Pharm Test 3
Terms
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- 1. An infection acquired in the hospital is referred to as a :
- a. nosocomial infection
- 2. Probenecid (Benemid) is used with penicillin to:
- a. increase serum drug levels
- 3. Adverse effects of high-dose antibiotic therapy are:
- a. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
- 4. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is a urinary tract analgesic used to relieve which of the following symptoms:
- a. pain and urgency
- 5. The following statement by Mr. P leads you to believe that he understands the health teaching you have done about nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin):
- a. “I will take the medicine with food or milk”
- 6. A person receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium) should be informed that it will change the color of urine to:
- a. reddish-orange
- 7. Erythromycin may be used with neomycin preoperatively to:
- a. suppress intestinal bacteria
- 8. Macrolides must be used with caution in clients who have:
- a. liver disease
- 9. Common side effects that occur after the administration of erythromycin include:
- a. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
- 10. The following medications, if administered concurrently with erythromycin, will decrease its effects:
- a. antacids
- 11. Your client, who is taking INH (Laniazid), rifampin (Rifadin), and pyrazinamide, calls you because her urine is orange-red. You tell her:
- a. “This is a normal response to rifampin”
- 12. Early symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction to antitubercular drugs include:
- a. fever and tachycardia
- 13. You should begin to see the therapeutic effects of antitubercular drug therapy in:
- a. 2---3 weeks
- 14. You will know that your client with tuberculosis is improving as the result of drug therapy when his:
- a. sputum decreases
- 15. The recommended length of initial treatment for someone who has been exposed but has a negative tuberculin test is:
- a. 6 months
- 16. Adverse effects of ganciclovir (Cytovene) that the nurse needs to assess for include:
- a. thrombocytopenia
- 17. Mr. J, a 21-year-old male, is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for treatment of AIDS. Which of the following statements by Mr. J leads you to believe that he understands the teaching that you have done? :
- a. “Zidovudine (AZT) slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it”
- 18. The use of amantadine (Symmetrel) for treatment of influenza A is recommended for use in:
- a. all adults/persons with chronic lung disease
- 19. The drug most commonly used to treat infections caused by Candida albicans is:
- a. nystatin (Mycostatin)
- 20. Nystatin (Mycostatin) is ordered as a “swish.” The client should be instructed to:
- a. rinse her mouth with the medication, then swallow it
- 21. The following statement by your client lead you to believe that she has understood the teaching that you have done regarding metronidazole (Flagyl):
- a. “Iwill not drink alcohol while I am taking this medication”
- 22. Passive nonspecific immunity:
- a. occurs when antibodies are formed by the immune system of another person and transferred to the host
- 23. A generalized response to cellular injury is:
- a. inflammation
- 24. Interferons:
- a. interfere with the ability of viruses in infected cells to replicate
- 25. Which of the following is considered a toxic side effect of interleukin-2 (aldesleukin) and would necessitate discontinuation of the drug?:
- a. repetitive seizures
- 26. Mr. G has just had a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would take priority?:
- a. potential for infection related to immunosuppression
- 27. An expected outcome after the administration of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is:
- a. increased RBC count
- 28. One of the adverse effects of the anti-AIDS drug zidovudine (Retrovir) that the nurse needs to assess for is:
- a. decreased RBC count
- 29. Persons receiving azathioprine (Imuran) should be observed for:
- a. abnormal bleeding
- 30. Which of the following instructions should be given to Mr. H, who is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex), to help him avoid the adverse effects of the medication?:
- a. wear protective clothing and use sunscreen to decrease your exposure to the sun
- 31. After his liver transplant, Mr. J receives immunosuppressants to prevent the following complication:
- a. organ rejection
- 32. Persons receiving immunosuppressants after kidney transplant should be observed for deterioration in kidney function. Which of the following lab studies would give you the earliest indication of a change in renal status?:
- a. creatinine clearance
- 33. Vaginal Candida albicans infection, commonly treated with miconazole (Monistat), is an example of a:
- a. fungal infection
- 34. Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated in children under the age of 8?
- tetracyclines
- 35. After receiving penicillin for 5 days, Mrs. A complains of soreness in her mouth, diarrhea, and vaginal itching, which may be signs of:
- a. superimposed infection
- 36. When probenecid is administered with penicillin, which of the following results?:
- a. drug action is increased
- 37. Aminoglycosides are used orally to treat:
- a. gram-negative infections
- 38. Which of the following drugs should be avoided when a person is receiving aminoglycosides?
- a. furosemide (Lasix)
- 39. Aminoglycosides can be nephrotoxic. The most effective way of preventing compromised renal function in Mr. T is to:
- a. keep him well hydrated
- 40. Trough serum drug levels for gentamicin should be drawn:
- a. 15 minutes before the next dose or 1 hour before the next dose
- 41. Mr. J has a peak gentamicin level of 14 ug/ml. This level is:
- a. associated with nephrotoxicity, slightly above the therapeutic range
- 42. Mrs. J who is 6 months pregnant, comes to the doctor asking for a prescription for tetracycline to treat her acne. Your response should be:
- a. “Tetracycline, if taken during pregnancy, will be deposited in the bones and teeth of the fetus.”
- 43. Which drug, if administered with a sulfonamide, will decrease its actions?
- a. Maalox
- 44. What findings would lead you to believe that your client may be experiencing hepatic toxicity from isoniazid (INH)?
- a. dark urine or numbness and tingling
- 45. Which of the following statements by Mrs. G leads you to believe that she has understood the teaching you have done regarding rifampin (Rifadin)?
- a. “This medication may cause my bodily secretions to turn red”
- 46. Live attenuated viral vaccines should not be administered to persons who are receiving:
- a. antineoplastic agents
- 47. For which of the following disorders in Mr. GÂ’s history would you contact the doctor before administering amantadine (Symmetrol)?:
- a. epilepsy
- 48. Which of the following medications, if administered concurrently with amphotericin B, may increase nehprotoxicity?
- a. aminoglycosides
- 49. Your client is receiving intravenous amphotericing B (Fungizone). He should be observed for:
- a. an elevated serum creatinine level
- 50. The function of colony-stimulating factors (CSF) is to:
- a. stimulate growth of blood cells