EPPP: Industrial-Organizational Psychology

Start Studying!

Terms

undefined, object

copy deck

Name the branch of I/O psych that is concerned with assessment, selection, placement, and training of new and current employees.: Personnel Psychology
Performance assessments are conducted in organizations most often to ______ and to _______, but they may als be used to ________, ______, and ______.: make salary decisions
provide feedback to employees
help determine training needs
make decisions about promotions
validate selection procedures
Job analysis is a systematic method for collecting the information needed to identify three things:: 1) nature of the job
2) KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics) that people must have to do the job; and
3) the measures with which job performance can be evaluated
The development of performance assessment techniques usually begins with a ________.: Job analysis
The increase in decision-making accuracy an employer achieves by using the predictor to make selection decisions is called?: Incremental Validity
In terms of INCREMENTAL VALIDITY, which of the following situations most supports the use of a new predictor: a. moderate base rate with many applications and few job openings (low selection ratio) b. low base rate with many applicants and few: a. a moderate base rate suggests that there is room for improvement and, therefore, that a new predictor is likely to increase decision-making accuracy. Also, the situation is optimal when there is a low selection ratio.

b. INCORRECT. a low base rate suggests that something else besides selection is the problem -e.g., company's standards is too low or too high or employees need training in order to do the job satisfactorily.
Define incremental validity:: the degree to which a new selection technique will increase decision-making accuracy. it depends on several factors including the base rate (proportion of correct decisions without the new technique) and the selection ratio (ratio of applicants to job openins.
A transformational leader defines a goal to employees in a way that imbues the goal with meaning and purpose. This is referred to as: a. priming b. escalating commitment c. framing d. positioning: c. giving goals added mening is referred to as framing.
According to Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model, a "telling" leader will respond to an employee who is low in both ability and motivation by: a. recommending that the employee receive additional training b. having the: c. a telling leadership style is optimal for employees who are low in both ability and motivation and provides close supervision and specific instructions.
In an interview, a job applicant exhibits one or two very positive characteristics. These characteristics influence how the interviewer evaluates the applicant on the unrelated characteristic so that her overall impression is very favorable. This is an e: a. halo error
In an interview, several poor job applicants are interview and then a mediocre applicant is interviewed and hired immediately. This is an example of the: a. halo error b. contrast effect c. leniency bias d. fundamental attribution bia: b. a contrast effect occurs when the evaluation of an applicant is affected by a previous applicant.
The tendency for a rater to rate everyone highly is known as the: a. halo error b. contrast effect c. leniency bias d. fundamental attribution bias: c. leniency bias
The tendency to attribute the behavior of others as dispositional versus situational is known as the: a. halo error b. contrast effect c. leniency bias d. fundamental attribution bias: d. fundamental attribution bias
The best conclusion that can be drawn about biodata as a selection technique is that: a. it is the best predictor of organizational behavior for entry level managers, middle-level managers, and nonmanagers b. it is a very good predictor of some: b. the accuracy of biodate seems to depend on the criterion. There is evidence that suggests that biodata is a very good predictor of training success, but other predictors may be better for actual job performance.
In the context of Holland's theory of vocational choice, a high degree of differentiation: a. reflects an uncommon or unusual pattern of interests b. reflects a common pattern of interests c. increases the predictability of the person-envi: c. according to Holland, the importance of a good "fit" between a person's interrests and the characteristics of the job is most important for those who are highly differentiated. Holland used the term differentiation to describe the extent to which a person has clearly defined interests. A person who scores high on one of his interests scales and low on all other scales is highly differentiated.
Name the six basic personality/work environment types of Holland's theory of vocational choice (RIASEC).: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional.
Equity theory predicts that the husband will feel best about his marriage if: a. he and his wife give and recieve the same amount in their relationship b. he perceives that he and his wife give and receive the same amount in their relationship<: d. according to equity theory, a person compares his/her input/outcome ratio to that of others. If he/she percieves the ratios to be simil, this has positive effects on satisfaction and motivation.
The shortage of mentors for women and members of culturally-diverse groups at the managerial level is likely to be of most concern for an advocate of: a. social learning theory b. contingency management theory c. need hierarchy theory: a. According to social leaerning theory, people learn from observing and interacting with others. Therefore, not having a "model" who is of the same gender or cultural background would be of concern to advocates of this theory.
The use of rewards and punishments to elicit desired behavior is know as: a. social learning theory b. contingency management theory c. need hierarchy theory d. LPC theory: b. contingency managment
Research on the application of goal-setting theory to groups (versus individuals) suggests that: a. individual goals are more effective than group goals b. individual plus gropu goals are more effective than group goals plus performance feedbac: c. the research has found that a combination of specific goals with performance feeback is the optimal situation for both groups and individuals.
"Group polarization" occurs when: a. group members are split in their solution to a problem b. group members make riskier decisions as a group than they would have as individuals c. group members make more extreme decisions (risk: c.
Research investigating the relationship bewteen interest test scores and future occupational choice suggests that these tests have the highest predictive validity for: a. lower-class people b. middle-class people c. upper-class people: b. middle class people tend to have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.
An examinee whose highest score on Holland's occupational themes is on the realistic scale would probably be least interested in pusuing a career as a: a. farmer b. bookkeeper c. technical writer d. social worker: d. social work is appropriate for people who score highest on the social theme, which is most dissimiilar from the realistic theme.
An assumption underlying the notion of "groupthink" is that: a. pressures toward uniformity limit task effectiveness b. increasing cohesiveness results in more extreme decisions c. excessive pressures toward conformity produce re: a. Groupthink is characterized by a decrease in willingness to consider divergent points of view, resulting in inappropriate decisions and actions (although not necessarily more extreme ones).
Research examining the role of raters' expectations on their ratings has found that, when ratees are equal in actual level of performance: a. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform worse than they expected than to ratees whose perfomrance: c. apparently raters do not like to be wrong: they tend to assign lower ratings regardless of whether the ratee did worse or better than expected.
Research on equity theory suggests that: a. underpayment shoud be avoided but overpayment should be encouraged b. underpayment and overpayment should both be avoided c. negative valence should be avoided but positive valence should be enco: b. Although overpayment can produce an increase in productivity, the increase is only temporary. Overpayment sets up an inequitable situation that can have adverse effects on the performance of others.

Valence is associated with expectancy theory.
Research on job satisfaction suggests that it: a. is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes b. is relatively stable within the same job but unstable when measured across different jobs c. is relatively unstable: a. It appears that job satisfaction is directly related to the tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic. People with negative affect tend to be dissatisfied with work; pepole with positive affect tend to be satisfied.
The rational-economic model of decision-making views decision-makers as attempting to make: a. "satisficing" decisions b. "bounded" decisions c. representative decisions d. optimal decisions: d. the rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers will consider all possible alternatives and choose the optimal one.
The bounded rationality (administrative) model of decision-making views decision-makers as attempting to make: a. "satisficing" decisions b. less than rational decisions due to limited capabilities, time, and resources c. represe: b. these are "bounded" decisions
In an oraganization, an assessment center is most likely to include which of the following: a. a measure of psychomotor ability b. a lie detector c. a "vestibule" d. an "in-basket test": d. assessment centers incorporate a variety of techniques including situational tests such as the in-basket test.
In an oraganization, a common assessment for a production-type job is most likely to include which of the following: a. a measure of psychomotor ability b. a lie detector c. a "vestibule" d. an "in-basket test": c. a vestibuele is a facsimilie of a real environment. Vestibules are used for training purposes and are most commonly associated with production-type jobs (e.g., a vestibule might be a facsimile of an actual assembly line).
A problem with rational decision-making is that decision makers often examine possible alternatives only until a solution that meets minimal requirements is found and then stop looking for better alternatives. This is refered to as: a. minimizing: d. satisficing
Due to recent changes in technology, a company vice president realizes that many employees will need to be retrained. The first step in identifying training needs will most likely be: a. performing a job evaluation b. conducting a needs assessm: b. needs analysis (assessment) is done to determine training needs. It encompasses several other analyses such as task analysis and person analysis.

a. INCORRECT - this is used to set wages and salaries
c. INCORRECT - this is one of the outcomes of a needs assessment
d. INCORRECT - a personnel audit is part of an organizational assessment which, in turn, is part of a needs assessment.
Research on goal-setting theory suggests that monetary incentives: a. are irrelevant to goal achievement as long as the goals have been accepted by employees b. are irrelevant to goal achievement as long as the goals have been self-set by emplo: d. monetary incentive seem to have a positive effect on goal achievement (especially when they are tied specifically to achievement) regardless of the circumstances. (Some research states that monetary incentives can have a detrimental effect when the employee is involved in the goal setting.)
Research on shiftwork suggests that: a. all tasks, regardless of complexity, are performed more efficiently and accurately on the day shift b. simple monotonous tasks are ordinarily performed equally well on day or nigth shifts c. complex: c. complex mental tasks involving short-term memory may be performed better on night shifts than on day shifts.

b. INCORRECT -simple monotonous tasks are ordinarily performed better during the day.

d. INCORRECT - This is the opposite of what is true: complex tasks seem to be less negatively affected by rotating shifts than simple tasks.
The predictions of goal-setting theory appear to be most accurate for: a. easy tasks and people high in need for achievement b. easy tasks and people low in need for achievement c. complex tasks and people high in need for achievement: a. There is some evidence that the prediction of goal setting theory are more accurate for simple tasks and for people who are high in neec for achievement (who are more likely to commit to goals).
According to Locke's goal-setting theory, employees are motivated to achieve goals that they have: a. consciously accepted b. unconsciously accepted c. understand d. do not understand: a. Locke believes that employees are more committed to goals that they have consciously accepted
Goal setting theory predicts that ______ difficulty goals and ______ goals will produce higher levels of performance than easy, general, or ambiguous goals.: moderate; specific
Critical for ensuring maximum productivity is providing employees with: a. criticism b. feedback c. power d. praise: b. feedback
______ goals are associated with greater goal commitment for people with high nACH. a. assigned b. self-set c. easy d. difficult: b. self-set
______ goals are associated with greater goal commitment for people with low nACH. a. assigned b. self-set c. easy d. difficult: a. assigned
When workers are allowed to participate in setting their goals, the goals are more _____ than the ones the supervisor would have set alone. a. easy b. flexible c. rigid d. difficult: d. difficult
According to Tiedeman and O'Hara, career development involves two phases --anticipation and preoccupation --that each consists of several stages. Moreover, during these stages, the individual: a. attempts to achieve a balance between integration and: a. these investigators propose that achieving a balanced vocational identity involves both becoming part of a career field (integration) and retaining one's uniqueness (differentiation).

See pg. 33 in the book. I don't get this!!!!!!!!!
Holland's theory of vocational personalities and work environments predicts that a person with a REALISTIC orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that: a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity b. require manual or techn: b. Realistic work requires mechanical, manual, technical skills.
Holland's theory of vocational personalities and work environments predicts that a person with an ARTISTIC orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that: a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity b. require manual or techn: a. This type of job is appropriate for an artistic individual.
Holland's theory of vocational personalities and work environments predicts that a person with an CONVENTIONAL orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that: a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity b. require manual or t: c. This type of job is appropriate for a conventional individual.
Holland's theory of vocational personalities and work environments predicts that a person with an INVESTIGATIVE orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that: a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity b. require manu: d. This type of job is appropriate for a conventional individual.
If the court determines that a selection procedure is having an adverse impact, a company: a. can no longer use the procedure b. can use the procedure if there is evidence that the adverse impact represents "fair discrimination": d. when the court has determined that a selection technique is having an adverse impact, it is up to the company to prove that continued use of the technique is a "business necessity." This involves showing evidence of the procedure's validity and of a lack of alternatives mearsure that would have less adverse impact.
A potential problem with Holland's theory of vocational choice is that, in terms of cross-cultural vocational counseling, it: a. doesn't take into account the possibility that certain occupational environments may not be available to members o: a. To answer this question, you need to know that Holland's theory proposes that workers will be most satisfied when the job environment fits their personality type. It doesn't take into consideration the impact of discrimination, which may limit the availability of certain types of jobs for members of certain groups.
A personnel director conducts a study to evaluate the criterion-related validity of a new selection test. She finds that the slope of the regression line differs for males and females. This suggests that the test: a. may be "unfair" b: b. If the slopes of the regression lines for two different groups differ, this suggests that there may be differential validity (different validity coefficients for different groups).

a. INCORRECT - It is the predictor cutoff scores of the two groups that help determine whether there is unfairness
d. INCORRECT - Convergent validity refers to the degree of correlation between two measures that assess the same trait using different techniques.
Research on the compressed (four-day) workweek suggests that it results in: a. increases in job satisfaction but decreases in job productivity b. increases in job satisfaction and mixed results in terms of absenteeism c. improvements in em: b. The compressed work week may have some benefits for productivity in the short-run, but in the long run, seems to have neither positive nor negative effects. It's strongest impact is on satisfaction (workers tend to like it), but it's effects on absenteeism depend on which study you read.
The larger the group size, the more likely that Â“social loafingÂ” will occur. This may be due to: a. the sleeper effect b. increased social inhibition c. decreased arousal d. decreased self-attention: d. Once theory of social loafing is that it increases as group size increases because the larger the group, the more information about other members an individual member has to process. This has the effect of lowering an individualÂ’s self-attention and ability to monitor his/her own performance.
In a study on group decision-making, it is found that the average group response is much more extreme, but in the same direction, as the average response given by group members before participating in the group. This phenomenon is referred to as:: c. Group (response) polarization occurs when a person makes a more extreme decision in group than he/she would have made alone.

a. INCORRECT Â– the free-rider suggests that people reduce their effort on a group task when they observe that their contributions to a group are dispensable and that the group will succeed without them.

b. INCORRECT Â– Groupthink refers to a suspension of critical and objective thinking that can occur under certain circumstances in group decision-making. Although groupthink can result in more extreme decisions, it isnÂ’t necessarily so.

d. INCORRECT Â– the risky shift is like group polarization, but only includes the Â“riskyÂ” end of the decision continuum.
One criticism of BARS is that: a. it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed. b. It requires raters to recall the frequency of critical beha: a. CORRECT
Name the BIG FIVE: Â“OCEANÂ”: Openness to experience
Conscientiousness
Extraversion
Agreeableness
Neuroticism
Â“Criterion contaminationÂ” occurs when a raterÂ’s knowledge of a predictor scores affects how he/she assigns criterion scores. Criterion contamination can be eliminated by ensuring that the individual who assigns criterion scores is ignorant of the pred: b. criterion contamination artificially inflates the correlation coefficient. Therefore, the elimination of criterion contamination would lower the coefficient.

When a raterÂ’s knowledge of the rateesÂ’ predictor scores affects his/her ratings of the ratees on the criterion measure an artificially strong relationship is created between the predictor and criterion.
To maximize the cueing function of feedback regarding social achievement: a.internal and/or external rewards must be available when goals are achieved b.the feedback must be specific (rather than global) in nature c.the feedback should be: a. INCORRECT Â– rewards are associated more with motivation
c. INCORRECT Â– to maximize its effectiveness, feedback should provide information about both outcome and process.
d. INCORRECT Â– more relevant to motivating
Research investigating the effects of job satisfaction has generally found that: a. it is correlated with physical and psychological health and longevity b. it is correlated with physical health and longevity but not with mental health c.: a. job satisfaction has been found to correlate with longevity while dissatisfaction has been associated with both psychological and physical disorders (high blood pressure, alcoholism).
One problem with a decentralized communication network is that: a. it is associated with low levels of employee morale b. it can lead to the developments of autocratic leadership c. it can confuse the situation when the task is simple: c. for simple tasks (e.g., automated production line), centralized communication networks tend to be more effective. Decentralized networks are better for complex tasks because they provide greater flexibility and exchange of ideas.
A person is most likely to be happy in a job that involves working with tools and objects, requires physical strength, and provides regular feedback in the form of practical results if his/her highest score is on the __________ subscale of HollandÂ’s per: d. a person who scores highest in realistic enjoys or does well in technical, physical, mechanical, and/or outdoor activities.
From the perspective of equity theory, a workerÂ’s motivation is related to his/her perceptions regarding fairness of: a. outcomes b. input/outcome ratios c. effort/performance ratios d. negative and positive outcomes: c. employees compare their own input/outcome ratios to the ratios of others doing similar work
Group decisions tend to be better than decisions made by individuals when: a.the task requires a high degree of creativity b.the group is highly cohesive c.the group consists of members with complementary expertise d.the group h: c. groups are more effective when they are heterogeneous (when members have different skills and knowledge).

a. INCORRECT Â– individual decisions tend to be better than group decisions for tasks that require a high degree of conformity

b. INCORRECT Â– a high degree of cohesiveness can lead to groupthink
d. INCORRECT Â– a directive leader can also lead to groupthink.
According to Donald Super, Â“career maturityÂ” refers to: a.the final stage of career development b.the ability to accomplish the tasks of each stage of career development c.the ability to make realistic career choices d.the acq: b. Correct
As described by Krumboltz, career counseling involves: a. assessing the individualÂ’s self-concept and then identifying careers that match his/her self-concept b. helping the individual transition from the anticipation/preoccupation phase: c. in contrast to many other career development theories, KrumboltzÂ’s theory does not focus on matching individual characteristics to the characteristics of the job or organization. Instead, he argues that the purpose of career counseling is to help the individual develop attitudes and skills that will enable him/her to adapt to changing work requirements.

a.INCORRECT Â–this sounds like SuperÂ’s theory
b.INCORRECT Â– this sounds more like the theory of Tiedeman and OÂ’Hara
c.INCORRECT Â– this sounds like SuperÂ’s theory
A new selection test is apparently having an adverse impact on females. To determine if the adverse impact is being caused by Â“unfairness,Â” you would check: a.the predictor scores obtained by males and females b.the slopes of the regres: a. as defined by the EEOC, Â“unfairnessÂ” occurs when the validity coefficients and crieterion performance for two groups are similar but members of the groups perform differently on the predictor.

b. INCORRECT Â– the slopes of the regression lines would be useful for determining if adverse impact is due to differential validity
Â“UnfairnessÂ” is depicted in one of the above figures: a. Figure 1a b. Figure 1b c. Both figures d. Neither figure: b. Unfairness is illustrated in Figure 1b. In this situation, the predictor has the same degree of validity for Group A and Group B. However, because members of Group A consistently score lower on the predictor than members of Group B, if the same predictor cutoff score is used for both groups, the predictor will have an adverse impact on members of group A.
Differential Validity is depicted in one of the above figures: a. Figure 1a b. Figure 1b c. Both figures d. Neither figure: a. Differential validity is illustrated in Figure 1(a). In this situation, the predictor has high validity for people in Group B but no validity for people in Group A. As a result, use of the predictor as a selection technique will have an adverse impact on members of Group A.
In mediation: a. the mediator considers the preferences of all involved parties but his/her decision or problem solution is binding b. the mediator makes a formal recommendation following a review of the facts, but the recommendation may: c. mediation is often distinguished between fact-finding and arbitration. In mediation, a neutral third party (the mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between disputants. Mediators can made recommendations, but they have no formal power and cannot impose their solution or decision.

a.INCORRECT Â– this sounds more like arbitration
b.INCORRECT Â– this sounds more like fact-finding than mediation
d. INCORRECT Â– this does not describe the role of a mediator
To eliminate the least qualified job applicants early in the selection process, which of the following would be most helpful: a.profile matching b.multiple cutoff c.critical incident technique d.multiple hurdle: d. as its name implies, the multiple hurdle technique involves administering selection measures one at a time, with each successive measure (hurdle) being administered only when the applicant has been successful on the previous one. The first hurdle is designed to eliminate the least qualified applicants.

a. INCORRECT Â– profile matching involves administering several selection measures and comparing the applicantÂ’s sore profile to that of the typical successful employee.

b. INCORRECT Â– the multiple cutoff technique entails administering all selection measures to an applicant and considering the applicant only if he/she scores above a predefined minimum score on each measure.

c. INCORRECT Â– critical incidents technique is used in performance appraisals to determine how well an employee is doing to provide the employee with feedback about his/her performance.
To maximize the cueing function of feedback regarding social achievement: a. internal and/or external rewards must be available when goals are achieved b.the feedback must be specific (rather than global) in nature c.the feedback should be: b. feedback is more effective when it is specific

a. INCORRECT Â– rewards are associated more with motivation
c. INCORRECT Â– to maximize its effectiveness, feedback should provide information about both outcome and process.
d. INCORRECT Â– more relevant to motivating
Research investigating the effects of job satisfaction has generally found that: a.it is correlated with physical and psychological health and longevity b.it is correlated with physical health and longevity but not with mental health c.it: a. job satisfaction has been found to correlate with longevity while dissatisfaction has been associated with both psychological and physical disorders (high blood pressure, alcoholism).
One problem with a decentralized communication network is that: a.it is associated with low levels of employee morale b.it can lead to the developments of autocratic leadership c.it can confuse the situation when the task is simple d.: c. for simple tasks (e.g., automated production line), centralized communication networks tend to be more effective. Decentralized networks are better for complex tasks because they provide greater flexibility and exchange of ideas.
A large law firm is facing a difficult and involved case. The senior partner asks a group of four lawyers to verbalize all ideas that come into their minds about the case, no matter how absurd the ideas may be. He then asks four other lawyers, separately: a. individuals brainstorming alone are more productive.
From the perspective of equity theory, a workerÂ’s motivation is related to his/her perceptions regarding fairness of: a.outcomes b.input/outcome ratios c.effort/performance ratios d.negative and positive outcomes: c. employees compare their own input/outcome ratios to the ratios of others doing similar work
According to Donald Super, Â“career maturityÂ” refers to: a. the final stage of career development b. the ability to accomplish the tasks of each stage of career development c.the ability to make realistic career choices d.the a: b. Correct
As described by Krumboltz, career counseling involves: a.assessing the individualÂ’s self-concept and then identifying careers that match his/her self-concept b.helping the individual transition from the anticipation/preoccupation phase t: c. in contrast to many other career development theories, KrumboltzÂ’s theory does not focus on matching individual characteristics to the characteristics of the job or organization. Instead, he argues that the purpose of career counseling is to help the individual develop attitudes and skills that will enable him/her to adapt to changing work requirements.
You evaluate the effects of a training program and the satisfaction of trainees in order to determine what changes in the program are needed to achieve maximum effectiveness. This is an example of: a.needs assessment b.functional analysis: d. formative evaluation. This is a trick questionÂ….

a. INCORRECT Â– a needs assessment is conducted to determine training needs.

b. INCORRECT Â– a functional analysis is used by behavioral psychologists to obtain information about a target behavior.

c. INCORRECT - A summative evaluation is conducted after a program has been implemented in order to assess its outcomes. The results of the summative evaluation may be used to determine how much trainees have learned and to evaluate the programÂ’s cost effectiveness.
Although the program in the question states that the effects will be evaluated, it sounds like this will be done while the program is being formed so that it can be changed while forming.
From the perspective of the situational leadership model, when an employee is both competent and confident, the best leadership style is: a.selling b.telling c.participating d.delegating: d. a delegating leadership style is appropriate for highly mature employees. When adopting this style, the leader is low in both relationship and task behavior.

a. INCORRECT Â– a selling style is appropriate for employees who are moderate in maturity (are unable but willing or confident).

b. INCORRECT Â– a telling leadership style is best for employees who are low in maturity (are both unable and unwilling or insecure).

c.. INCORRECT Â– A participative leadership style is most effective for employees who are moderate to high in maturity (are able but unwilling or insecure).
Which of the following individuals distinguishes between Steady State, Linear, Spiral, and Transitory Career Concepts. a.Super b.Holland c.Driver d.Krumboltz: c. Driver distinguishes between the four Career Concepts listed in the question and describes them in terms of three dimensions: frequency of job change, direction of change, and type of change in job content.
Lawler's (1973) model of facet satisfaction: a. is similar to equity theory and assumes that job satisfaction is affected by comparisonsof one's own inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of others b. is similar to need hierarchy theory: a. Like equity theory. Lawler's model predicts that workers compare their own input/outcome ratios to the input/outcome ratios of comparable others. When the ratios are the same, the worker is satisfied; when the worker's own ratio is larger than that of coparable others, the worker may feel guilt or other discomfort; and when the worker's ratio is less than that of comparable others, he/she is dissatisfied.
A problem with establishing "comparable worth" is that : a. job evaluation techniues are not as useful for very complex jobs b. males and females may use different strategies to reach the same decision or solution c. the job eval: c. a difficulty in establishing comparable worth, at least according to some experts, is that the job evaluation techniques used to establish it may themselves be gender-biased. This issue continues to be debated in the literature.

The doctrine of comparable worth extends "equal content" as a determinant of wages to "comparable worth". in other words, even in two jobs are diffferent in terms of content, they should have the same salary as long as they involve similar processes and demands. Comparable woth became an issue becuse of the gender differences in wages.
Kirkpatrick (1983) identifies four levels of rigor in the evaluation of training programs. According to his model, which of the following represents the highest level of evaluation: a reaction criteria b. results criteria c. behavioral cir: b. mearsuere indicateing the contribution of trainin to the organization's objective are at the top of Kirkpatrick's hierarcy. These measures include cost and turnover reductions, increases in overall productivity, and increases in profits.

a. INCORRECT - Trainiees' impressions of and reactions to the training program are considered the "lowest" level of rigor.

c. INCORRECT - Behavioral criteria are second to the top and include measures of an individual trainee's on-the-job performance. (Note that some experts consider measures of transfer-of-training to be the "highest" level of evaluation.)
d. INCORRECT - Learning criteria are the seconcd level and include written exams and performance tests given at the end of training.
K key distinguishing feature of "self-directed work teams" (SDWTs) is that: a. membership is voluntary b. employees are also owners of the company c. discussions and meetings are leaderless d. job rotation is mandatory: d. in contrast to toher types of work teams, workers in SDWTs are trained to perform a variety of tasks so that they are essentially internchangeable with other team members and can provide assitance to others.
Recent surveys suggest that an employee's mental and physical health is most related to: a. pay b. the work environment c. work involvement d. job security: d. the more permanent the employees thought their position was, the greater their physical and mental well-being.
Within the context of organizations, peer appraisals: a. tend to be more biased than appraisals by supervisors and others b. are accurate but do not provide useful information for employee feedback c. are considered useful for fostering co: d. peer appraisals seem to be particularly usefulfor predicting future success (e.g., promotions and raises). This is a difficult question because there doesn't seem to be a strong consensus in the literature about the uses of peer appraisals because there are several different types, which are each associated with different advantages and disadvantages.
Calculation of the utility of a training program in terms of dollar value includes which of the following: a. T x d x D b. T - d x C c. T x C - d d. T + C + d: Utility refers to the cost effectiveness of training and can be calculated using the following formula:

$U = T N x d x SD - N x C where:

$U = utility measured in terms of dollar value
T = number of years duration of the training program's effects on performance
N = number of people trained
d = effect size of the training program
SD = standard deviation of job performance in dollars
c = per person cost of training

a. as shown above, T x d x C is part of the formula for calculating utility.
Level of organizational commitment is most predictive of: a. turnover b. job satisfaction c. quantity and quality of work d. life satisfaction: Organizational commitment refers to the strength of a person's identification with and involvement in a particular organization.

a. like job satisfaction, commitment appears to have the highest correlation with turnover. It is oalso related to the individual's willingness to exert effort on behalf of the company.
During the sixth week of the semester, students in an intorductory psychology class meet on Saturday morning to discuss their class project. In the first meeting, a couple of the students say they think the instructor is boring and a "bad" teac: b. group polarization refers to the tendency of groups to make more extreme decisions than individual group members would make alone.
In a police department, the usual rotating 8-hour shift of the officers is replaced by a fixed 12-hour compressed shift. Most likely, this change will have which of the following effects: a. decrease productivity and satisfaction b. decre: Innovative work schedules have a greater impact on attitudes than on productivity.

d. CORRECT
Which of the following is NOT true of mediation? a. a mediator can impose a settlement b. a mediator does not serve as an advocate for either party. c. Participation in mediation is voluntary d. Arbitration provides a more final: Mediation is the most used third-party optin. A neutral third party (mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement bewteen the disputants.

a. because the mediator has no formal powers, he or she cannot impose a settlement.

b. INCORRECT - mediator serves as a neutral facilitator, and thus does not advocate for either participant.
c. INCORRECT - Mediation is voluntary
d. INCORRECT - Arbitration is the final and most formal settlement techniqe.
A police department is going to change the work schedule for its police officers. Rather than work a traditional five-day workweek, it will now allow for its officers to work a four-day workweek. The research on a four-day workweek has found that it:: In the four-day workweek, the forty hours in a traditional five-day workweek is divided into four days.

d. the compressed four-day workweek has little impact on job productivity, but may have beneficial effects at home.
In contrast to Maslow's need hierarchy thoery, Alderfer's ERG theory: a. places motivatin within a satisfaction/dissatisfaction framework b. proposes that needs emerge in a predictable order c. assumes that needs may become more (rat: ERG theory is a modification of Maslow's need hierarchy theory. Among other things, it reduces Maslow's five needs to three: existence, relatedness, and growth.

c. this is an assumption of ERG theory and the opposite of what Maslow's theory predicts.

a. INCORRECT - This sounds like Herzberg's two-factor theory

b. INCORRECT - this is a characteristic of Maslow's (not Alderfer's) theory.

d. INCORRECT - Alderfer's theory has actually received more support than Maslow's.
Feelings of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and low personal accomplishment are symptomatic of: a. chronic boredom b. low morale c. repeated role conflicts d. job burnout: d. these are the three components of job burnout.
Goal-setting theory, equity theory, and expectancy theory share in common which of the following: a. a focus on peer (co-worker) influences on job performance b. the premise that behavior is motivated by its concequences c. the belie: The three theories are cognitive theories that view motivation and performance as directly linked to cognitive events.

d. the cognitive event in goal-setting theory is the conscious acceptance of the goals; in equity theory it is self-other comparisons; and in expectancy theory it is beliefs related to effort/performance and performance/outcomes.
Transformational leaders: a. are likely to have a "dark side" b. use their legitimate status to gain compliance c. appeal to the self-interest of their followers d. seek to empower their followers: Transformational leaders recognize the need for change (transformation) and are able to communicate that vision to their followers and gain their commitment to it.

d. one characteristic of transformational leaders is that they attempt to raise their level of consciousness, awareness, and commitment to their followers and to stregthen their ability to control their own destinies.

a. INCORRECT - this sounds like charasmatic leaders

b. INCORRECT - this sounds like transactional leaders (who are contrasted with transformational leaders).

c. INCORRECT - this sounds like a transactional leader.
Which of the following is true about homogeneous groups in the workplace: a. they experience less conflict than heterogeneous groups. b. they solve complex tasks better than heterogeneous groups c. they make less extreme decisions th: a. CORRECT

b. INCORRECT - this is actuall the opposite of what is true.

c. INCORRECT - groups tend to make more extreme decisions than individuals.

d. INCORRECT - on certain types of tasks, individuals working alone are more productive than the same number of individuals working as a group.
The basic premise underlying goal-setting theory is that: a. participation in goals is necessary to ensure commitment to them b. a person's conscious goals and intentions regulate his or her actual behavior c. a person will work to a: c. Acceptance is the critical factor: a person must consciously accept the goals and intend to achieve them.

a. INCORRECT - although participation in goals can increase one's acceptance (and intentions), it is not considered necessary.

c. INCORRECT - this is not a prediction made by goal-setting theory (although it would contribute to a person's acceptance of goals).
When the use of selection or other employment procedures results in higher rejection rates for legally protected individuals than for the majority group _____ is said to occur: a. unfairness b. discrimination c. adverse impact d: c. this is referred to as adverse impact.

a. INCORRECT - unfairness occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on a predictor than members of another group, but the differences in predictor scores are not reflected in differences in actual job performances.

d. INCORRECT - differential validty exists when the validity coefficient of a predictor is significantly different or one subgroup than for another subgroup (e.g., lower for African-American applicants then white applicants).
Two of the most common causes for adverse impact are: __________ and _______.: Differential validity and unfairness.
Adverse impact occurs when use of a procedure results in substantially different selection, placement, or promotion rate for members of a subgroup. The __________ rule is often used to determine if a procedure is having an adverse impact: a. r: d. 80% four fifths rule; using this rule the hiring rate for the majority group is multiplied by 80% to determine the minimum hiring rate for the minority group. E.g., if use of a selection test results in 50% hiring rate for African-Americans and a 90% rate for whites, the test would be having an adverse impact for African-Americans since 90% times 80% is 72%, which is greater thatn the hiring rate for African-Americans.
T or F: A job analysis is performed to clarify the requirements of the job, while a job evaluation is conducted specifically to determine the relative worth of a job in order to set salaries and wages.: TRUE
"KSAOs" are:: Knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics that people must have to do the job.
In order to determine the nature of a job, a _____ must be performed: a. job analysis b. job evaluation c. criterion analysis d. job prediction: a. job analysis
KSAOs would be collected while doing a: a. job analysis b. job evaluation c. criterion analysis d. job prediction: a. job analysis
In order to determine the measures with which a job performance can be evaluated, a a _____ must be performed: a. job analysis b. job evaluation c. criterion analysis d. job prediction: a. job analysis
Work force plannig, traning program design, job redesign, identification of accident cause, and other safety-related problems may all be accomplished by developing _____ : a. job analysis b. job evaluation c. criterion measures: c. criterion measures

a. INCORRECT - criterion measures are the result of a job analysis.

b. INCORRECT - Job evaluations are done to set wages and salaries.

d. INCORRECT - there is no such thing as "criterion analysis".
Name the concept that is associated with the notion that jobs should be paid on the basis of their intrinsic worhh in order to overcome salary injustices (e.g., differences in pay for traditionally "male" versue "female" jobs).: Comparable Worth
T or F: Rating biases and other inaccuracies are reduced by having raters rate specific behaviors rather than global behaviors or traits.: TRUE
Behaviors can be defined in terms of ______ _______ which are descriptions of specific job behaviors that lead to either successful or unsuccessful job performance.: critical incidents
T or F: One of the advantages of the critical incidents technique is that its development requires little supervision of employees and that it assess a wide range of job behaviors.: FALSE - Although critical incidents technique provides useful information for employee feedback, the primary disadvantages are that its development requires close supervision of employees, accurate recordkeeping by the rater, and it addresses on critical (extreme) job behaviors, not typical ones.
Criterion Relevance: An actual criterion is relevant to the extent that it measures the ultimate criterion. Relevence is often described as a synonym for construct validity.
A supervisor is reluctant to rate his supervisees in an unfavorable way and tends to rate supervisees as either "very good" or "superior" on all dimensions of job performance. This supervisor is exhibiting a _________ bias.: leniency
A job __________ is conducted specifically to determine the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages.: evaluation
True or False. The "halo effect" refers to a rater's tendency to rate all supervisees identical to the way she rated on e of her supervisees.: False
True or False. Self-ratings ted to be more lenient than peer and supervisor ratings.: True.
Criterion contamination is most likely to have which of the following effects: a. it will artificially decrease the size of the validity coefficient b. it will artifically increase the size of the validity coefficient c. it will have: b. it will artificially increase the size of the validity coefficient

Criterion contamination occurs when the rating of an employee's performance on a criterion is affected by irrelevant factors. When this occurs, the criterion is not providing accurate information, and, if the criterion is used to validate a predictor, criterion contamination is likely to artificially inflate the predictor's criterion-related validty coefficient.
Performance appraisals are most frequently conducted in organizations to: a. validate selection procedures b. facilitate job evaluations c. make decisions about raises and bonuses: c.
When using the Critical Incident Technique, critical incidents are usually identified by: a. the supervisor who observes an employee while he/she works b. the employee who maintains a detailed job diary c. a job analyst who administe: a.
The doctrine of comparable worth proposes that salaries should reflect: a. the market value of each job b. the intrinsic worth of each job c. the individual employee's productivity level: b.
The best way to reduce rater biases is to: a. train the raters b. use the single-blind technique c. use an absolute measure: a.
Frame-of-reference training is useful for: a. designing accurate rating scales b. maximizing transfer of training c. increasing rater accuracy: c.
True or False: Cross validation refers to the process of determining a predictor's criterion-related validity on a second sample independently drawn from the same population used in the original validation study.: TRUE
The cross validation coefficient is lower than the origial coefficient due to __________.: Shrinkage - which occurs because all of the chance factors that maximized the original validity coefficient are not present in the second sample.
Validity generalization studies confim that published validity coefficients tend to underestimate the validity of many predictors as a result of __________, __________, __________.: small sample size, a restricted range of scores, and other methodological problems.
A selection ratio is the ratio of job openings to a job applicants. A selection ratio of 1:50, for example would mean that there are/is ____ job openings to every _____ job applicants.: one; 50
A low selection ratio would mean that there are: a. few applicants for one or a few jobs b. many applicants for one or a few jobs c. few applicants for many jobs d. many applicants for many jobs: b. with many applicants for one or a few jobs there is a LOW probability that you would be selected for a job --thus a low selection ratio.
A HIGH selection ratio would mean that there are: a. few applicants for one or a few jobs b. many applicants for one or a few jobs c. few applicants for many jobs d. many applicants for many jobs: c. few applicants for many jobs and thus there is a HIGH probability that you would be selected for a job
_______ rate is the percent of employees who are perfoming satisfactorily without use of the proposed predictor.: Base; the base rate ranges in value from 0 to 1.0.
A __________ base rate is usually associated with the greatest incremental validity: a. weak b. high c. moderate d. strong: c. moderate; this is because when most of the employees being hired useing the current techniques are either highly successful or unsuccessful(i.e., when the base rate is very high or very low), the addition of a new predictor will have little effect on the quality of the work force.
What do the Taylor Russell tables do?: They can be used to estimate the percent of new hires who will be successful as employees given various combinations of validity coefficients, selection ratios, and base rates.
T or F: Multiple regression is compensatory and multiple cutoff is not.: TRUE: Multiple regression is compensatory since exceptional performance on one predictor can offset poor performance on another predictor. This is because predictor scores are weighted with weights being determined by its correlation with the criterion. In contrast, multiple cutoff method is noncompensator because with this method a minimum score on each predictor must be obtained before a job applicant will be considered for selection.
The validity of biodata is maximized with items are _____ derived.: empirically
True or False. Differential validity is occurring when the validity of a test for one subgroup differs substantialy from its validity for another subgroup.: TRUE.
True or False. Using the 80% Rule, you can correctly assume that a test is having an adverse impact for women if use of the test results in a hiring rate of over 80% for men but a hiring rate of less than 80% for women.: FALSE. This is not how the 80% rule is used.
True or False. Of the "Big Five" personality traits, openness to experience is the best predictor of job performance across different jobs.: True.
"Shrinkage" is associated with: a. cross-validation b. utility c. differential validity: a.
One disadvantage of empirically-derived Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) is that they may contain itmes that: a. lack face validity b. contribute to differential validity c. are difficult to interpret and score: a.
In terms of incremental validity, which of the following selection ratios is preferred: a. 20:40 b. 2:20 c. 1:20: c.
All other things being equal, a predictor will have the greatest impact on decision-making accuracy when the base rate is equal to: a. .25 b. .55 c. .95: b
An in-basket test would be most useful for evaluating: a. managerial-level employees b. blue-collar workers c. clerical personnel: a.
The Taylor-Russell tables are useful for: a. evaluating adverse impact b. increasing validity generalization c. assessing incremental validity: c.
General mental ability tests are: a. generally less predictive of job performance than other techniques b. good predictors accross different jobs, especially when the criterion is objective c. good predictors only for managerial-leve: b.
The primary goal of a realistic job preview is to: a. reduce turnover b. increase productivity c. facilitate placement decisions: a.
True or False. In most training situations, massed pracetice is more effective than spaced practice.: False.
Providing "identical elements" helps increase transfer of training.: True. Positive transfer is maximized when: 1) the degree of similarity between aspects of the learning and performance environments is maximized (i.e., "identical elements" are provided); 2) general rules and principles are taught in addition to specific skills; 3) training includes exposure to a variety of examples and other relevant stimuli; and 4) the skills acquired in training are subsequently reinforced and supported on the job.
True or False. Under normal conditions, an employee's supervisor can be provided with information about an employee's progress in treatment provided through an EAP.: False. With regrd to confidentiality, under normal circumstances, the only time information can be given to an employee's supervisor is when the supervisor has referred the employee to the EAP. And, even then, only limited information may be given, such as 1) whether the employee kept the appointment, 2) whether the employee needs treatment.
Tiedeman and O'Hara describe career development as an aspect of ego identity development.: True.
The initial step in a needs assessment is to: a. identify employee deficiencies in knowledge, skills, and abilities b. set objective standards of evaluation c. determine if training is the solution to the company's productivity probl: c.Training program development begins with a *needs assessment* (or needs analysis), which consists of four elements: 1)an organization analysis to identify organizational goals and dtermine if it is training that is needed to achieve those goals; 2) a task or job analysis to identify what must be done to perform the job successfully; 3) a person analysis to determine which employees require training and what knowledge, skills, and abilities they need to acquire; and 4) a demographic analysis to identify the training needs of different groups of workers (e.g., older vs younger).
Overlearning is: a. inadvisable b. desirable c. unattainable: b. overlearning occurs when an individual practices a new skill or studies material beyond a point of mastery.

a. INCORRECT - overtraining is a sports psychology term that refers to physical and psychological stress resulting from excessvie athletic training, which is undesirable.
Krumboltz's theory of career decision making relies on which of the following approaches: a. psychodynamic b. social learning c. need hierarchy: b.
__________ is a central concept in Super's theory of career development: a. personality/environment fit b. early family atmosphere c. career maturity: c.
Vestible training is: a. for job incumbents who lack basic educational skills b. useful when errors that occur during on-the-job training would be too costly c. useful for determining which job fits a person's abilities.: b. Vestibule training makes use of physical replication of simulation of the work environment and is useful when on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous (it is less costly and dangerous to crash the test simulator than a jumbo jet).
According to Holland, the optimal situation is for the job environment to match the individual's: a. stated goals b. aptitude c. personality: c. Holland devised six basic personality/work environment types and emphasized the importance of matching an individual's personality to the characteristics of the work environment.
For Super, the vocational choice involves matching the characteristics of the job to one's: a. need structure b. developmental level c. self-concept: c.
During the course of developing a training program, you would conduct a __________ evaluation to determine if any modifications to the program are required: a. summative b. formative c. reactive: b.
A manager with a Theory X philosophy would be most likely to say that her role as a manager: a. is to help employees identify and achieve their common goals and objectives b. is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organiza: b. theory X managers believe that employees dislike work and therefore need direction. Theory Y managers believe that employees view work as "natural as play" and are capable of self-direction and self-management.
The original intent of the Hawthorne studies was to: a. investigate the role of social relationships on worker productivity b. identify the most effective way for employees to perform cognitively complex jobs c. determine the effects: c.
A proponent of which of the following theories would be most likely to agree that motivation is low when employees see little connection between their effort and performance: a. ERG theory b. expectancy theory c. two-factor theory: b. According to "Expectency (VIE) Theory" an employee will work hard if s/he 1) believes that high effort will lead to successful task performance (high expectency), 2) believes that successful performance will lead to rewards (high instrumentality), and 3) views the rewards as desirable (positive valance).
Herzberg's two-factor theory is comprised of ___________ needs and _____ needs.: Lower-levle needs; higher level needs
Lower level needs have _____ effect on job satisfaction and motivation, but produce ______ when they are unfulfilled.: little; dissatisfaction
Higher-level needs ______ job satisfaction and motivation when they are fulfilled but do not cause _____ when they are unfulfilled.: increase; dissatisfaction
From the perspective of goal setting theory, performance feedback: a. is unnecessary as long as goals have been explicitly accepted b. is a necessary but not sufficient condition for goal achievement c. is more important than the acc: b.
Alderfer's ERG theory is a modification of: a. Herzberg's two-factor theory b. Locke's goal-setting theory c. Maslow s need hierarchy theory: c.
Research on goal-setting theory has found that, when workers participate in setting their own goals, the goals tend to be ______ goals set by the supervisor alone: a. easier than b. similar to c. more difficult than: c.
True or False. Goal setting theory predicts that an employee will work harder to achieve an easy or moderately easy goal than a difficult goal.: False.
True or False. According to Herzberg, motivators contribute to job satisfaction, while hygience factors affect satisfaction and dissatisfaction.: False.
True or False. Job enlargement involves redesigning a job so that it provides a greater variety or number of tasks but does not involve greater responsibility or autonomy.: True.
Job dissatisfaction is MOST strongly correlated with: a. accident rates b. lowered productivity c. turnover: c.
Kornhauser's survey of automworkers found that which of the following is the best predictor of job satisfaction and mental health: a. task enlargement b. physical work conditions c. opportunitieds for skill utilization: c.
Research on job satisfaction has found that there is a _____ relationship between age and satisfaction: a. positive b. negative c. curvilinear: a.
According to Fiedler's contingency model of leadership, low LPC leaders perform most effectively in: a. unfavorable situations b. moderately favorable situations c. highly unfavorable and highly favorable situations.: c.
Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that a leader's style: a. is fixed and cannot change b. should match the employee's maturity c. should match the characteristics of the task.: b.
If you are using a decision-tree to determine which leadership style to adopt (e.g., autocratic, consultative, or group), you are relying on the work of: a. Vroom, Yetton, and Jago b. hersey and Blanchard c. Lewin, Lippert, and White: a.
True or False. A leader who is high in "initiating structure" is aessentially person-oriented.: False.
True or False. A transformational leader motivates and inspires followers by imbuing their jobs with meaning and challenge.: True.
A _____ focuses on stability and normal work-related activities, relies on rewards and punishments, and appeals to self-interest for motivation.: transactional leader
From the perspective of path-goal theory, a leader can alter his/her style to fit the demands of the situation.: True.
True or False. Research has consistently found that female leaders score highest on measures of consideration, while male leaders score highest on measures of initiating structure.: False.
True or False. Idiosyncracy credits allow a group member to temporarily deviate from established group norms.: True
True or False. Conformity to group norms tends to be highest in structured, unambiguous situations.: False - Conformity to group norms is maximized when the task is ambiguous or complex; when group consensus is high; and when members help define the norms.
True or False. Brainstorming by a four-member group is likely to result in more creative ideas than brainstorming by four separate individuals.: False
True or False. In a centralized communication network the central person usually is more satisfied, but overall satisfaction is greater in decentralized networks.: True. Communication networks are classified as centralized or decentralized. Centralized networks are most effective for simple tasks, while decentralized networks are better for complex and are associated with greater overall satisfaction.
T or F. The research has clearly shown that, on independent tasks, a combination of individual and group goals is superior to group goals alone.: False
Social loafing is most likely to occur when: a. the group is small and the task is additive b. the group is large and the task is compensatory c. the group is large and the task is additive: c. Group tasks are classified into four types. When the task is additive, the final group project represents a combination of the contributions of individual group members. When the task is compensatory, the final product is the average of the individual memberÂ’s contributions. For a conjunctive task, group performance is limited by the weakest member, and for a disjunctive task, group members pick the solution offered by one of the members.
During the third stage of group formation, _____ develops and group norms are established. This stage typically follows a stage marked by _____ .: cohesiveness; difficulty
Team __________ is associated with better creativity and decision-making: a. heterogeneity b. homogeneity c. homosexuality d. cohesiveness: a.
A group of mountain-climbers can move no more quickly than the speed of the slowest member. This is an example of a _____ task. a. compensatory b. additive c. conjunctive: c. conjunctive
A primary cause of the failure of rational decision-making is: a. lack of effective solutions b. cognitive errors c. limited time and information: c.
9Groupthink is least likely to occur when: a. dissent among members is encouraged. b. groups are highly cohesive c. group members are allowed to determine group goals.: a. While group decision-making is often better than individual decision-making, it can be negatively affected by groupthink, which occurs when a highly cohesive group suspends critical thinking. Groupthink can be alleviated by having someone play devilÂ’s advocate or by refraining from premature decisions.
Team heterogeneity: a. is best for simple tasks b. is associated with better creativity and decision-making. c. is associated with reduces quality of performance.: b
T or F. Members of self-managed teams make work-related decisions that were formerly made by management (hiring, training, and budgets): True
T or F. Research on quality circles has shown that they are more effective for increasing motivation and satisfaction than productivity.: True. 3. Quality of Work Life programs are designed to humanize work and include quality circles, which are voluntary groups that meet regularly to discuss work-related problems. Research on QCs suggests that their primary effect is on employee attitudes. Self-directed work teams make decisions previously made by management; Sociotechnical approach Â– focuses on interaction between social and technological aspects of the organization
T or F. An internal change agent is more likely to have power and authority needed to accomplish an Organizational Developemnt (OD) intervention than an external agent.: False. An internal change agent is a member of the organization, is already familiar with the company's culture, norms, and power structure, and has a personal interest in the change effort. However, an internal agent may be too close to the situation to view it objectively, may not have the specialized skills needed for organizational development, and may lack the necessary power and authority. An external change agent (consultant) is often able to see the situation more objectively and thus have greater influence.
An organizational psychologist adopting Nadler's systems approach to planned organizational change would focus on which of the following: a. interactional processes b. organizational culture and climate c. formal and informal organiz: c.
A process consultant initially: a. observes workers as they interact b. meets with individual disputants c. develops an action plan: 4. Process consultation is aimed at helping employees improve the process underlying their interactions, while survey feedback focuses more on employee attitudes and includes data collection, feedback meetings, and action plans. Total quality management emphasizes customer service, employee involvement, and continuous improvement.
Having employees meet in groups to discuss alternative ways of accomplishing change is an example of which strategy: a. power-coercive b. rational-empirical c. normative-reeducative: c.The normative-reeducative strategy for planned change focuses on altering sociocultural norms, while the rational-empirical approach emphasizes the individualÂ’s self-interest. The power-coercive strategy involves using power and legitimate authority to coerce employees.
According to Schein, organizational culture can be described in terms of three levels. The deepest level consists of basic underlying assumptions, which can serve as: a. driving forces b. irrational beliefs c. cognitive defense mecha: c. Schein distinguishes between three levels of organizational culture: 1) observable artifacts (company dress code, stories and rituals, and annual reports); 2) espoused values and beliefs (norms, goals, and ideologies); 3) basic underlying assumptions (unconscious, taken-for-granted perceptions, beliefs, thoughts, and emotions).
The 4-day work week is most associated with: a.increase job satisfaction. b.Increased job performance c.Increased tardiness and absenteeism: ANSWER: a.
Which once of the following individuals is at highest risk for a stress-related illness: a.the company vice-president b.a file clerk who does the filing for several departments c.an assembly-line worker whose work is machine-paced: ANSWER: c.
A psychologist conducting research on the effects of the graveyard shift is most likely to find that adverse consequences are lowest among employees who: a.are unmarried and living alone b.are self-described Â“night owlsÂ” c.voluntar: ANSWER: c.
True or False. The research has found that work-family conflict is more stressful for men than for women.: ANSWER: True; while men experience work-family conflict it is typically less for them and their work-family conflict is usually due to work expectations. Women experience more work-family conflicts as a result of family expectation.
True or False. Factors related to marriage are more likely to cause stress-related illnesses than factors related to work.: ANSWER: True.
True or False. An early symptom of job burnout is an increase in productivity.: ANSWER: True.
A characteristic of human factors psychology is its adoption of a systems approach and resulting view of performance failures as being due to __________ mismatch.: ANSWER: person-machine
The highest levels of job performance are generally associated with __________ levels of arousal and __________ task difficulty.: ANSWER: moderate; moderate
LEARNING THEORY AND THE BEHAVIORAL AND COGNITIVE-BEHAVIORAL THERAPIES Â“PrimacyÂ” in the context of the serial position effect: a.is due to transfer of information from short- to long-term memory b.is due to interference that: ANSWER: a.
The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a word list better than the items in the middle of the list. The ability to recall items in the beginning of the list is believed to be due to the fact that the: Note that the answer is NOT c!
According to the Â“levels of processingÂ” theory, the best way to remember a list of ten unrelated words is to: a.memorize the words in pairs b.group the words that start with the same letter c.repeat the words past the point of mast: ANSWER: d. make a sentence using the words; Processing that involves maximizing the meaning of the material is the deepest level of processing. According to the levels-of-processing model, the semantic level represents the deepest level of processing and produces the greatest amount of recall.

Start Studying!

Deck Info

Number of cards 208