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(T/F) The outer membrane for G+ and the cell membrane for G- act as major surface antigens.
FALSE: they DO act a major surface antigens BUT the outer mb for G- and the cell membrane for G+
Are endotoxins heat stable?
yes, stable at 100C for 1 hr.
Are endotoxins secreted from cells?
Are endotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?
no, they don\\'t produce protective immune response
Are exotoxins heat stable?
no, destroyed rapidly at 60C (exception: Staphylococcal enterotoxin)
Are exotoxins secreted from cells?
Are exotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?
Yes, TOXOIDS are used as vaccines
Describe the chemical composition of peptidoglycan.
Sugar backbone with cross-linked peptide side chains.
Describe the major components of a G- cell wall.
inner and outer lipid bilayer membranes - thin layer of peptidoglycan - periplasmic space - contains lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein and phospholipid
Describe the major components of a G+ cell wall.
one lipid bilayer membrane - thick layer of peptidoglycan - contains teichoic acid
Describe the process of conjugation.
DNA transfer from one bacterium to another.
Describe the process of transduction.
DNA transfer by a virus from one cell to another
Describe the process of transformation.
purified DNA is taken up by a cell
Does endotoxin induce and antigenic response?
no, not well
Does exotoxin induce and antigenic response?
Yes, induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins
Give two general functions of peptidoglycan
Gives rigid support - protects against osmotic pressure
How are Group A and Group B Strep primarily differentiated?
Group A are Bacitracin sensitive - Group B are Bacitracin resistant
How are the pathogenic Neisseria species differentiated?
on the basis of sugar fermentation
How are the species of Streptococcus primarily differentiated?
on the basis of their HEMOLYTIC capabilities
List the four phases of the bacterial growth curve.
Lag phase - log (exponential) phase - stationary phase - death phase
Name 2 G- rods that are considered slow lactose fermenters.
Citrobacter and Serratia
Name 3 G- rods that are considered fast lactose fermenters.
1) Klebsiella 2) E. coli 3) Enterobacter
Name 3 G- rods which are lactose nonfermenters and Oxidase(-)?
Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus
Name 4 bacteria that use IgA protease to colonize mucosal surfaces.
1) Strep. pneumoniae 2) Neisseria meningitidis 3) Neisseria gonorrhea 4) H. flu
Name 4 genus of bacteria that are G- \\'coccoid\\' rods.
1) H. flu 2) Pasteruella 3) Brucella 4) Bordetella pertussis
Name 6 bacteria that don\\'t Gram\\'s stain well?
Treponema - Rickettsia - Mycobacteria - Mycoplasma - Legionella pneumophila - Chlamydia
Name four genus of bacteria that are G+ rods.
1) Clostridium (an anaerobe) 2) Coynebacterium 3) Listeria 4) Bacillus
Name seven G+ bacteria species that make exotoxins.
1) Corynebacterium diphtheriae 2) Clostridium tetani 3) Clostridium botulinum 4) Clostridium perfringens 5) Bacillus anthracis 6) Staph. aureus 7) Strep. pyogenes
Name three diseases caused by exotoxins.
Tetanus - botulism - diptheria
Name three G- bacteria species that make exotoxins.
1) E. coli 2) Vibrio cholerae 3) Bordetella pertussis
Name three Lactose-fermenting enterics.
Eschericia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter
Name two diseases caused by endotoxins.
Meningococcemia - sepsis by G(-) rods
Name two type of Strep that exhibit alpha hemolysis?
S. pneumoniae - Viridans strep. (e.g. S. mutans)
Name two types of Strep. that are non-hemolytic (gamma hemolysis).
Enterococcus (E. faecalis) and Peptostreptococcus (anaerobe)
Name two types of Strep. that exhibit beta hemolysis.
Group A Strep. (GAS) and Group B Strep. (GBS)
Teichoic acid induces what two cytokines?
TNF and IL-1
What are the effects of erythrogenic toxin?
it is a superantigen - it causes rash of Scarlet fever
What are the effects of streptolysin O?
it is a hemolysin - it is the antigen for ASO-antibody found in rheumatic fever
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bacillus anthracis? (1)
one toxin in the toxin complex is an adenylate cyclase
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bordetella pertussis? (3)
Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation - causes whooping cough - inhibits chemokine receptor, causing lymphocytosis
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium botulinum?
blocks release of acetylcholine: causes anticholenergic symptoms, CNS paralysis; can cause \\'floppy baby\\'
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium perfringens?
alpha toxin is a lecithinase - causes gas gangrene - get a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium tetani?
blocks release of the inhibitory NT glycine; causes \\'lockjaw\\'
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Corynebacterium diphtheria? (3)
1) inactivates EF-2 by ADP ribosylation 2) pharyngitis 3) \\'pseudomembrane\\' in throat
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by E. coli? (2)
this heat labile toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein - causes watery diarrhea
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Staph. aureus?
superantigen; induces IL-1 and IL-2 synthesis in Toxic Shock Syndrome; also causes food poisoning
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Vibro cholerae? (3)
Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein - increases pumping of Cl- and H2O into gut - causes voluminous rice-water diarrhea
What are the general clinical effects of endotoxin?(2)
fever, shock
What are three primary/general effects of endotoxin (especially lipid A)?
1) Acivates macrophages 2) Activates completment (alt. pathway) 3) Activates Hageman factor
What are two exotoxins secreted by Strep. pyogenes?
Erythrogenic toxin and streptolysin O
What are two functions of the pilus/fimbrae?
Mediate adherence of bacteria to the cell surface - sex pilus forms attachment b/t 2 bacteria during conjugation
What are two species of Gram (-) cocci and how are they differentiated?
1) Neisseria memingitidis: maltose fermenter 2) Neisseria gonorrhoeae: maltose NONfementer
What bacteria produces a blue-green pigment?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What bacteria produces a red pigment?
Serratia marcescens (\\'maraschino cherries are red\\')
What bacteria produces a yellow pigment?
Staph. aureus (Aureus-> gold in Latin)
What culture requirements do Fungi have?
Sabouraud\\'s agar
What culture requirements do Lactose-fermenting enterics have?
MacConkey\\'s agar (make pink colonies)
What culture requirements does B. pertussis have?
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
What culture requirements does C. diphtheriae have?
Tellurite agar
What culture requirements does H. flu have?
chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)
What culture requirements does Legionella pneumophia have?
Charcol yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine
What culture requirements does N. gonorrhea have?
Thayer-Martin (VCN) media
What G- rod is a lactose nonfermenter and is Oxidase+ ?
What is a function of the plasma membrane in bacterial cells.
site of oxidative and transport enzymes
What is a toxoid?
exotoxin treated with formaldehyde (or acid or heat); retains antigeniciy but looses toxicity
What is an acronym for remembering 6 bacteria that don\\'t Gram\\'s stain well?
TRMMLC: These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color
What is meant by alpha, beta, and gamma hemolysis?
On a Blood agar plate: alpha-> complete; clear - beta-> partial; green - gamma-> no hemolysis; red
What is the chemical composition of a glycocalix?
What is the chemical composition of bacterial ribosomes?
RNA and protein in 30S and 50S subunits
What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?
What is the chemical composition of exotoxin?
What is the chemical composition of spores?
keratin-like coat - dipicolinic acid
What is the funciton and chemical composition of the flagellum?
for motility - made of protein
What is the function of a glycocalix?
mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (i.e. catheters)
What is the function of spores?
provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals
What is the major chemical composition of the capsule?
Polysaccharide (*except Bacillus anthracis, which contains D-Glutamate)
What is the major function of the capsule?
What is the mode of action of endotoxin?
includes TNF and IL-1
What is the nature of the DNA transferred in conjugation?
Chromosomal or plasmid
What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transduction?
Any gene in generalized transduction; only certain genes in specialized transduction
What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transformation?
What is the periplasm? Where is it found?
the space between the inner and outer cell membranes found in G(-) bacteria.
What is the primary test to subcatergorize G- rods?
are they Lactose Fermenters?
What is the source of endotoxins?
cell wall of most G- bacteria (think N-dotoxin-> gram Negative)
What is the source of exotoxins?
certain species of some G+ and G- bacteria
What is the unique chemical component of Gram (-) cell membranes?
What is the unique chemical component of Gram + cell membranes?
Teichoic acid
What is used to stain Legionella?
Use silver stain.
What species is Group A Strep?
S. pyogenes
What species is Group B Strep?
S. agalactiae
What stain is amyloid and gives an apple-green birefringence in polarized light?
Congo red
What stain is used for acid fast bacteria?
What stain is used for Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, and Chlamydia?
What stain is used for Cryptococcus neoformans?
India ink
What stains gylcogen, mucopolysaccharides and is used to diagnose Whipple\\'s disease?
PAS (periodic acid Schiff)
What test distinguishes Staph. and Strep?
Staph. are Catalase (+) and are in clusters - Strep. are Catalase (-) and are in chains
What test distinguishes Staph. aureus from Staph. epidermidis and Staph. saprophyticus?
S. aureus is Coagulase (+) - S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus are Coagulase (-)
What two things distinguish S. pneumoniae from Viridans Strep.?
S. pneumoniae: have Capsule; Optochin Sensitive - Viridans strep: No capsule; Optochin Resistant
What type of enzymes allows certain bacteria to colonize mucosal surfaces?
IgA proteases
When endotoxin activates complement, what are the secondary effects?
C3a: hypotension, edema - C5a: neutrophil chemotaxis
When endotoxin activates Hageman, what are the secondary effects?
coagulation cascade: DIC
When endotoxin activates macrophages, what 3 cytokines are released and what are the secondary effects?
IL-1--fever - TNF--fever, hemmoragic tissue necrosis - Nitic oxide--hypotension, shock
Where are the genes for endotoxin located?
on the bacterial chromosome
Where are the genes for exotoxin located?
on a plasmid or in a bacteriophage
Where are the spores of Clostridium botulinum found?
canned food - honey
Where is LPS found?
in the outer membrane of G (-) cell walls
Which has a higher toxicity: exotoxin or endotoxin?
EXOTOXIN: fatal dose is ~1ug! (for endotoxin, fatal dose is hundreds of micrograms)
Which type of Neisseria ferment Glucose only?
Gonococci (Glucose-> Gonococci)
Which type of Neisseria ferment maltose and glucose?
Meningococci (MaltoseGlucose-> MeninGococci)
Which types of transfer can eukaryotic cells do?
only transformation
Which types of transfer can prokaryotic cells do?
all 3: conjugation, transduction, and transformation
Why don\\'t Mycobacteria Gram\\'s stain well?
high lipid content cell wall requires acid-fast stain
Why don\\'t Mycoplasma Gram\\'s stain well?
no cell wall
Why don\\'t Rickettsia, Chlamydia, and Legionella Gram\\'s stain well?
they are intracellular (Legionella is Mainly intracellular)
Why don\\'t Treponema Gram\\'s stain well?
too thin to be visualized (use darkfield microscopy and antibody staining)
Name 5 species of bacteria that are transmitted to humans from animals.(Acronym: BBugs From Your Pet.)
Borrelia burgdorferi - Brucella spp. - Francisella tularensis - Yersinia pestis - Pasteurella multocida
All Rickettsiae (except one genus) are transmitted by what type of vector?
arthropod (Coxiella is atypical: transmitted by aeresol)
Are G(-) bugs resistant to Pen G? to ampicillin? to vancomycin?
G- bugs are resistant to PenG but may be susceptible to pen. derivative like ampicillin. The G- outer mb inhibits entry of PenG and vancomycin.
Are Strep. pneumoniae sensitve to optochin? Are Viridans strep.?
Strep. pneumoniae is optochin-Sensitive - Viridans streptococci is optochin-Resistant
Are Strep. pyogenes Bacitracin-sensitive?
Are Viridans strep. alpha, beta, or non-hemolytic?
Because of drug resistance, what in an alternate treatment combination for leprosy?
rifampin with dapsone and clofazimine
Besides the rash, what other body systems are affected by Lyme disease? (3)
joints -CNS -heart
Describe lab-findings for Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Aerobic, G(-) rod. - Non-lactose fermenting - Oxidase positive - Produces pyocyanin (blue-green pigment)
Describe the disease associated with M. avium-intracellulare.
often resistant to multiple drugs; causes disseminated disease in AIDS.
Describe the H. flu vaccine. When is it given?
contains type b capsulare polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein. -Given b/t 2m and 18m.
Describe the typical findings with diarrhea caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli. (3)
1) Ferments lactose 2) watery diarrhea 3) no fever/leukocytosis
Describe the typical findings with Vibro cholerae. (3)
1) Comma-shaped organisms 2) rice-water stools 3) no fever/leukocytosis
Do Streptococcus pneumonia have catalase? Do Viridans Strep. have catalase?
NO. both are catalase -
Enterococci are hardier than nonenterococcal group D bacteria. What lab conditions can they grow in?
6.5% NaCl (used as lab test)
Following primary infection with TB, if preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination occurs, what follows?
=-dormant tubercle bacilli form in several organs - REACTIVATION can occur in adult life
Following primary infection with TB, if severe bacteremia occurs, what follows?
Miliary tuberculosis and possibly death
Following primary infection with TB, if the lesion heals by fibrosis, what is the result?
Immunity and hypersensitivity---> tuberculin positive
Following primary infection with TB, under what conditions would the lesion likely progress to lung disease?
HIV, malnutrition. This progressive lung disease can rarely lead to death.
Following primary infection with TB, what are 4 possible courses the disease could take?
1) Heals by fibrosis 2) Progressive lung disease 3) Severe bacteremia 4) Preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination
Give 3 examples of obligate anaerobes.
Clostridium - Bacteroides - Actinomyces
Give 3 types of infection Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly responsible for.
1) burn wound infection 2) nosocomial pneumonia 3) pneumonia with cystic fibrosis
Give 4 examples of encapsulated bacteria.
1) Strep. pneumoniae 2) Haemophilus influenza (especially b) 3) Neisseria memingitidis 4) Klebsiella pneumoniae
H. flu causes what? (4)
Epiglottitis -Meningitis -Otitis media -Pneumonia (haEMOPhilus)
How are Borrelia visualized?
using aniline dyes (Wright\\'s or Giemsa stain) in light microscopy
How are Mycobacteria visualized in the lab?
acid-fast stain -> Ziehl-Neelson
How are Treponema visualized?
by dark-field microscopy
How can secondary tuberculosis in the lung occur?(2)
1) Reinfection of partially immune hypersensitized hosts (usu. adults) -> exogenous source 2) Reactivation of dormant tubercle bacilli in immunocompromised or debilitated hosts -> endogenous source
How can you remember that Viridans strep are resistant to optochin?
they live in the mouth and are not afraid of the (opto-)CHIN
How does primary syphilis present?
with a painless chancre (localized disease; 2-10 wks).
How does secondary syphilis present?
disseminated disease (1-3m later) with constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash, condylomata lata (genital lesions)
How does tertiary syphilis present?
gummas (granulomas), aortitis, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis), Argyll-Robertson pupil
How does the bacterium cause the disease?
via exotoxin encoded by beta-prophage; exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
How does the rash with typhus differ from the rash with RMSF?
typhus: maculopapillary rash BEGINS ON TRUNCK, moves peripherally -RMSF: macules progressing to petichiae BEGIN ON HANDS &FFET and move inward.
How is Brucellosis/Undulant fever transmitted?
dairy products, contact with animals
How is Cellulitis transmitted?
Animal bite; cats, dogs
How is H. flu transmitted?
How is Legionnaires\\' disease diagnosed in lab?
use silver stain (doesn\\'t Gram stain well) -culture with charcoal yeast extract with iron and cysteine.
How is Legionnaires\\' disease transmitted?
aeresol transmission from envirnomental water source habitat (NO human-to-human transmission).
How is Lyme disease transmitted?
Tick bite; Ixodes ticks that live of deer and mice
How is Shigella spread?
food, fingers, feces, and flies\\'
How is the Plague transmitted?
Flea bite; rodents, especially prairie dogs
How is Tuleremia transmitted?
Tick bite; rabbits, deer
Is Bacillus anthracis G+ or G-? What is its morphology?
It is a G+, spore-forming rod
Is there an animal reservoir for leprosy?
Yes, armadillos in the US
List 5 findings associated with rheumatic fever. (Hint: PECCS)
Polyarthritis - Erythema marginatum -Chorea - Carditis - Subcutaneous nodules
List the \\'ABCDEFG\\' of diphtheria.
ADP ribosylation -Beta-prophage -Corynebacterium - Diphtheria - Elongation Factor 2 - Granules
Name 2 alpha-hemolytic bacteria.
Strep. pneumoniae - Viridans streptococci
Name 2 bugs that cause diarrhea but NOT fever and leukocytosis?
E. coli and Vibro cholerae
Name 2 disease processes that can be caused by enterococci.
1) UTI 2) subacute endocarditis
Name 2 species of enterococci.
Enterococcus faecalis -Enterococcus faecium
Name 2 symptoms of diphtheria.
pseudomembraneous pharyngitis (grayish white membrane) - lymphadenopathy
Name 3 spore forming bacteria.
Bacillus anthracis - Clostridium perfringens - C. tetani
Name 4 beta-hemolytic bacteria.
1) Staph. aureus 2) Strep. pyogenes (GAS) 3) Strep. agalactiae (GBS) 4) Listeria monocytogenes
Name 4 lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria.
Klebsiella -E. coli -Enterobacter Citrobacter (think Lactose is KEE for first three listed)
Name 4 obligate aerobic bacteria.
Norcardia - Pserudomonas aeruginosa - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Bacillus
Name 5 bugs that cause watery diarrhea.
1) Vibrio cholerae 2) enterotoxigenic E. coli 3) viruses (rotavirus) 4) protozoa (Cryptosporidium and (5) Giardia)
Name 6 bugs that cause bloody diarrhea.
1) Salmonella 2) Shigella 3) Campylobacter jejuni 4) enterohemorrhagic/enteroinvasive E.coli 5) Yersinia enterocilitica 6) Entamoeba histolytica (a protozoan)
Name 7 faculatative intracellular bacteria.
1) Mycobacterium 2) Brucella 3) Francisella 4) Listeria 5) Yersinia 6) Legionella 7) Salmonella
Name three genera of spirochetes.
Borrelia (big size) - Leptospira -Treponema (think: BLT; B is big)
Name two lab tests used to detect syphilis?
Name two non-lactose fermenting bacteria that invade intestinal mucosa and can cause bloody diarrhea.
Salmonella and Shigella
Name two obligate intracellular bacteria.
Rickettsia and Chlamydia (Hint: \\'stay inside when its Really Cold.\\')
RMSF is endemic to what part of the US?
the East Coast (in spite of the name)
Spore are formed by certain species of what type of bacteria?
Gram+ rods, usually in soil; form spores only when nutrients are limited
T/F Chlamydia are obligate intracellular parasites that cause mucosal infections.
T/F Chlamys means cloak.
TRUE (intracellular)
T/F Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase negative and are glucose fermenters.
T/F H. pylori infection is a risk factor for peptic ulcer and gastric carcinoma.
T/F Penicillin is not an effective treatment against Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
TRUE Mycoplama are naturally resistant b/c they have no cell wall.
T/F Pseudomonas produces both endotoxin and exotoxin.
TRUE: endotoxin---> fever, shock -exotoxin---> inactivates EF-2
T/F Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular parasites and need CoA and NAD.
T/F Some enterococci are resistant to PenG.
FALSE: ALL enterococci are naturally resistant to Pen/cephlosporins.
T/F Spores have no metabolic activity.
T/F: S. aureus food poisoning is due to the ingestion of bacteria that rapidly secrete toxin once they enter the GI tract.
FALSE: rapid onset of S. aureus food poisoning is due to injestion of PREFORMED toxin
The Weil-Felix reaction usually tests positive for what two diseases? Negative for what? Cross reacts with what?
Positive: typhus and RMSF -Negative: Q fever -Cross-reacts: with Proteus antigen
Think COFFEe for Enterobacteriaceae. What does that stand for?
Capsular -O-antigen -Flagellar antigen -Ferment glucose -Enterobacteriaceae
What\\'s a pneumonic for remembering 4 obligate aerobes?
Nagging Pests Must Breath (-> Norcardia - Pserudomonas aeruginosa - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Bacillus
What (6) infections can Pseudomonas aeruginosa cause?
burn-wound infections -Pneumonia (esp. in cystic fibrosis) -Sepsis (black skin lesions) -External Otitis (swimmer\\'s ear) - UTI -hot tub folliculitis
What 2 bugs can cause bloody diarrhea, fever, and leukocytosis, but do not ferment lactose?
Salmonella and Shigella
What animals carry Lyme disease?
The Ixodes tick transmits it. - Deer are required for tick life cycle. - Mice are important resservoirs.
What anitbody class is necessary for an immune response to encapsulated bacteria?
What are 2 disease processes caused by Viridans strep and what species are responsible?
1) dental caries: Strep. mutans 2) bacterial endocarditis: Strep. sanguis
What are 2 options for triple thearpy treatment of H. pylori?
(1) bismuth (Pepto-Bismal), metronidazole, and tetracyclin or amoxicillin. OR (2) metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin (#2 is more expensive)
What are 3 advantages/differences between VDRL and FTA-ABS?
FTA-ABS is 1) more specific 2) positive earlier in disease 3) remains positive longer than VDRL
What are 3 disease processes caused by Strep. pyogenes?
1) Pyogenic--pharyngitis, cellulitis, skin infection 2) Toxigenic--scarlet fever, TSS 3) Immunologic--rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis
What are 4 biological false positives for VDRL?
1) Viruses (mono, hepatitis) 2) Drugs 3) Rheumatic fever and rheumatic arthritis 4) Lupus and leprosy (-> VDRL)
What are 4 clinical symptoms of \\'walking\\' pneumonia?
1) insidious onset 2) headache 3) nonproductive cough 4) diffuse interstitial infiltrate
What are 4 clinical symptoms of TB?
1) fever 2) night sweats 3) weight loss 4) hemoptysis
What are 5 areas that can be affected by extrapulmonary TB?
1) CNS (parenchmal tuberculoma or meningitis) 2) Vertebral body (Pott\\'s disease) 3) Lymphadenitis 4) Renal 5) GI
What are the lab findings with Chlamydia?
cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa fluorescent antibody-stains smear
What are the symptoms of RMSF? (3)
1) rash on palms and soles (migrating to wrists, ankles, then trunck) 2) headache 3) fever
What are the three stages of Lyme disease?
1) erythema chronicum migrans, flu-like symptoms 2) neurologic and cardiac manefestations 3) autoimmune migratory polyarthritis
What are the two forms of chlamydia?
1) Elementary body (small, dense): Enters cell via endocytosis 2) Initial or Reticulate body: Replicates in the cell by fission
What are the two forms of leprosy (or Hansen\\'s disease)?
1) lepromatous- failed cell-mediated immunity, worse 2) tuberculoid- self-limited.
What are two drugs that could be used to treat \\'walking\\' pneumonia?
tetracycline or erythromycin
What are two drugs that could treat Chlmydia?
erythromycin or tetracycline
What are two lab findings associated with \\'walking\\' pneumonia?
1) X-ray looks worse than patient 2)High titer of cold agglutinins (IgM)
What are usually associated with pseudomembraneous colitis?
Clostridium difficile; it kills enterocytes, usu. is overgrowth secondary to antibiotic use (esp. clindamycin or ampicillin)
What bacteria are G+, spore-forming, anaerobic bacilli?
What bacteria causes a malignant pustule (painless ulcer); black skin lesions that are vesicular papules covered by a blak eschar?
Bacillus anthracis
What bacteria exhibits a \\'tumbling\\' motility, is found in unpasteurized milk, and causes meningitis in newborns?
Listeria monocytogenes
What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-resistant?
Strep. agalactiae
What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-sensitive?
Strep. pyogenes
What bacteria is catalase+ and coagulase+?
Staph. aureus
What bacteria produces alpha-toxin, a hemolytic lecithinase that causes myonecrosis or gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
What bacterium causes Cellulitis?
Pasteurella multocida
What bacterium causes leprosy?
Mycobacterium leprae
What bacterium causes Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
What bacterium causes the Plague?
Yersinia pestis
What bacterium causes Tularemia?
Francisella tularensis
What bacterium causes Undulant fever?
Brucella spp. (a.k.a. Brucellosis)
What bug causes atypical \\'walking\\' pneumonia?
Mycoplama pneumoniae
What bug causes gastroenteritis and up to 90% of duodenal ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori
What bug causes Legionnaire\\'s disease?
Legionella pneumophila
What bug is associated with burn wound infections?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What bug is comma- or S-shaped and grows at 42C, and causes bloody diarrhea with fever and leukocytosis?
Campylobacter jejuni
What bug that causes diarrhea is usually transmitted from pet feces (e.g. puppies)?
Yersinia enterocolitica
What causes tetanus? (give bacteria and disease process)
Clostridium tetani: exotoxin produced blocks glycine release (inhibitory NT) from Renshaw cells in spinal cord
What causes the flu?
NOT H. flu -it is caused by influenza virus
What chemical is found in the core of spores?
dipicolinic acid
What coccobacillus causes vaginosis: greenish vaginal discharge with a fishy smell; nonpainful?
Gardnerella vaginalis
What disease does Bordetella perussis cause? How?
Whooping cough: toxin permanently disables G-protein in respiratory mucosa (turns the \\'off\\' off);ciliated epithelial cells are killed; mucosal cells are overactive.
What disease does Vibrio cholerae cause? How?
Cholera: toxin permanently activates G-protein in intestinal mucosa (turns the \\'on\\' on) causing rice-water diarrhea
What disease is caused by Borrelia?
Lyme Disease
What disease is caused by Clostridium botulinum? What pathophys. does it cause?
Botulism: associated with contaminated canned food, produces a preformed, heat-labile toxin that inhibits ACh release---> flaccid paralysis.
What diseases (2) are caused by Treponema?
Syphilis (T. pallidum) -yaws (T. pertenue; not and STD)
What diseases can be caused by Staph. aureus?
Inflammatory disease: skin infections, organ abcess, pneumonia - Toxin-mediated disease: Toxic Shock Syn., scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), rapid onset food poisoning (enterotoxins)
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes A, B, and C cause?
chronic infection, cause blindness in Africa (ABC-> Africa / Blindness / Chronic
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K cause? (3)
urethritis/ PID - neonatal pneumonia -neonatal conjuctivitis
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1,L2, and L3 cause?
lymphogranuloma venereum (acute lymphadentis: positive Frei test)
What do RMSF, syphilis, and coxsackievirus A infection have in common?
rash on palm and sole is seen in each (coxasackievirus A -> hand, foot, and mouth disease)
What does catalase do? Which bacteria have it?
it degrades H2O2, an antimicrobial product of PMNs. - Staphlococci make catalase; Strep. do NOT.
What does the H-antigen represent?
H: flagellar antigen, found on motile species

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