Security+ SYO-101C

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201. A network attack method that uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) and improperly formatted MTUs (Maximum Transmission Unit) to crash a target computer is known as as: A. man in the middle attack. B. smurf attack. C.: C
202. The standard encryption algorithm based on Rijndeel is known as: A. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard). B. 3DES (rriple Data Encryption Standard). C. DES (Data Encryption Standard). D. Skipjack.: A
203. A DoS (Denial of Service) attack which takes advantage of TCPâ€™s (Transmission Control Protocol) three way handshake for new connections is known as as: A. SYN (Synchronize) flood. B. ping of death attack. C. land attack.: A
204. The Bell La-Padula access control model consists of four elements. These elements are A. subjects, objects, access modes and security levels. B. subjects, objects, roles and groups. C. read only, read/write, write only and re: A
205. What is generally the most overlooked element of security management? A. security awareness. B. intrusion detection. C. risk assessment. D. vulnerability control.: A
206. What is the advantage of a multi-homed firewall? A. It is relatively inexpensive to implement. B. The firewall rules are easier to manage. C. If the firewall is compromised, only the systems in the DMZ Demilitarized Zone) are: A
207. Which of the following is an example of an asymmetric encryption algorithm? A. RCA (Rivest Cipher 4) B. IDEA (International Data Encryption Algorithm) C. MD5 (Message Digest-5) D. RSA (Rivest Shamir Adelman): D
208. Which of the following needs to be included in a SLA (Service Level Agreement) to ensure the availability of server based resources rather than guaranteed server performance levels? A. network B. hosting C. application: B
209. Which access control method provides the most granular access to protected objects? A. capabilities B. access control lists C. permission bits D. profiles: B
210. The process by which remote users can make a secure connection to internal resources after establishing an Internet connection could correctly be referred to as: A. channeling B. tunneling C. throughput D. forwarding: B
211. When an ActiveX control is executed, it executes with the privileges of the: A. current user account. B. administrator account. C. guest account. D. system account.: A
212. Which of the following would best protect the confidentiality and integrity of an e-mail message? A. SHA-1 (Secure Hashing Algorithm I). B. IPSec (Internet Protocol Security). C. digital signature. D. S/MIME (Secure Mul: D
213. When does CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) perform the handshake process? A. when establishing a connection and at anytime after the connection is established. B. only when establishing a connection and disconnect: A
214. What should a firewall employ to ensure that each packet is part of an established TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) session? A. packet filter. B. stateless inspection. C. stateful like inspection. D. circuit level ga: C
215. Which of the following is most commonly used by an intruder to gain unauthorized-access to a system? A. brute force attack. B. key logging. C. Trojan horse. D. social engineering.: D
216. A minor configuration change which can help secure DNS (Domain Name Service) information is: A. block all unnecessary traffic by using port filtering. B. prevent unauthorized zone transfers. C. require password changes every: B
218. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) requires what ports by default? A. 389 and 636 B. 389and 139 C. 636 and 137 D. 137 and 139: A
219. Which security method should be implemented to allow secure access to a web page, regardless of the browser type or vendor? A. certificates with SSL (Secure Sockets Layer). B. integrated web with NOS (Network Operating System) secu: A
220. What is a common DISADVANTAGE of employing an IDS (Intrusion Detection System)? A. false positives. B. throughput decreases. C. compatibility. D. administration.: A
221. System administrators and hackers use what technique to review network traffic to determine what services are running? A. sniffer. B. IDS (Intrusion Detection System). C. firewall. D. router.: A
222. Servers or workstations running programs and utilities for recording probes and attacks against them are referred to as: A. firewalls. B. host based IDS (Intrusion Detection System). C. proxies. D. active targets.: B
223. To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which preventative measure? A. use packet sniffing software on all inbound communications. B. apply the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the se: B
224. What is the greatest advantage to using RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) for a multi-site VPN (Virtual Private Network) supporting a large population of remote users? A. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) pr: A
225. What is NOT an acceptable use for smart card technology? A. mobile telephones. B. satellite television access cards. C. a PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) token card shared by multiple users. D. credit cards.: C
226. Which of the following is the best protection against an intercepted password? A. VPN (Virtual Private Network). B. PPTP (Pointsto-Point Tunneling Protocol). C. one time password. D. complex password requirement.: C
227. Which of the following statements most clearly outlines a major security vuInerability associated with Instant Messaging? A. Instant Messaging does not support any form of message encryption. B. Instant Messaging negatively impacts: D
228. Using distinct key pairs to separate confidentiality services from integrity services to support non-repudiation describes which one of the following models? A.discrete key pair. B. dual key pair. C. key escrow. D. fore: B
229. Which IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) protocol uses All (Authentication Header) and ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) to provide security in a networked environment? A. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer). B. IPSec (Internet Proto: B
230. A honey pot is best described as A. encryptor. B. DMZ (Demilitarized Zone). C. firewall. D. decoy.: D
231. A program appearing to be useful that contains additional hidden code that allows unauthorized individuals to exploit or destroy data is commonly known as as: A. virus. B. Trojan horse. C. worm. D. back door.: B
232. Which of the following is typically included in a CRL (Certificate Revocation List)? A. certificates that have had a limited validity period and have expired. B. certificates that are pending renewal. C. certificates that are: D
233. A CPS (Certificate Practice Statement) is a legal document that describes a CAâ€™s (Certificate Authority): A. class level issuing process. B. copyright notice. C. procedures. D. asymmetric encryption schema.: C
234. A severed Tl line is most likely to be considered in planning. A. data recovery. B. off site storage. C. media destraction. D. incident response.: D
235. The primary DISADVANTAGE of symmetric cryptography is: A. speed. B. key distribution. C. weak algorithms. D. memory management.: B
236. How are clocks used in a Kerberos authentication system? A. The clocks are synchronized to ensure proper connections. B. The clocks are synchronized to ensure tickets expire correctly. C. The clocks are used to generate the s: B
237. An IT (Information Technology) security audit is generally focused on reviewing existing: A. resources and goals B. policies and procedures C. mission statements D. ethics codes: B
238. The action of determining which operating system is installed on a system simply by analyzing its response to certain network traffic is called: A. OS (Operating System) scanning. B. reverse engineering. C. Fingerprinting.: C
239. The most effective way an administrator can protect users from social engineering is: A. education. B. implement personal firewalls. C. enable logging on at usersâ€™ desktops. D. monitor the network with an IDS (Intrusi: A
240. Instant Messaging is most vulnerable to: A. DoS (Denial of Service). B. fraud. C. stability. D. sniffing.: D
241. What type of security mechanism can be applied to modems to better authenticate remote users? A. firewalls B. encryption C. SSH (Secure Shell) D. callback: D
242. Despite regular system backups a significant risk still exists if: A. recovery procedures are not tested B. all users do not log off while the backup is made C. backup media is moved to an off-site location D. an admini: A
243. What are three characteristics of a computer virus? A. find mechanism, initiation mechanism and propagate B. learning mechanism, contamination mechanism and exploit C. search mechanism, connection mechanism and integrate: D
244. Technical security measures and countermeasures are primarily intended to prevent: A. unauthorized access, unauthorized modification, and denial of authorized access. B. interoperability of the framework, unauthorized modification,: A
245. Impersonating a dissatisfied customer of a company and requesting a password change on the customerâ€™a account is a form of: A. hostile code. B. social engineering. C. IP (Intemet Protocol) spoofing. D. man in the midd: B
246. The basic strategy that should be used when configuring the rules for a secure firewall is: A. permit all. B. deny all. C. default permit. D. default deny .: D
247. An employer gives an employee a laptop computer to use remotely. The user installs personal applications on the laptop and overwrites some system files. How might this have been prevented with minimal impact on corporate productivity? A.: B
248. A fundamental risk management assumption is, computers can NEVER be completely. A. secure until all vendor patches are installed. B. secure unless they have a variable password. C. secure. D. secure unless they have onl: C
249. DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) is most commonly accomplished by: A. internal host computers simultaneously failing. B. overwhelming and shutting down multiple services on a server. C. multiple servers or routers monopol: C
250. IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) 802.llb is capable of providing data rates of up to: A. 10Mbps (Megabits per second). B. 10.5Mbps (Megabits per second). C. 11 Mbps (Megabits per second). D. 12 M: C
251. A team organized for the purpose of handling security crises is called a(n): A. computer information team. B. security resources team. C. active detection team. D. incident response team.: D
252. Which security architecture utilizes authentication header and/or encapsulating security payload protocols? A. IPSec (Internet Protocol Security). B. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer). C. TLS (Transport Layer Security). D. PPT: A
253. Tunneling is best described as the ac of encapsulating: A. encrypted/secure IP packets inside of ordinary/non-secure IP packets. B. ordinary/non-secure IP packets inside of encrypted/secure IP packets. C. encrypted/secure IP: B
254. What is a good practice in deploying a CA (Certificate Authority)? A. enroll users for policy based certificates. B. create a CPS (Certificate Practice Statement). C. register the CA (Certificate Authority) with a subordinate: B
255. What is the most common goal of operating system logging? A. to determine the amount of time employees spend using various applications. B. to keep a record of system usage. C. to provide details of what systems have been compromis: B
256. Poor programming techniques and lack of code review can lead to which of the following type of attack? A. CGI (Common Gateway Interface) script. B. birthday. C. buffer overflow. D. dictionary.: C
257. When a patch is released for a server the administrator should: A. immediately download and install the patch. B. test the patch on a non-production server then install the patch to production. C. not install the patch unless: B
258. An attacker attempting to penetrate a companyâ€™s network through its remote access system would most likely gain access through what method? A. war dialer. B. Trojan horse. C. DoS (Denial of Service). D. worm.: A
259. A companyâ€™s web server is configured for the following services: HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), SSL (Secure Sockets Layer), FTP (Pile Transfer Protocol), SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). The web server is placed into a DMZ (Demilitarized: C
260. Which systems should be included in a disaster recovery plan? A. all systems. B. those identified by the board of directors, president or owner. C. financial systems and human resources systems. D. systems identified in: D
261. A PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) document that serves as the vehicle on which to base common interoperability standards and common assurance criteria on an industry wide basis is a certificate: A. policy. B. practice. C. pro: A
262. When hardening a machine against external attacks, what process should be followed when disabling services? A. disable services such as DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) client and print servers from servera that do not use/serv: C
263. Which of the following will let a security administrator allow only if HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) traffic for outbound Intemet connections and set permissions to allow only certain users to browse the web? A. packet filtering fir: C
264. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DEN (Directory Enabled Networking)? A. It is mapped into the directory defined as part of the LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol). B. It is inferior to SNMP (Simple Network: B
265. The system administrator concerned about security has designated a special area in which tops the web server away from other servers on the network. This area is commonly known as the? A. honey pot B. hybrid subuet C. DMZ (De: C
266. Which of the following IP (Internet Protocol) address schemes will require NAT (Network Address Translation) to connect to the Intemet? A. 204.180.0.0/24 B. 172.16.0.0/24 C. 192.172.0.0/24 D. 172.48.0.0/24: B
267. What is the primary DISADVANTAGE of a third party relay? A. Spammers can utilize the relay. B. The relay limits access to specific users. C. The relay restricts the types of e-mail that maybe sent. D. The relay restricts: A
268. A network administrator wants to connect a network to the Internet but does not want to compromise internal network IP (Internet Protocol) addresses. What should the network administrator implement? A. a honey pot B. a NAT (Network: B
269. Which of the following is NOT a field of a X.509 v.3 certificate? A. private key B. issuer C. serial number D. subject: A
270. What is the default transport layer protocol and port number that SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) uses? A. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 80 B. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) transport lay: C
271. The greater the keyspace and complexity of a password, the longer a_______ attack may take to crack the password. A. dictionary B. brute force C. inference D. frontal: B
272. Security requirements for servers DO NOT typically include: A. the absence of vulnerabilities used by known forms of attack against server hosts B. the ability to allow administrative activities to all users C. the ability to: B
273. When a cryptographic systemâ€™s keys are no longer needed, the keys should be: A. destroyed or stored in a secure manner B. deleted from the systemâ€™s storage mechanism C. recycled D. submitted to a key repository: A
274. Creation of an information inventory is most valuable when: A. localizing license based attacks B. trying to reconstruct damaged systems C. determining virus penetration within an enterprise D. terminating employees for s: B
275. A network administrator wants to restrict intenal access to other parts of the network. The network restrictions must be implemented with the least amount of administrative overhead and must be hardware based. What is the best solution?: B
276. Which of the following is the best reason for a CA (Certificate Authority) to-revoke a certificate? A. The userâ€™s certificate has been idle for two months. B. The user has relocated to another address. C. The userâ€™s private: C
277. Which of the following correctly identifies some of the contents of an end userâ€™s X.509 certificate? A. userâ€™s public key, object identifiers, and the location of the userâ€™s electronic identity B. userâ€™s public key, the CA (Certi: C
278. Which of the following is a protocol generally used for secure web transactions? A. S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) B. XML (Extensible Markup Language) C. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) D. SMTP (Simple: C
279. Which of the following statements identifies a characteristic of a symmetric algorithm? A. performs a fast transformation of data relative to other cryptographic methods B. regardless of the size of the userâ€™s input data, the size: A
280. Assuring the recipient that a message has not been altered in transit is an example of which of the following: A. integrity B. static assurance C. dynamic assurance D. cyclical check sequence: A
281. Being able to verify that a message received has not been modified in transit is defined as: A. authorization B. non-repudiation C. integrity D. cryptographic mapping: C
282. Which of the following terms represents a MAC (Mandatory Access Control) model? A. Lattice B. Bell La-Padla C. BIBA D. Clark and Wilson: A
283. The most common method of social engineering is: A. looking through usersâ€™ trash for information B. calling users and asking for information C. e-mailing users and asking for information D. e-mail: B
284. In the context of the Internet; what is tunneling? Tunneling is: A. using the Internet as part of a private secure network B. the ability to burrow through three levels of firewalls C. the ability to pass information over the i: A
285. An effective method of preventing computer viruses from spreading is to: A. require root/administrator access to run programs B. enable scanning of e-mail attachments C. prevent the execution of .vbs files D. install a hos: B
286. The term cold site refers to: A. a low temperature facility for long term storage of critical data B. a location to begin operations during disaster recovery C. a facility seldom used for high performance equipment D. a locati: B
287. Sensitive material is currently displayed on a userâ€™s monitor. What is the best course of action for the user before leaving the area? A. The user should leave the area. The monitor is at a personal desk so there is no risk. B. tur: D
288. The system administrator of the company has terminated employment unexpectedly. When the administratorâ€™s user ID is deleted, the system suddenly begins deleting files. This is an example of what type of malicious code? A. logic b: A
289. With regards to the use of Instant Messaging, which of the following type of attack strategies is effectively combated with user awareness training? A. social engineering B. stealth C. ambush D. multi-pronged: A
290. What would NOT improve the physical security of workstations? A. lockable cases, keyboards, and removable media drives B. key or password proteced configuration and setup C. password required to boot D. strong passwords: D
291. What authentication problem is addressed by single sign on? A. authorization through multiple servers B. multiple domains C. multi-factor authentication D. multiple usernames and passwords: D
292. Access controls based on security labels associated with each data item and each user are known as: A. MACs (Mandatory Access Control) B. RBACs (Role Based Access Control) C. LBACs (List Based Access Control) D. DACs (t)i: A
293. A network administrator has just replaced a hub with a switch. When using software to sniff packets from the networks, the administrator notices conversations the administratorâ€™s computer is having with servers on the network, but can no longer se: A
294. Which type of password generator is based on challenge-response mechanisms? A. asynchronous B. synchronous C. cryptographic keys D. smart cards: A
295. Which of the following is a characteristic of MAC (Mandatory Acces Control) systems? MACs (Mandatory Access Control): A. uses levels of security to classify users and data B. allows owners of documents to determine who has access to: A
296. Which of the following is considered the best technical solution for reducing the threat of a man in the middle attack? A. Implement virtual LAN (Local Area Network) B. Implement GRE (Generic Route Encapsulation) tunnel IPIP: C
297. Companies without an acceptable use policy (AUP) may give their employees an expectation of: A. intrusions B. audits C. privacy D. prosecution: C
298. An administrator is concerned with viruses in e-mail attachments being distributed and inadvertently installed on usersâ€™ workstations. If the administrator set up an attachment filter, what types of attachments should be filtered from e-mails to m: D
299. It is most difficult to eavesdrop on which of the following types of network cabling? A. fiber optic cable B. coaxial cable C. UTP (DNShielded Twisted Pair) D. STP (Shielded Twisted Pair): A
300. Implementation of access control devices and technologies must fully reflect an organizationâ€™s security position as contained in its: A. ACLs (Access Control List) B. access control matrixes C. information security policies<: C

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Number of cards 99