Chiropractic National Boards III

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Multiple punched out lesions of the same size in an Xray of the skull is indicitive of what?: Multiple Myeloma
What is the AKA for Scleraderma?: Systemic sclerosis.
What deformity can be seen in Psoriatic Arthritis?: Pencil-in-cup deformity
Pencil-in-cup deformity can be seen in what condition?: Psoriatic Arthritis.
What sex and age group is represented in Scheurman's disease?: Both males and females of 10 to 16 years of age.
Multiple punched out lesions of different sizes in an Xray of the skull is indicitive of what?: Lytic Mets
What is the AKA for Multiple Myeloma?: Plasmacytosis.
What is Vertebral Plana?: Flattening of the vertebra due to cancer.
What is the first sign of Myesthenia Gravis?: A defect in vision.
What type of sound is percussed over the majority of the abdomen?: Tympanic.
What kind of headache produces knife-like pain?: Cluster Headache.
What is the age group for temportal arteritis?: ove age 50.
Cluster headaches are seen in what group?: Adolescent to adult males.
What is the AKA for Hyperadrenalism?: Cushing's disease.
What is the AKA for Hypoadrenalism?: Addison's disease.
Signs and symptoms of Cushings disease?: Buffalo hump, moon face, and hirtsuism [hair where there shouldn't be any].
Signs and symptoms of Addison's disease: bronze or brown or tan skin, confusion, orthostatic hypotension
What are the S/S of Reiter's syndrome?: Eye pain, joint pain, heel pain.
A bruit heard over the epigastic region is most likely from what structure?: a renal artery
A diabetic might present with what kind of breath?: fruity breath from ketoacidosis
fruity breath may indicate what?: ketoacidosis
What is the palpatory finding of a patient with emphysema?: decreased fremitus
What is the percussive finding on a patient with emphysema?: hyperressonant
What is a break in the pars called?: An isthmic spondylolesthesis.
A patient with TOS with have pain where?: At the medial border of the forearm, wrist and hand.
TOS affects which part of which plexus?: The lower part of the brachial plexus.
Distal tuft reabsorption,seen in the hand on xray, is a symptom of what disorder?: Scleraderma.
Which cancer is most likely to metastisize?: Melanoma
What is the reflex for the CN-V and the Pons?: The Corneal reflex
What is the reflex for the CN 5, the Pons, and the Medulla?: The Occulocardiac reflex.
When is a A skin lesion is suspected to be malignant?: When it had irregular borders.
Bonnet's Test is for what?: Piriformis Syndrome.
a positive Oppenheimer's test is indicitive of what?: An UMNL.
Is a myelopathy an UMNL or LMNL?: UMNL.
What is Hypercholesterolemia treated with?: Omega 3 Fatty acids.
Where and when does physiological splitting occur?: At S1 upon inspiration.
Which hemorroids are painful?: External hemorroids.
Which hemorroids are painless?: Internal hemorroids.
What Vitamin prevents Beri Beri?: Thiamine/Vitamin B1
What is Thiamine also known as?: Vitamin B1.
Small, raised, red spots with a halo are also known as what?: Cherry angiomas.
where are Bankhart lesions found?: In the shoulder.
Self breast examination should be done when?: 1x/M, just after menses.
Is unconjugated biliurubin prehepatic or posthepatic?: Prehepatic.
Is conjugated biliurubin prehepatic or posthepatic?: Posthepatic.
Is prehepatic bilirubin conjugated or unconjugated?: Unconjugated.
is posthepatic bilirubin conjugated or unconjugated?: Conjugated.
What is the AKA for AST?: SGOT.
What is the AKA for ALT?: SGPT.
What is the AKA for SGOT?: AST.
What is the AKA for SGPT?: ALT.
Name the conditions that are HLAB-27 positive, sero (RA) negative: Psoriatic artheritis, Enteropathic artheritis, Ankylosising Spondylitis,& Reiter's Syndrome.
If patient has shin splints, what muscle do you want to stretch?: the gastrocnemius.
if the patient has shin splints, what muscle do you want to strengthen?: The tibialis anterior.
Which enzymes are made by the liver?: AST (SGOT), ALT (SGPT) and LDH.
Cystic Fibrosis will cause what type of deformity?: Barrel Chest deformity.
What type of complication can follow a thigh contusion?: Myositis Ossificans.
How is Osgood Schlaater's disease managed?: Brace the knee.
What structure is likely responsible for lateral knee pain when running downhill?: The Iliotibial Band.
What can the overuse of corticosteroids lead to?: Fracture of the vertebra with an Angular Kyphosis.
Genu Valgus is considered normal in what age group?: 2 - 10 year olds.
Genu Varus is considered normal in what age group?: Birth to 1 year olds.
Accomodation checks what Cranial Nerve(s)?: CN II and III.
The Consensual Light Reflex checks what Cranial Nerve(s)?: CN III.
What is contraindicated for an acute cervical sprain/strain?: Cervical traction.
Pain is ellicited at 35 degrees during a SLR. What is the most likely cause?: Sciatic tension.
Pain is ellicited at less than 20 degrees during a SLR. What is the most likely cause?: SI involvement.
A genetically shortened radius with radial deviation of the wrist is known as what?: Madalung's deformity.
Which bone is adjusted for carpal tunnel syndrome?: The Lunate.
What is the line of drive to correct a subluxated Lunate?: A to P.
What nerve runs through the Cubital Tunnel?: The Ulnar nerve.
Where is the Cubital Tunnel located?: The medial aspect of the elbow.
What is the most common benign tumor in the body?: Osteochondroma.
For a reinforced pisiform contact between the levels of T4 & L2, the doctor makes contact with which hand?: The superior hand.
For a reinforced pisiform contact at T1-T3 & L3-L5, the doctor makes contact with which hand?: The inferior hand.
Where is the contact to correct a left AI sacrum?: At the right sacral base.
What is the initial treatment for Adhesive Capsulitis.: PROM into the painful area.
If Piriformis is the only tissue responsible for pain, what will not be an accompanying factor?: Low back pain.
Facet pain refers to where?: No further than the knee.
Radicular pain is from what?: Nerve root involvement.
What adjusting technique is contraindicated for a spondylolesthesis?: A knee-chest table.
What is the position of choice for a spondylolesthesis?: The knee-chest position.
What is the bacteria associated with peptic ulcers?: Heliobacter pylori.
What condition is contraindicated for axis adjusting?: VBI.
Numbness described as 'burning' or 'pins and needles' is called what?: Parasthesia.
Toxic levels of selenium will lead to what?: Dermatitis, and a loss of hairs and nails.
What is the best way to diagnose an Abdominal aortic aneurysm?: Ultrasound.
A 26 YO male with increase urine frequency and volume, but no dysuria or nocturia is best Dx with what?: Diabetes Mellitus.
What muscle is affected in Tennis Elbow?: Extensor carpi radialis brevis.
Loss of supplemental or associated movement suggests what?: A lesion in the basal ganglia.
What age group does Scheuermann's disease affect, and what does it result in?: Adolescents, and and increase thoracic kyphosis.
Clinic manifestation of hepatitis results in what?: Jaundice.
Which muscle is responsible for extension of the leg?: The Quads.
What view is a rotator cuff injury with an avulsion of the Supraspinatus tendon best seen in?: External rotation.
What causes a radiculopathy?: Compression of a nerve root.
What kind of pain does a facet cause?: Scleratogenous pain.
Which are taste receptors?: CN 7, 9 and 10.
What is the AKA for the corticospinal tracts?: The pyramidal tracts.
When are tension headaches the worst?: At the end of the day.
When are potential risks discussed with the patient?: During informed consent.
An increase in basophils indicates what?: Some problem of the blood.
What PT mod is used to treat chronic bronchitis?: Shortwave diathermy.
A positive Lhermitte's is indicative of what?: Multiple Sclerosis.
What condition accompanies rust-colored sputum?: Pneumonia.
What might accompany a 25mm difference between upper extremity BP and lower extremity BP?: Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm.
What kind of pain is experienced with an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm?: Generalized back pain.
What kind of pain is experienced with a dissecting Aortic Aneurysm?: Sharp, stabbing pain.
A decrease in MCV, MCH, and MCHC may indicate what condition?: Iron deficiency anemia.
An increase in MCV, and variable MCH and MCHC may indicate what condition?: A Vitamin B12 deficiency (due to pernicious anemia) and folic acid deficiency.
What does a Shilling Shift to the Left indicate?: Acute appendicitis.
What is the best way to diagnose a cholelithiasis?: Ultrasound.
How can you distinguish between Bell's Palsy and a stroke?: A patient with Bell's Palsy will be unable to lift their eyebrows or wrinkle their forehead.
The values for alkaline phosphotase are abnormal in what disorders?: Disorders of bone and liver.
An increase in BUN is indicative or what?: A kidney disorder.
Spider angiomas are indicative of what?: A liver disorder.
Levels of what elevate in the blood following a myocardial infaction?: CPK, SGOT and LDH.
What laboratory findings change in Pancreatitis and Pancreatic Cancer?: Amylase and Lypase.
What lab findings are altered in renal disease?: BUN and Uric acid.
What are the significant lab findings for Muscular Dystrophy?: Elevated CPK and decreased creatinine.
A decrease in BUN is indicative of what?: A liver disorder.
What is the AKA for Myxedema?: Hypothyroidism.
What are the 3 findings for Horner's Syndrome?: Ptosis, Miosis and Anhydrosis.
What is periorbital Edema associated with?: Nephrotic syndrome.
What is blepharitis?: Inflammation of the eyelid.
What is exophthalmosis associated with?: Bilaterally: Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism).
Unilaterally: Tumor.
Yellow sclera is associated with what disorder?: Jaundice.
When found in a patient other than the elderly, what is Corneal arcus associated with?: Hyperlipoproteinemia.
What is the AKA for Corneal arcus?: Arcus senilius.
Yellow skin and sclera is indicative of what?: A billirubin problem.
What is a Xanthelasma?: A fatty plaque of the nasal surface of the eyelid, which can be normal or indicative of hypercholesterolemia.
Tabes dorsalis is resposible for what conditions?: Paralysis of CNs 3, 4 and 6, as well as demylination of the posterior columns.
What are the S/S of Tabes dorsalis?: Pupils that accomodate but don't react, difficulty seeing in the dark and loss of proprioception.
Argyll Robertson pupils indicate what?: Tertiary stages of Syphilis.
Eyes that don't react or accomodate indicate what condition?: Multiple Sclerosis.
What is presbyopia?: Loss of lens elasticity due to aging.
What are the S/S of hypothyroidism?: Fatigue, cold intolerance, puffy face, hoarseness and slow speech, dry skin, and constipation.
What are the S/S of hyperthyroidism?: Exophthalmosis, warm moist skin, heat intolerance, palpitations, fast speech, insomnia, and fine hair.
Strict vegetarians are at risk of what?: Vitamin B12 deficiency.
What is the AKA for Tic delouroeux?: Trigeminal neuralgia.
What structures are involved in the "Terible Triad"?: Medial meniscus, MCL and ACL.
What does a positive WLR indicate?: Medial disc involvement.
What muscle should be tightened/stretched to help correct a hyperlordosis?: Strengthen: Hamstrings, Abds, and Gluts.
Stretch: Psoas, Erector spinae, and Quads.
What kind of lifts should one use to correct a hypolordosis?: Heel lifts.
What muscles externally rotate the shoulders?: The Infraspinatus spinatus(major) and the Teres minor (minor).
What condition is responsible for a scissor gait?: Cerebral palsy.
What characterizes Raynaud's Phenomenon?: A triphasic change of skin color: white to blue and then to red (due to a spasm and relax of an artery).
A Shilling Test is used to determine what?: Vitamin B12 deficiency.
Trigeminal neuralgia affects what?: CN 5.
What is the AKA for hyperthyroidism?: Grave's disease.
What is the first sign of Ankylosing Spondylosis?: Shiny corner sign.
Metastasis from cancer is a contraindication for what?: Cervical adjustment.
Is congenital hip dysplasia unilateral or bilateral?: Unilateral.
What conditions can result in a scissor gait?: CVA, Multiple Sclerosis, spinal cord trauma or tumor, syringomyelia, pernicious anemia, and cerebral palsy.
What conditions can result in a steppage gait?: Guillian-Barre syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, poliomyelitis, spinal cord trauma, and polyneuropathy.
What conditions can result in a waddling gait?: Congenital hip dysplasia and Muscular dystrophy.
What cord levels does Meralgia paresthetica affect?: L1-L2-L3.
At what level is a degenerative spondylolesthesis found?: L4.
A spiculated periosteal response is indicative of what?: Osteosarcoma.
A laminated periosteal response is indicative of what?: Ewing's sarcoma.
What does a positive Trendelenburg Test indicate?: Weak Gluteus medius on the contralateral side.
Horner's syndrome is caused by what?: Interruption of the cervical sympathetics.
What are the S/S of Grave's disease?: Goiter, Tachycardia, fine tremors, increased appetite with weight loss, increased DTR's, and exophthalmosis.
A missing pedicle on xray with sclerosing of the opposing pedicle indicates what?: A congenital anomoly.
Where do Chance Fractures occur?: L1, L2 or L3.
What condition is associated with DISH?: D.M.
How is Proprioceptive Insult defined?: A minor injury that sends a muscle into spasm.
What is Klein's Line used to determine?: Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis.
Flattening of the Femor head is associated with what condition?: Legg Calve Perthes.
What is the most common Fx at L1?: A compression Fx.
A missing pedicle on xray with an opposing pedicle that displays no changes indicates what?: Lytic mets.
Compression Fx most likely occur where.: At transitional segments.
What can Pes cavus lead to?: Stress Fx of a metatarsal.
What is the first sign of Hyperparathyroidism?: Rugger Jersey Spine.
Genu valgus is a result of a weakness of what muscle?: Piriformis.
What is contraindicated for Codman's excercises?: Acute trauma.
What is the treatment for a Grade 2 shoulder impingement?: A sling (to immobilize the torn labrum).
What caused Neurogenic claudication?: Central canal stenosis.
Bronchial sound are found in what disease?: Pneunomia.
What is the AKA for Osteochondroma?: Multiple exostosis.
Where is the most common site for an Enchondroma?: In the hand.
What is the AKA for a coin lesion?: A Haratoma.
What is the most common reason for bilateral Protusio acetabuli?: R.A.
Intolerance to heat is associated with what diseases?: M.S. and Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism)
What is indicated by a positive Murphy's Test?: Gallbladder dysfunction.
What is the most efficient method for diagnosing cholelithiases?: Ultrasound.
What do nitrates in the urine indicate?: Acute cystitis.
What is the best way to diagnose an AAA?: Angiogram.
What are the best exercises for osteoporosis?: Weight-bearing.
White lesions on the tongue that peel off are caused by what?: Antibiotics.
White lesions on the tongue that do not peel off are indicative of what?: AIDS.
A 5 YO with Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy exhibits what kind of gait?: A waddling gait.
Bilateral Peroneal nerve palsy is indicative of what disease?: Charcot Marie Tooth Disease.
Gout is made worse by ingesting what?: Red wine or red meat.
What is Arnold Chiari malformation associated with?: Any midline brain/spinal cord defect.
What are the symptoms of Meniere's Disease?: Vertigo, tinitus and deafness.
What are heel spurs associated with?: Plantar fascitis.
Loss of joint space in the knee is indicative of what?: DJD.
15 yo with rounded shoulders and hyperkyphosis...: Scheuermann's disease.
DeQuervain's affects what where?: The Extensor policis brevis at the posterior radius.
Black and blue spots from a vitamin deficiency are called what?: Petechia.
How do you treat tenosynovitis of the Extensor policis brevis?: Splint the thumb and index finger.
Where does the Gallbladder refer pain to?: The right shoulder and the inferior border of the Scapula.
Where does the Pancreas refer pain to?: The thoracis spine.
Stored glucose is called what?: Glycogen.
Fruity breath is due to what metabolic action?: Oxidation of free fatty acids which produce ketone bodies that deplete extra and intracellular acid buffers which results in acidosis.
Where, on an EKG, is S2 heard?: At the end of the T-wave.
Where, on an EKG, is S1 heard?: At the height of the QRS complex.
Excessive use of a screwdriver can lead to what syndrome?: Pronator teres syndrome.
Rhonci on inspiration and expiration are heard where?: The trachea and major bronchii.
Entrapment of the Subclavian artery occurs where?: Between the Scalenus anticus and the notch or the first rib.
What diagnostic test should be immediately performed for someone who is unconscious?: Test for Hypoglycemia
Pericardial effusion: Increased pulse pressure; muuffled heart sounds (auscultate left-Erbs or Triicuspid, Patient sits and leans forward and holds)Differentiated from CHF by Echocardiogram
Acrocyanosis: Hands; painless cyanosis
Erythromelalgia: Paroxysmal vasodilation of lower extremities; burning P!; redness; increased temperature of feet
Thromboangitis obliterans: male smokers 20-40yo; arteries and veins in LEGS blocked
Angina Pectoris: produced upon exertion; "crushing"; lasts 1-5 minutes; EKG and ESR normal
Dissecting aneurysm: seperatiton of walls of aorta; Sudden (peak intensity at onset); "torn in half"; Patient may be shocky; abdominal bulge; may be assoc.w/Marfans; lens dislocating; Arachnodactyly
Myocardial infarction: "crushing" or "pressure-like" pain; 20 min to hrs; may occur spontaneously w/no relief with rest; Deep Q waves, elevated S-T segment, inverted T wave

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