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How much of the assembled bomb weight is the explosive charge?: 45%.
Which conical fin does the M117 use?: MAU-103.
In what configuration is the CBU-89/B delivered from the manufacturer?: As a complete round with bomb lugs, arming wire, all internal components, and the dummy FZU-39/B sensor.
For what type of target are the BLU-91/B bomblets designed?: Antitank.
How can you identify 30 mm ammo?: By its model number, lot number, part number, and color coding.
How many point-detonating M577 fuzes are packed per wire-bound crate?: 16.
What are the uses of the M25 -series grenades?: Riot and distrubance control.
For what do we use tracer rounds?: To illuminate the path of the bullets for the gunner to use the correct aim.
For what do we use noncombat ammunition?: For training and to test weapons.
What are the components of the 105 mm round?: Cartridge case, propellant charge, primer , and projectile.
What capability does the FMU-152/B provide?: Hardened target capability that provides safing, in-flight cockpit selection, and arming fuzing functions for general-purpose and penetrating unitary warheads.
What provides electrical power in the FMU-152 -series fuze?: The FZU-55.
What explosive do we use as the comparison by which we measure explosive power?: Trinitrotoluene (TNT).
What are the economic requirements for military explosives?: The material must be cheap, plentiful, and not vital to any other phase of the warr effort. In addition, the manufacturing process must be relatively cheap.
What is brisance?: Fragmentation effect.
What term describes the tendency of a substance to produce vapors?: Volatility.
What is meant by an explosive's reactivity and compatability?: Reactivity - how it reacts with the casing it's loaded into. Compatability- how it reacts with another explosive.
What is meant by explosive toxicity?: The poisonous properties of an explosive.
What is hygroscopicity?: The moisture-absorbing property of an explosive.
What is the autocombustion rate of low explosives?: From a few inches per minute to approximately 1,300 feet per second.
What term do we use to describe the instantaneous burning of an explosive?: Deflagration.
What condition is necessary for an explosive to detonate rather than deflagrate?: Confinement.
What are the basic components of an explosive train?: Detonator, booster, burster.
What are the two means by which we can activate a detonator?: Either by primer or by a nonexplosive impulse.
What is the purpose of a delay?: Controls the time delay in the functioning of the train.
What does an explosive booster do?: It amplifies the detonation received from the detonator.
Of the three common explosive trains discussed here, which action - time, superquick, or delay - would cause a bomb to detonate on impact?: Superquick.
Which effect of a general-purpose bomb does the most damage: blast or fragmentation?: Blast.
What effect causes greater penetration of the explosive charge?: Munroe Effect.
What happens when you increase the standoff distance of an explosive?: Its penetrating capability is increased.
Name at least four weapons that use the Munroe Effect.: -Artillery Shells -Rocket Warheads -Demolition Charges -Antitank Mines
What is the purpose of the rocket nozzle throat?: Limit the flow of gas and maintains pressure within the tube while the rocket propellant burns.
How do we classify aircraft rockets?: According to their purpose and the filler in the rocket warhead.
How are HEAT warheads marked?: Black with identification markings in yellow.
How are WP warheads makred?: A light green background with light red letters and a y ellow band.
Which rocket is the most prevalent in the Air Force?: The 2.75" folding-fin aircraft rocket (FFAR).
When can you remove the shorting clip/fin retainer or shileding/fin restraint band from a rocket motor?: Never, until your ready to load the rocket into a launcher or make an igniter circuit continuity test.
What can happen if you drop a rocket motor?: The propellant can crack which could cause the motor to explode when ignited.
What do you do when you find an M156 WP warhead is leaking its filler?: Immerce it in water and notify EOD.
What is the principal hazard with HE warheads?: Blast and mass detonation.
What is a requirement for military explosives?: The raw materials must be cheap.
The rate of transformation for high explosives is between -: 3,200 and 28,000 feet per second.
The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called: Deflagration.
What is the final effect of deflagration under confinement?: Detonation.
What does a booster do?: Detonates the main charge.
How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb?: Use a time action HE train.
In the explosive train, where can you find the delay?: Ahead of the detonator.
What effect does more damage than the fragmentation effect of a specific bomb?: Blast.
How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?: Increase the standoff distance.
For what do we use a shaped charge?: To produce an explosive penetration of a solid object.
The penetrating action of a shaped charge is a result of the -: Shock wave and a jet of dense gas.
How do we identify practice warheads?: By a light blue body and white markings.
Where do you stand while loading a rocket into a launcher?: Either side of the launcher.
What is the hazard associated with a flechette warhead?: Fire.
How do we classify fuzes?: Position, action, and method of arming.
Name the types of fuze action.: Impact, time, and proximity.
What principle of detonation does the proximity fuze use?: Once the bomb reaches a preset height of function (HOF), it detonates.
What are the two main types of fuze arming?: Mechanically and electronically timed.
What are the most common safety features found in bomb fuzes?: Seal wires, cotter pins, safety blocks, and the "detonator safe" feature.
What safety device is normally installed at the time of manufacture?: Safety blocks.
When do you remove the sealing wire from an M904 nose fuze?: Prior to takeoff.
What is the purpose of the empty delay cavity on the M904 and M905 fuze?: It acts as an interruper to the explosive train of the fuze during handling.
Which adapter booster do we use with the M904 fuze?: T45 adapter booster.
What provides the rotational force required to arm the M905 fuze?: ATU-35 -series drive assembly.
What type of fin configuration can you use with an FMU-54 -series fuze in an M117 GP bomb?: With a high drag (retarder) fin.
What happens to the FMU-54/B fuze if the fin malfunctions?: The fuze will not arm.
What provides ground handling safety for the FMU-54?: The safety pin.
Name at least three different electrical fuzes?: -FMU-81 -FMU-124 -FMU-139
How many FZU-2/B boosters are rquired for use when an FMU-81/B fuze is installed in the tail of a bomb?: One.
Which fuze has only one safety device that is installed through the safety release shaft and safety device assembly?: FMU-124.
Which fuze is used by both the Navy and the Air Force?: FMU-139.
What provides electrical power in the FMU-139A/B fuze?: FZU-48.
What provides electrical power in the FMU-143 -series fuze?: FZU-32.
What type of sensor is the DSU-33?: Doppler ranging radar proximity sensor.
Which tail fuzes are employed with the DSU-33?: FMU-139A and FMU-152.
List the types of munitions that use the DSU-33.: M117; MK-80 -series GP bombs,; JDAM
Which dispenser(s) uses the FZU-39/B proximity sensor?: The SUU-64/B, SUU-65/B, and SUU-66/B
Which booster does the FMU-113/B fuze use?: The FZU-2/B booster.
What indicates the FMU-113/B fuze is armed?: Any position of the armed indicator that is red.
Which air-inflatable fin does the M117 use?: BSU-93/B.
What are the combined effects of the MK80 -series bombs?: Blast, penetration, and fragmentation.
Which MK80 -series bomb weighs approximately 500 pounds?: MK82.
How can a MK82 -series bomb produce a mining or penetrating effect?: By using a delayed-action fuze.
Which fins produce a retarded effect on the MK82 -series bomb?: BSU-49/B.
What is the total net explosive weight of the MK84?: 945 pounds.
What are the penetrator bombs designed to do?: Maximum penetration of the concrete, armor plating, and other objects.
What are the two penetrator bombs the Air Force uses?: BLU-109/B and BLU-113/B.
What is the BLU-109/B penetrator bomb capable of doing?: Penetrating 4-6 feet of reinforced concrete.
What fuze do we nomrally use with the BLU-109 - and Blue-113 -series bombs?: FMU-143.
What is the payload of the M129E2 750-pound bomb?: Propoganda leaflets.
What device does the external appearance of the M129 resemble?: M117 750-pound GP bomb.
What is the payload of the MJU-1/B bomb?: Various types of chaff.
For what purpose does the Air Force use practice bombs?: Aircrew and ground training.
What live item does the BDU-50 simulate?: Mk-82.
What live item does the BDU-56/B simulate?: Mk-84
When is the CXU-3A/B spotting charge used?: Where the danger of starting brush or forest fires is high.
What practice bomb simulates the MK82 high-drag bomb?: BDU-48/B.
What parachute deployment cartridge is used with the BDU-38/B?: CCU-11/B.
Which CBU-87 -series bomb comes equipped with a dummy proximity sensor?: CBU-87/B.
What type of bomblets are used in the CBU-87?: Antimaterial / Antitank.
Which bomblets are loaded in the CBU-87?: BLU-97/B and BLU-97 A/B.
What is the major difference between the CBU-89/B and CBU-87/B?: The CBU-89/B doesn't have canted fins, an explosive bolt, and it uses the SUU-64 dispenser.
How many and what type of bomblets are loaded in the CBU-89?: 72 BLU-91/B and 22 BLU-92/B.
How many and what type of bomblets are loaded in a CBU-97/B?: 10 BLU-108/B.
For what type of target is the CBU-97 designed?: Tanks and armored/support vehicles.
Which proximity fuze does the CBU-97/B use?: FZU-39/B.
Which technical order contains information on the CBU-97/B?: TO 11A9-31-7.
Which CBU series is considered to be wind-corrected munitions?: CBU-103, -104, -105.
Where is the WCMD kit mounted on the dispenser body?: In place of the original tail fin assembly.
What components make up the WCMD kit?: -Fin guidance system -Variable position umbilical connector -Operaional flight program software.
How does the WCMD function?: WCMD provides guidance/navigation during crewflight. Correction for wind effects, ballistic dispersion, and lunch transients for munitions delivered from high altitudes and communicated with the carrier aircraft prior.
How are 20 mm cartridges classified?: According to their purpose.
How is an API round detonated?: On impact.
What is the SAPHEI PGU-28 -series round used for?: Aircraft and light material targets.
Name two uses for 20 mm dummy ammo.: Testing feeder asemblies after maintenance and for drill.
What are the combat effects of an HEI round?: Explosive incendiary.
Is a target-practice round empty or inert?: The projectile is intert and the cartridge is live.
What is the 20mm cartridge case made of?: Brass.
What prevents the gas from escaping past the projectile when the round is fired?: The rotating band.
What is the purpose of the bourrelet?: I acts as a forward bearing surface to prevent the projectile from wobbling as it passes through the bore.
What do the other chemicals in double-base propellant do?: Minimize smoke and flash, increase stability, and permit uniform loading during manufacture.
Which 20 mm round requires a fuze to detonate the projectile?: The HEI round.
What is the safety feature of the M505 fuze?: The fuze is bore safe.
How does the M505 fuze arm?: Centrifugal force by the spinning of the projectile.
How can we identify 20 mm ammunition?: Model number, lot number, and manufacturer's symbol. All of which are marked/stamped on the side of the projectile.
Where is the lot number assigned?: At the manufacturing plant.
What Air Force aircraft fires the 25 mm round? Through what cannon?: The AC-130 Gunship. Gau-12/U Cannon.
Remember, all of the components of a 20 mm round have a lot number assigned to them. Which lot number is the one that is used to control a complete round?: The lot number stenciled on the side of the projectile.
How do we classify 25mm ammo?: According to its purpose.
Which type of 25mm is specifically designed for ground targets?: PGU-38/U HEI.
What is the one difference between the components of a 20 mm round and a 25 mm round?: The 25 mm round has an ignition booster to ensure consistant propellant ignition.
Which 25 mm round(s) uses the M115 percussion primer?: They all do.
What two fuzes are used in the 25 mm HEI round?: The PGU-38/U uses the FMU-151/B buse and the PGU-25 A/U uses the M505.
What color is 25 mm dummy ammo?: Gold.
What markings can you find on the cartridge case of 25 mm ammo?: Caliber, type of projectile, designation, and drowing reference number.
How are 25 mm rounds packaged?: In 80- and 100- round configurations.
How do we classify 30 mm ammo?: According to the purpose for which it was designed.
What does the projectile retaining screw in the PGU-16/A dummy round do?: It holds the projectile in the cartridge and simulates the weight of the propellant and the center of gravity of the round.
What is the PGU-15 30 mm round used for?: Pilot training, weapon testing, and aircraft system checkout.
What is the difference between the Aerojet and Honeywell HEI rounds?: The Aerojet round has two plastic rotating bands but the Honeywell only has one.
What impact fuze is used on the 30 mm HEI round?: M505A3.
What is the M8A1 parachute flare primarily used for?: Emergency night landings.
How are flares ejected from the SUU-25E/A?: Rearward by gas pressure.
How many LUU series flares can the SUU-25E/A hold?: Eight.
What is the most noticeable difference between the SUU-25E/A and the SUU-25F/A?: The SUU-25E/A has a 5-ohm toggle switch located in the center-manifold on the forward bulkhead.
What are the two purposes of the fumer charge in the API and APIT rounds?: They reduce air drag during flight to the target and to give a visible trace of the flight path.
What produces the heat and incendiary effects of the api round?: Target friction.
What is the 30 mm cartridge case made of?: Aluminum.
What type of propellant does the 30 mm round use?: Double-base.
What type of fuze is the M505A3?: Impact.
How does the M505A3 fuze arm?: Centrifugal force from the spinning of the projectile lets the ball rotor line up the detonator with the other parts of the explosive train. Thus, arming the fuze.
How far form the muzzle of the barrel is the fuze fully armed?: 50-65 feet.
How many 105 mm rounds are packed in the PA71 container?: 39.
Which chemical filler is used in the AN-M8 smoke grenade?: Hexachloroethane.
What initiation source do we primarily use to detonate high explosives?: Blasting caps.
In external appearance, the M129E2 leaflet bomb is similar to the -: M117, 750-pound bomb.
Name the two types of effects for signals.: Light and smoke.
How long does the safety fuse burn before igniting the powder charge on an M116A1 simulator?: 5 to 10 seconds.
The FMU-143 -series fuze is normally the only fuze used with the -: BLU-109/-113.
What is the M129 bomb used for?: To persuade the enemy to surrender.
Where is the ammunition lot number stenciled?: On the side of the cartridge case.
What color(s) are API and APIT rounds painted?: Both rounds have a black projectile with a red band and white markings.
What color are dummy rounds painted?: Bronze or gold projectile with black markings.
What is the difference between the two configurations of 40 mm ammo?: The 40 mm cartridge is fired from a handheld, single-shot weapon. The 40 mm AAA is fired form the M2A1 gun system aboard the AC-130 gunship.
How do we classify 40 mm ammunition?: According to the type of projectile.
Name at least three types of 40 mm cartridge ammo.: -HE M406 -HE M384 -CS M651E1
What is the 40 mm parachute, white star cartridge used for?: As a marker / illuminator.
What is the 40 mm multiple projectile used for?: Close range enemy engagements.
How long does the tracer composition in the 40 mm AAA, APT round burn?: 12 seconds.
What is the 40 mm AAA, HEP round used for?: Aircraft and light ground targets.
In how many pieces is the 40 mm round issued?: One, it comes as a complete round.
If you were handed an example of the two 40 mm round configurations, what is the easiest way to tell the difference between the two rounds?: By size (the 40 mm cartridge is approximately 5 inches in length while the 40 mm AAA is 18 inches in length).
What are the minimum required markings on a 40 mm round cartridge case?: Lot number and Date of Manufacture(DOM).
What are the classifications of the 105 mm the Air Force currently uses?: HE and white phosphorous.
What makes up a complete HE round?: -M1 Projectile -Brass cartridge case containing M67 propelling charge -Six increments of dual granulation propellant M1 -The M28B2 percussion primer.
What is the WP round used for?: Screening and spotting.
how many pounds of WP are used in the WP round projectile?: Four.
What is meant by "fixed" ammunition?: he propellant charge is not adjustable.
How is the 105 mm projectile marked?: It's stenciled with caliber, type weapon, type explosive filler, model number of projectile, USAF use only, type propellant, and model number of the weapon.
How many fuzed 105 mm rounds are packed in a PA71 container?: 39
How many M577 (PD) fuzes are packaged per wire-bound crate?: 16.
What military aircraft carry countermeasure flare / decoy flares?: All major tactical fighters, heavy bombers, and cargo aircraft.
Which flare utilizes the BBU-36/B squib for ignition?: MJU-7/B, MJU-10/B.
What do we use to safe an ALA-17 flare for handling when it is not in its flare set?: A shorting clip.
How is an ALA-17 flare ignited?: By an electric squib.
What is the main difference between the M206 countermeasure flare and the MJU-7/B flare?: The candle output power is used to simulate different aircraft sized engines.
What is the SD-206 Smokey Devil flare simulator used for?: It provides smoke to mark the target and not heat.
What is meant by "frequency reflecting dipoles"?: Metallic strips cut to match different RF wavelengths.
What is the purpose of chaff munitions?: To scramble enemy radar signal returns.
Which type of chaff does the ALE-28 countermeasure force ejector dispence?: The RR-141 series chaff.
What firing devices are used with the RR-170/188 series chaff cartridges?: The BBU-35/B squib.
How many flare cartridges are carried in an ALA-17 flare rack?: Eight.
Which countermeasure ejector is used to dispense MJU-23 flares from the B-1 bomber?: AN/ALE-49 flare dispenser.
What dispenser is used to dispense RR-170/188 series chaff cartridges?: MJU-11 Chaff/Flare magazine.
What flare magazine can hold a maximum of 15 MJU-7 flares?: MJU-12 Flare magazine.
What flare magazine holds 6 MJU-10 flare cartridges on the F-15 series aircraft?: MJU-17 Flare Mag.
What is the candlepower range for aircraft parachute flares?: 60,000-2,000,000 candlepower.
How do most aircraft parachute flares extend their illumination time?: By using parachutes.
What is the primary function of the aircraft parachute flares?: To provide illumination.
Why does th eLUU-2/B tend to hover during the last 2 minutes of burning?: It consumes the flare housing as it burns, reducing the weight of the flare.
What do you do if you accidentally pull the timer knob of a LUU-2/B during handling when it's not on the SAFE setting?: Hold the time and release mechanism forcibly by hand to prevent the ejection of the time and release mechanism.
What happens if you force the timer knob on the LUU-2A/B beyond either peg?: The clock will run down and release the timer from the flare housing.
What are the main components of the LUU-4/B parachute flare?: The igniter, pyrotechnic candle, parachute and cable, and cover.
How many pounds of pull pressure on the parachute shroud lines are required to fire the LUU-4/B flare?: 52 pounds.
Which impulse cartridge is used in the SUU-25?: ARD 863-1.
What is a CAD?: A device that uses a self contained removeable explosive cart to provide a source of gas pressure to perform its inteded function.
When are mechanically operated initiators fired?: When the initiator pin is withdrawn by a force of 20-35 pounds.
How are gas fired initiators activated?: When gas pressure is supplied by an initiator / CAD, its force on the firing pin shears the shear pin and propels the firing pin against the cart.
What do thrusters do?: They position the ejection seats, stow control columns, and open the canopy/escape hatch.
What are catapults designed to do?: Eject the pilots seat/pilot.
What do removers do?: They jettison the canopy forcibly from the aircraft.
What is a PAD?: A device that uses propellant as a source of gas pressure.
What are impulse cartridges used for?: Explosive power to separate bombs, fuel tanks, missiles, etc.
Name the two types of impulse cartridges.: Explosive and nonexplosive.
How is the typical impulse cartridge fired?: Electrical initiation.
When does the service life of an impulse cartridge start?: When the hermetically sealed container is opened.
What precaution must ou remember to take when handling impulse cartridges?: You must ground yourself.
What is a major hazard of PADs?: Electro magnetic radiaton (EMR), static electricity, or RF energy.
When may you remove shunts, clips, and other shorting devices from a PAD?: For continuity testing or for installation of the device.
The main types of fuze action are impact, time, and -: Proximity.
Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?: Nose only.
When is a bomb fuze considered to be armed?: When the next normal event will initiate a functioning of the fuze.
In an electronically timed ffuze, what replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?: Electric charging assembly.
The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?: Cotter pins.
How do you set the firing delay times in an M904 mechanically timed nose fuze?: By adjusting the calibrated dial.
The FMU-54 -series fuzes are used in-: Retarder-equipped general-purpose bombs.
With electrical fuzes, what is used in place of arming wire?: Battery-firing device.
What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-139A/B fuze?: FZU-48/B initiator.
Which 20 mm round carries the M505 point-detonating fuze?: High-explosive incendiary.
What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN-MK13 signal?: Smoke and flare.
What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?: The wad can cause injury.
Which sensor is a radio-frequency radar ranging system used with the SUU-64/B and the SUU-65/B dispensers?: FZU-39/B.
Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst setting built into the fuze at the time of its manufacture?: FMU-113/B.
What is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M-series bomb?: Adapter booster.
Which fin provides a stabilized flight and a "high drag" option for the M117 bomb?: MAU-91.
What air-inflatable retarder is used on the MK82 bomb?: BSU-49/B.
What air-inflatable retarder is used on the MK84 bomb?: BSU-50.
The BLU-109/B is a -: 2,000-pound penetrator bomb.
The BLU-109/B augments or replaces the -: MK84.
What type of bomb is a BLU-113?: 4,000-pound penetrator bomb.
What weapon type is simulated by the BDU-38/B?: B61 nuclear bomb.
What is the purpose of the CCU-11/B cartridge in the BDU-38/B practice shape?: Deploys the deployment tube assembly and parachute.
What is the only difference between the CBU-87/b and the CBU-87A/B?: The A/B has the live FZU-39/B sensor installed.
The CBU-89 is physically the same as the -: CBU-87 cluster bomb.
The major physical difference between the CBU-87 and the CBU-89 is the -: CBU-89 does not have canted fins.
Which proximity sensor is used with the CBU-89/B?: FZU-39/B
How many projectiles are contained in each BLU-108/B submunition?: 4.
Which dispenser does the CBU-97 cluster bomb unit use?: Suu-66.
Which proximity senor is used with the CBU-97/B?: FZU-39/B.
The CBU-103/B is converted to a wind-corrected munitions dispenser (WCMD) from what cluster bomb unit (CBU)?: CBU-87/B.
The CBU-89A/B with a wind-corrected munitions dispenser kit turns into a -: CBU-104A/B.
Which wind-corrected munitions dispenser component cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight?: Control actuation assembly.
How is the incendiary composition initiated in the 20 mm armor-piercing incendiary (API)?: Impact.
What part of the 20 mm projectile imparts spin and stabilize it in the flight?: A rotating band near the base.
What is the arming delay distance for the M505 fuze?: 10-35 feet.
The identifying information on a 20 mm round of ammunition is marked on the -: Projectile.
How may the electric primer in 20 mm ammunition be fired accidentally?: Static electricty.
What is the purpose of the ignition booster in the 25 mm round?: Ensure consistent propellant ignition.
How can you tell a 25 mm dummy cartridge from other 25 mm rounds?: The dummy cartridge projectile is nonseparable and the total cartridge is gold in color.
When 25 mm ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds may you expect to find in a CNU-405 container?: 80-100.
How is ignition from the primer carried to the propellant in a 30 mm target practice round?: The primer ignites a flash tube, which ignites the propellant.
What fuze is used in 30 mm high-explosive incendiary ammunition?: M505A3.
What holds the ball rotor of the 30 mm fuze in an unamred position until it is fixed?: Lock ring.
How is 30 mm ammunition identified?: Color coding, part number, lot number, and model number.
How many part numbers may you find on 30 mm armor-piercing incendiary-tracer, high-explosive incendiary, and target practice rounds?: 1 or 2.
How do we classify 40 mm ammo?: By the type of projectile.
What is the easiest way to describe the 40 mm multiple projectile M576E1 round?: A 40 mm shotgun shell.
What is the minimum arming distance from the launcher muzzle the 40 mm, M384, high-explosive round travels before it arms?: 60 feet.
How long does the red tracer composition burn in the 40 mm AAA, armor-piercing tracer round?: 12 seconds.
The 105 mm, smoke, white pohsphorous round burster charge is loaded with -: Tetryl.
What are countermeasure flares designed to do?: Divert enemy aircraft infrared/heat-seeking missiles from friendly aircraft.
How is an ALA-17 -series flare ignited?: By an electric squib ignition assembly.
Which component is part of the ALE-50 towed decoy system?: Launch controller.
Which flare is a kinetic decoy rocket used in the advanced strategic and tactical infrared explendable flare system?: MJU-47/B.
Which impulse cartridge does the RR-170 chaff cartridge use?: BBU-35/B.
What dispenser is used to dispense the RR-170/188 chaff cartridges on the A-10 or the C-130?: MJU-11.
What do the calibrated markings on the face of te LUU-2A/B flare indicate?: Feet of fall before flare functioning.
What is the maximum number of flares the SUU-25E/A dispenser may carry?: 8.
What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU-25E/A dispenser?: ARD 863-1.
What are initiators designed to do?: Supply gas pressure to operate other cartridge-activated devices.
How are impulse cartridges initiated?: Electrically.
What are the four factors that govern the visibility of pyrotechnics?: Candlepower, color, weather, and light.
What type of weather reduces the visibility range of pyrotechnics?: Moist weather, rain.
How do we classify pyrotechnics?: According to their purpose as illuminants, signals, combinations of signal and illuminants/signals, and simulators.
What are the two effects of signals?: Light and smoke.
How can you identify pyrotechnic ammunition?: Nomeclature, lot number, model designation, painting marking, NSN, and DODIC.
How long does the AN-MK6 Mod 3 signal burn?: 40 minutes.
What is the candlepower rating of an AN-MK13 flare?: 3,000 candlepower.
Which day-night signal is designed to be used with only one hand?: MK124 Mod0.
How many flares does the pwersonnel distress signal kit A/P 25S-1 contain?: Seven.
What is the A/P 25S-5A distress kit designed to do that the A/P 25S-1 is not?: Penetrate a heavy foliage canopy.
How long does the A/P 25S-5A distress signal kit flare burn?: 9 seconds.
How high does the M127A1 signal fly?: 650 feet - 700 feet.
What are the five main assemblies of the M131 ground illumination signal?: Launcher, igniter, delay, parachute, illumination composition.
What is the M131 signal designed to do?: To produce a distinctive red light above the ground fog, haze, or overcast.
What safety equipment is required for handling the MK50 Mod 0 flare?: Protective mask and rubber gloves.
Which simulator provides the means to simulate a hand grenade?: M116A1 hand grenade simulator.
Which booby-trap simulator provides a whistling sound?: M119 booby-trap simulator.
What is the purpose of the M49A1?: To give warning of infiltrating troops by illuminating the field of the advancing enemy.
Which military weapons do we classify as "small arms": Those with a bore diameter of .5 inches or less.
What terms do we use to describe the measurement of small arms?: Gauge and caliber.
Which cartridge is the exception to shotgun gauging?: The .410 shotgun cartridge.
What color is the tip of an armor-piercing bullet painted?: Black.
What do grenade cartridges do?: They propel grenades and signals from rifles.
Which type of round do we use for weapons loading training?: Dummy.
For what do we use wadcutter ammunition?: Medium-range practice and competitive shooting.
What is a small-arms cartridge?: A complete assembly of all components necessary to fire the weapon once.
What part of the cartridge case holds the projectile (bullet)?: The neck.
Where are the primer pocket and extracting groove located?: In the head of the cartridge.
What causes a bullet to spin?: The rifling in the gun barrel cuts into the jacket of the bullet.
What is the purpose of the meplat?: It reduces the possibility of ricochet.
To what part of the cartridge case is the bullet crimped?: The cannelure.
What are the classifications of the Air Force grenades?: -Service -Practice -Training
Which grenade has a high-explosive or chemical filler?: The service grenade.
What are the uses for hand grenades?: To inflict casualties or damage, for screening, and for signaling.
What are some of the tactical uses of service grenades?: Fragmentation, irritant, riot control, screening smoke, signaling smoke, and incendiary.
What does the M26 -series fragmentation grenade use for a metal body in place of the old cast-iron grenade body?: A thin metal body lined with a wire-bound coil.
What is the explosive filler for the M26 -series grenades?: 0.39 lb of Composition B
Why is the base of the M34 grenade tapered?: So tha the grenade can be mounted on an M1A2 grenade projection adapter.
What is the filler agent for the M34 grenade?: 15 oz. of white phosphorous.
Which grenades are used with the M1A2 grenade projection adapter?: Fragmentation grenades.
Which grenades are used with the M2A1 grenade projection adapter?: Chemical munitions.
What publication contains guidance on the safety and handling of grenades?: AFMAN 91-201, and applicable TO's.
Why must M34 grenades be stored fuze end up?: To avoid possible leakage of a filler.
With what do you treat the floors of magazines used to store chemical grenades?: Sodium silicate.
What are some of the things that you look for in inspecting grenades?: Unserviceable containers, unauthorized fuzes, missing safety pins, missing markings, any noticeable damage.
What is the killing agent of the M18A1 antipersonnel mine?: 700 steel balls.
What is the effective kill range of the M18A1 mine?: 100 meters.
When using a claymore mine, what safety precaution must you observe?: Personnel up to 100 meters to the sides and rear of these mines should take cover for protection.
What is the special feature that makes the M14 almost nondetectable by magnetic mine detectors?: Its practically all plastic construction.
What are the two limitations of the light mortars?: They have a short range and a small-explosive charge.
What type of mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?: Medium mortar (81-mm).
What is required to move heavy mortars?: Trucks and tracked mortar carriers.
Name the two types of blasting caps.: Electric and non-electric blasting caps.
What is th epurpose of the yellow painted bands on military safety/time fuzes?: hey're used to estimate the length of burning during tactical situations where a test burn is not feasible.
What is the rate of detonation for detonating cord?: Between 20,000 and 21,000 fps.
What is the purpose of the M60 igniter?: The M60 igniter is used to light a safety/time fuze.
For what do we use a flash vented squib?: It is used to ignite pyrotechnic or incendiary compositions or black powder.
What is the purpose of the initiator well on the TNT demo block?: Receiving the initiating explosive charge.
What is the advantage of military dynamite over commercial dynamite?: Military dynamite is safer to store, transport, and handle.
What is the purpose of the M1A4 priming adapter?: It isused to secure electric and non-electric blasting caps in a threaded activator well of a demolition charge.
What is the M1 clip used to hold together?: Two strands of detonation cord.
Four factors control the visibility of pyrotechnics-candlepower, color, weather, and -: Light.
What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms"?: Caliber .50.
What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?: Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant.
What does the cartridge case do?: It expands, seals, and prevents the escape of gases to the rear when the weapon is fired.
Name the three classifications of Air Force grenades.: Service, practice, and training.
What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?: Composition B.
What is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?: Black powder.
How far behind an M18A1 mine should personnel take cover before they fire it?: 100 meters.
What mortar has a short range and a small explosive charge?: Light mortar.
What mortar requires a truck or tracked morar carriers to move them?: Heavy mortar.
What do we use to detonate high explosives?: Blasting caps.
What is the most common color of military safety wire?: Green.

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Number of cards 354

Created By ds1234