relevant/irrelevant polygraph procedure?: Even if you are innocent, you know what the relevant questions are, and thus they are likely to generate an emotional response.
True or False In Miranda v. Arizona (1966) the Supreme Court held that any confession resulting from an in-custody interrogation was admissible in court only if it was considered voluntary and the police had taken steps to ensure the suspectâ€: True
Ernest Miranda appealed his conviction for rape all the way to the U.S. Supreme Court and the court concluded that his right against self-incrimination had been violated. He was granted a new trial. What was the outcome of this second trial?: Even though his confession was excluded this time, he was convicted again.
Kassin (2005) analyzed the cases in which the defendant had been exonerated by DNA evidence. What percentage of these defendants had falsely confessed?: 25%
Sexual predators sometimes prowl online chat rooms to find victims. This technique is now referred to as...: cyberstalking
Charles has recently come back from the war. While there he was severely injured when a bomb blew up the truck he was in (everyone else in the truck was killed). Since coming home two months ago, he has been having nightmares and flashbacks where he reex: posttraumatic stress disorder.
A claim of self-defense historically has applied when...: the victim reasonably believed that he or she was in imminent danger of death or great bodily harm
It has been estimated that between _____________ of women in the U.S. suffer at least one rape or rape attempt in their lifetime (this includes reported and unreported rapes and attempted rapes).: 20-30%
According to the FBI, _________ of all reported rapes result in an arrest.: about 50%
Approximately what percentage of rapes result in convictions or prison sentences?: less than 10%
Approximately what percentage of rapes are carried out against victims who know their assailants?: 70-80%
Research has found that empathy for rape victims is...: higher among men and women who know a rape victim.
What standard did the U.S. Supreme Court use in its ruling about hostile workplaces in Harris v. Forklift Systems, Inc.?: a reasonable person
The initial appearance must take place soon after arrest because extended detention of those charged with a crime violates which of the following amendments?: 4th
The purpose of a grand jury is...: to indict or not to indict.
Exculpatory evidence is...: evidence that tends to show the defendant to be not guilty as charged.
The case that ruled that the prosecution must disclose to the defense evidence that is favorable to the defense was...: Brady v. Maryland
A dismissal with prejudice means that...: subsequent attempts at prosecution are barred.
Dismissal on the grounds of double jeopardy relates to which amendment to the U.S. Constitution?: 5th
A motion in limine is...: a request for a pretrial ruling.
In United States v. Salero...: the bail amount should not be excessive.
Approximately what percentage of criminal cases donâ€™t go to court, but are instead resolved by plea bargaining?: 85%
True or False Victims are never involved in the plea bargaining process.: False.
The first ruling on pretrial publicity was...: United States v. Burr.
Which of the following is the most common method used by the courts to control for pretrial publicity?: expanded voir dire
The original meaning of voir dire was...: â€œto tell the truth.â€
Bethany is a prospective juror. She has traveled to the courthouse and now she is being questioned to determine if she can be an impartial juror. What is the process that Bethany is currently undergoing?: voir dire
Kalven and Zeiselâ€™s (1966) results suggest that with respect to verdicts rendered by juries in the vast majority of cases, juries...: base their verdicts on the evidence and the law.
Which of the following represents the proper order of witness questioning?: direct examination, cross-examination, redirect, recross
In a criminal trial the jurors should be convinced...: beyond a reasonable doubt,⬝ in order to convict.
In a civil trial the standard for deciding in favor of one side or the other is the...: â€œpreponderance of evidence.â€
In Blakely v. Washington (2004), the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that judges may not _____________ defendantsâ€™ sentences based on what they perceive as _______________ factors.: increase; aggravating
Louise Woodward, a British au pair, was charged with killing the eight month old child who was in her care. This case was unusual in that...: the judge declared that the jury verdict was too harsh and reduced it.
The term â€œjury nullificationâ€ refers to...: the power that juries have to render a verdict that is not in line with the law.
Regarding the possibility of nullification by the jury, generally the jury...: is not explicitly told that they have this right but they still have the power.
Daubert v. Merrell Dow (1993) allows which party within the legal system to decide if expert testimony is based on sufficiently relevant and reliable scientific evidence to be admitted into evidence?: judge
At which stage of the criminal justice process is competence not an issue?: Competence is an issue at every stage
A defendant who pleads guilty waives a variety of constitutional rights. Which Supreme Court case ruled that this waiving of rights must be knowing, intelligent and voluntary?: Johnson v. Zerbst (1938)
The ruling that competence to stand trial is a â€œsufficient present ability to consult with [oneâ€™s] attorney with a reasonable degree of rational understanding, andâ€¦a rational, as well as factual understanding of the proceedingsâ€ stems out of whic: Dusky v. United States (1960)
One of the problems with the Dusky standard is...: that it does not specify how the evaluator should judge the sufficiency of rational understanding, ability to consult or factual understanding when assessing competence.
What is the significance of the Supreme Court case, Ford v. Wainwright?: Citing the Eighth Amendment, it prohibited the execution of mentally incompetent defendants.
Currently when one is evaluating competence, what really matters is...: whether or not a defendant has the ability to participate knowingly and meaningfully in the proceedings and assist the defense attorney.
True or False The majority of defendants referred for competence evaluations are determined to be competent.: True
According to Chapter 8, which of the following should make evaluators suspicious that a defendant might be faking incompetence?: an extremely low score
True or False Most states established a criterion of â€œpreponderance of the evidenceâ€ with regard to competency. In other words, a defendant had to show that it was more likely than not that he or she was incompetent.: True
As a result of Bettyâ€™s competency evaluation, the doctor concluded that Betty is not only incompetent to stand trial, but that she will probably never be competent. What could happen as a result?: Any of the following is possible: She could be committed to a hospital through involuntary civil commitment proceedings. She wonâ€™t be able to stand trial. She might end up being confined for an indefinite period despite Jackson v. Indiana (1972).
_________________ refers to the defendantâ€™s relevant legal capacities after the crime (e.g., for the trial), while _______________ refers to the defendantâ€™s mental state at the time the offense was committed.: Competence; insanity
Mens rea means...: the mental state of knowing the nature and quality of a forbidden act.
â€œDistinguishing between right and wrongâ€ is central to which definition of insanity?: Mâ€™Naghten rule.
True or False Sometimes when the jury renders a verdict of â€œnot guilty by reason of insanity,â€ the defendant spends more time in a mental hospital than he or she would have spent in prison if found â€œguilty.â€: True

Start Studying!

Deck Info

Number of cards 78