This site is 100% ad supported. Please add an exception to adblock for this site.

USMLE 1 Pharm Buzzwords

Terms

undefined, object
copy deck
which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger?
M2
What drug is used to differentiate a cholinergic crisis from myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium
What drug causes gradual loss of choline from the presynaptic nerve terminal by blocking its reuptake?
Hemicholium
what is the only site in the body that used M1 receptors?
stomach
what drug is an M1 specific antispasmodic?
Pirenzepine
what is the most potent NMJ blocker and also has no CV side effects?
Doxacurium
what antimuscarinic is used as an inhalant for asthma?
Ipratropium
what is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?
(2)
- Atropine
- 2-PAM (pralidoxime)
DOC for atropine or TCA overdose?
Physostigmine
rate limiting step for NE synthesis
Tyrosine hydroxylase
what 2 enzymes are blocked by Disulfiram?
- Aldehyde DH
- Dopamine beta-hydroyxlase
What is the MOA-B inhibitor?
Selegiline
what 2 drug inhibit the release of NE from storage granules?
- Guanethidine
- Bretylium
What drug blocks intragranular uptake of NE?
Reserpine
What 2 drugs, when mixed, can lead to malignant hyperthermia?
- Succinylcholide
- Halothane
what a1-agonist is used to treat paroxysmal atrial tachy w/ hypotension?
Metaraminol
what a1-agonist, not inactivated by COMT, is used as a decongestant and also for tx of paroxysmal atrial tachy?
Phenlepherine
what b2-agonist is used in prophylactic tx of asthma?
Salmeterol
What (2) b2-agonists cause myometrial relaxation?
- Ritodrine
- Terbutaline (asthma)
hyperactive crisis can be caused by the addition of an MAO and what?
Tyramine
what drug class works to decrease TPR and preload w/ no change in heart rate or cardiac output?
a1-Antagonisis
what mixed a1-antagonists are used for patients with pheochromocytoma?
(2)
- Phentolamine
- Phenoxybenzamine
what a2-antagonist is used to tx impotence and postural hypotension?
- Yohimbine
what drug penetrates the BBB and is found in asthma preparations, used as a decongestant and used for urinary incontinence?
Ephedrine
what (2) b2-agonists are used to produce bronchodilation?
- Metaproterenol
- Albuterol
what b-blocker is also an a-blocker?
Labetalol
what are the (5) cardioselective b1-blockers?
A BEAM:
- Acebutolol
- Betaxolol
- Esmolol
- Atenolol
- Metoprolol
what b-blocker is also a membrane stabilizer?
Propranolol
In what (3) areas of the body are sympathetics the predominant tone?
- Sweat glands
- Arterioles
- Veins
what 3 b-blockers are used to treat glaucoma?
- Timolol
- Betaxolol
- Carteolol
what two b-blockers decrease serum lipids?
- Pindolol
- Acebutolol
what drug blocks dopa-decarboxylase in the periphery to decrease the conversion of L-dopa to dopimine peripherally?
Carbidopa
DOC for early Parkinson's?
Selegiline
What antiviral agent is used for the tx of drug-induced Parkinson's?
Amantidine
what D2 agonist is used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Bromocriptine
what cofactor of dopa-decarboxylase decreases the efficacy of L-dopa?
Vitamin B6
what antieptileptic agent has SIADH as a side-effect?
Carbamazepine
what is the DOC for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine
first sign of overdose from phenobarbitals?
(2)
- Nystagmus
- Ataxia
what drug, used for partial seziures, inhibits the release of glutamate and causes rashes in 45% of patients?
Lamotrigine
what benzodiazepine is used to treat absent mal seziures?
Clonazepam
what are the two drugs of choice for simple partial seziures?
- Carbamazepine
- Phenytoin
what is the only neuroleptic agent that does not cause hyperprolactinemia?
Clozapine
what is the DOC for status epilepticus?
Diazepam
what two neuroleptic agents are associated w/ Tardive Dyskinesia?
- Haldol
- Fluphenazine
what neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits, hypotension and torsades de pointes?
Thioridazine
what is the only neuroleptic that does not cause an increase in weight or appetite?
Molindone
what TCA causes sudden cardiac death in children?
Desipramine
what TCA is used to tx enuresis?
Imipramine
what class of anti-depressants are associated w/ insomnia?
SSRI
which is the only MAOI that does not cause a hypertensive crisis?
Selegiline
what occurs if you mix an MAOI and a sympathomimetic?
severe HTN, which can lead to a subarachnoid hemorrhage
what TCA is also a heavy sedative?
Amitriptyline
what neuroleptic agent is also considered to be an antihistamine?
Risperidone
what TCA is used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder and is said to cause aggressive behavior?
Clomipramine
what antipsychotic causes agranulocytosis and has no tardive dyskinesia as a side-effect?
Clozapine
drug that decreases mood swings and is used for the manic phase of bipolar?
Lithium
benzo used for:
anxiety/panic attacks
Alprazolam
benzo used for:
absent seziures/anticonvulsant
Clonazepam
benzo used for:
alcohol withdrawal
Chlorazepate
benzo used for:
status epilepticus as a pre-op medication
Diazepam
benzo used for:
pre-op medication
Lorazepam
what benzos are activated outside the liver?
(3)
Outside The Liver:
- Oxazepam
- Temazepam
- Lorazepam
what benzo antagonist is used for benzo overdose?
Flumazenil
what benzos are Short acting?
(3)
short acting=TOM thumb:
- Triazolam
- Oxazepam
- Midazolam
side effects of Lithium
(4)
Lithium=LMNOP:
- Movement (tremor)
- Nephro diabetes insipidus
- hypOthyroidism
- Pregnancy problems
(3) signs of TCA toxicity
Tri-C:
- Convulsions
- Coma
- Cardiotoxicity
pinpoint pupils, decreased respiratory rate, coma
morphine overdose
heterocyclic antidepressant used also for smoking cessation
Bupropion
antidepressant that inhibits DA, NE and 5HT reuptake
Venlafaxine
what property is important for potency of general anesthetics?
Increased solubility in lipids
(1/MAC)
Barbiturate used for induction of anesthesia
Thiopental
IV anesthetic that causes increased blood flow, hallucinations and bad dreams
Ketamine
which local anesthetics are the amides?
the ones with two "I's" in the name (ex: lIdocaIne)
what NT is at the mu receptor?
b-Endorphin
what is the NT at the delta receptor?
Enkephalin
what is the NT at the kappa receptor?
Dynorphin
which type of receptor antagonist is the most efficacious?
Competitive Antagonist
how are most water-soluble drugs eliminated?
kidney
what body fluid breaks down esters?
blood
what type of antagonist takes out a drug by binding to it?
Chemical Antagonist
what type of antagonist directly reverses the action of a drug by working on a different receptor?
Physiologic Antagonist
what is the equation for a drug's theraputic index?
leathal dose divided by effective dose
what are the drugs in the triple tx of H. pylori?
- Pepto-bismol
- Amoxicillin (or Erythro)
- Metronidazole
what is the common IV opioid used in surgery?
Fentanyl
what IV agent has the lowest incidence of postoperative emesis and the fastest rate of recovery?
Propofol
what is the side-effect of activating a mu receptor?
respiratory depression
which drug causes dissociative anesthesia and is used mainly in pediatric surgery?
Ketamine
which short-acting benzo is used for conscious sedation?
Midazolam
what is the only local anesthetic that does not cause vasodilation?
cocaine
what two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behaviors?
- Glucocorticoids
- Amphetamines
Drug effect:

myoclonus, hyperthermia, rigidity
Serotonin crisis
what drug used to treat alcoholism has a long half-life and is given orally?
Naltrexone
where do local anesthetics bind?
inactive Na+ channels
what are the three b-lactam inhibitors?
- Clavulanic acid
- Sulbactam
- Tazobactam
sulfonamide used to treat ulcerative colitis or chrone's disease?
Sulfasalazine
DOC for PCP?
TMP-SMX
which antiviral is teratogenic?
Amantadine
which tetracycline is used when there is a decrease in renal function?
Doxycycline
what is the DOC for Pseudomonas infections?
Ceftazidime
(& cephtriaxone)
what aminoglycoside causes disruption of CN-1?
Streptomycin
DOC for Proteus mirabilis, E.coli & Klebsiella
(2)
- Cefazolin
- Cephalexin
(first generation cephalosporins)
DOC for gonorrhea
Ceftriaxone
DOC for Enterobacter
Imipenem/cilastatin
DOC for Clostridium difficle
Vancomycin
what aminoglycoside is used before surgery to sterilize the bowel?
Neomycin
bacteriostatic drug that causes a discoloration of teeth
Tetracycline
DOC for Legionella, Mycoplasma & Campylobacter infections?
Erythromycin
DOC for tularemia and the plague?
Streptomycin
DOC for asymptomatic meningitis?
Rifampin
Which antihelmintic increases membrane permeability to Ca++ and is the DOC for schistosomiasis?
Praziquantel
which inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the DOC for whipworms & pinworms?
Mebendazole
DOC for filariasis
Diethylcarbamazine
what DOC for ascaris causes neuromuscular blockade of the worm?
Pyrantel pamoate
DOC for influenza & rubella?
Amantidine
DOC for RSV?
Ribavirin
DOC for HPV
a-Interferon
what D2 receptor blocker is used as an antiemetic?
Chlorpromazine
what PGE analog is used in tx of ulcers caused by excessive NSAIDs?
Misoprostol
what drug is an irreversible inhibitor of the Na/K pump?
Omeprazole
HIV protease inhibitors
"Never (NAVIR) TEASE a Pro"

"-navir" drugs
(ex: Ritonavir)
DOC for Chagas' disease
Nifurtimox
endings:

-afil
erectile dysfunction
endings:

-ane
inhalation general anesthetics
endings:

-azepam
benzodiazapines
endings:

-azine
(Phenothiazine)
neuroleptic;
antiemetic
endings:

-azole/-conazole
antifungal
endings:

-barbital
barbiturate
endings:

-caine
local anesthetic
endings:

-cycline
Protein synthesis inhibitor Ab
endings:

-ipramine
TCA
endings:

-navir
Protease inhibitor
endings:

-operidol
neuroleptics
endings:

-oxin
cardiac glycoside
endings:

-terol
b2 agonist
what blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?
Megaloblastic anemia
antineoplastic inhibits in:

M-phase
(2)
- Vincristine/Vinblastine
- Taxols
antineoplastic inhibits in:

G1 phase
(2)
- L-asparaginase
- mitomycin
antineoplastic inhibits in:

G2 phase
- Bleomycin
antineoplastic inhibits:

b/t G1 & S phase
Hydroxyurea
antineoplastic inhibits:

b/t S & G2 phase
Etoposide
antineoplastic inhibits in:

S phase
(the rest)
top 4:
- Methotrexate
- 5-FU
- 6-MP
- Cytarabine
most common pain killer during pregnancy
Meperidine
what morphine derivative is used in patients w/ renal failure?
Hydromorphone
which group of anti-HTN agents decrease left ventricular hypertrophy the best?
Thiazides
what drug affects the extrinsic pathway and increases PT?
the EX-PaTriot went to WAR:

WARfarin
anticoagulant that decreases thrombin and can be used during pregnancy
Heparin
site of action:
- Osmotic diuretic
- Loop (specific)
- K-sparing
- Thiazide
- Carbonic anhydrase inh
-O: entire tube except thick ascending limb
-L: Ascending limb
-K: early CT
-T: early DT
-CAI: PCT
what is the only diuretic working on the blood side of the nephron?
Spirolactone
what is the DOC for HTN patient w/ decreased renal function?
a-Methyldopa
DOC in tx for the late phase of asthma?
corticosteroids
which anti-thrombotic agent causes a decreased level of circulating fibrinogen?
Steptokinase
which diuretic retains Cl- and is used for acute mountain sickness?
Acetazolamide
which diuretic causes irreversibile ototoxicity and GI bleeds?
Ethacrynic Acid
DOC for HTN w/ increased heart rate?
b-Blockers
DOC for HTN w/ elevated force of contractions?
b-Blockers
DOC for HTN w/ increase in fluid volume?
ACE inhibitor
DOC for HTN w/ increase in TPR?
(2)
- a-Antagonist
- Calcium channel blockers
DOC for woman in 3rd trimester w/ premature uterine contractions
Terbutaline
Effect of aspirin on the kidney?
Renal Papillary necrosis
what reverses the myelosuppression of methotrexate?
Leucovorin
where does botulin poison act?
at the presynaptic terminal of the ACh to inhibit release
what aluminum hydroxide adheres to a GI ulcer crater to stimulate a mucous barrier?
Sucralfate
what occurs when you mix a statin w/ a nicin?
rhabdomyolysis
binds to ergosterol in a fungal cell
Amphotericin B
MOA of griseofulvin
inhibits microtubule function
DOC for decreasing synthesis of thyroid hormones in Graves
PTU
prolongs QRS on ECG
Quinidine
anti-epileptic drug that causes vitamin D deficiency
Phenytoin
what is the first drug you should give an alcoholic in the ER?
IV Thiamine...
to prevent Werenicke's
MCC of thrombocytopenia in hospital
Heparin
what is given to cancer patient after therapy to prevent gout?
Allopurinol
DOC for patient w/ HTN, HyperN and HypoK
Losartan
DOC for pulmonary edema
Loop diuretic
(decreases preload)
DOC for urinary retention in patient w/ BPH
Prazosin
(a1-blocker)
what should be given to mother to improve baby's health if mother is in premature labor and must deliver the baby?
Glucocorticoids
(for surfactant)
DOC to eliminate calcium in pt w/ hypercalcemia
Loop diuretic
DOC to remove calcium from urine in pt w/ stone formation
Thiazide
toxicity that causes respiratory alkalosis then metabolic acidosis
Aspirin
DOC for ALL
Methotrexate
what antimetabolite/Ab combo is used to tx AML?
- Cytarabine
- Daunomycin
where does ACE inh work in nephron?
blocks AT-II as vasoconstrictor of Efferent arteriole
cardiovascular drug that produces a giant U-wave and flat T-wave?
Quinidine
CV drug that prolongs PR interval and causes ST depression
Digitalis
what two anti-HTN classes should not be taken by someone who has increased lipids?
- b-Blockers
- Thiazides
DOC for BPH
Finasteride
DOC for prostate CA
- Leuprolide
what drug used to treat RA has the side-effect of retinal degeneration?
Hydroxychloroquine
what treatment against dissecting aortic aneurysms is metabolized to cyanide?
Nitroprusside
DOC to treat muscle spasms by blocking calcium release from SR in skeletal muscle
Dantrolene
drug class that causes retrograde amnesia
Benzodiazepines
complication of a corticosteroid inhaler
oral thrush
DOC to prevent endocarditis in pt w/ valvular disease
Amoxicillin
what causes hairloss in a healthy woman?
side effect of oral contraceptives
what part of the cinical drug trials is the double-blind study?
Phase 3
what anti-HTN drug works on a 7-membrane spanning protein?
Propranolol
what does ACE inhibitor cause to increase in the serum?
(2)
- Renin
- AT-1
teatment for Arsenic poisoning?
Dimercaprol
DOC for hepatic stage of malaria
Primaquine
treatment of Delerium Tremens
Benzodiazepines
DOC for esophageal candidiasis in AIDs pt
Fluconazole
DOC for open-angle glaucoma
- Timolol
a child ingests 30 aspirin. What is he most likely to get?
increased anion gap metabolic acidosis
elderly woman on Thiazides is at most risk for developing what?
Diabetes Mellitus
what NSAID property does acetaminophen not have?
anti-inflammatory
DOC for single dose against gonorrhea and chlamydia?
Azithromycin
DOC for malignant HTN?
Nitroprusside
anti-HTN that lowers BP and decreases heart rate by decreasing the afterload
Calcium channel blocker
drug that is good to alkalinize the urine in aspirin toxicity
Acetazolamide
DOC for HTN for african americans & systolic HTN in eldery
Thiazides
DOC for HTN in chronic renal failure or to flush out the tubular cells obstructing the lumen in acute renal failure
Loop diuretics
diuretic that treats hirsuitism
Spirolactone
DOC to tx HTN in pt w/ urinary retention from prostatic hyperplasia?
a-adrenergic blocker
two positive effects of estrogen
- lowers LDL
- increases bone density
what affect does drug abuse w/ heroin have on the kidneys?
Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
endings:

-tidine
H2 antagonist
endings:

-azocin
a1-Antagonist
endings:

-prazole
proton pump inhibitors
endings:

-setron
5HT-3 antagonist
(inhibit vomiting)
patient w/ "irregular beat" gets anemic.
what drug?
Quinidine
diabetic w/ GI distress & heartburn after meal.
what will help her?
Prochlorperazine
best drug to releive anxiety w/o sedation?
Buspirone
patient on chemo and has blood in urine. From what drug?
Cyclophosphamide
pt gets treated for lung cancer and gets nephro and ototoxicity.
what drug?
Cisplatin
pt has testicular tumor and begins to get pulmonary toxicity.
what drug?
Bleomycin
pt treated for lymphoma & gets neurotoxicity.
what drug?
Vincristine
what antibiotic causes pseudomembranous cholitis due to clostridium difficile?

What Ab can treat this?
Clindamycin

Tx: Metronidazole
used to treat PCP?
TMP-SMX
DOC for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
MOA of vancomycin
inhibits cell wall mucopeptide
"Buy AT 30 CELL at 50"
30s:
Aminoglycosides
Tetracycline

50s:
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
cLindamycin
Lincomycin
AE of Trimethoprim
TMP : Treats Marrow Poorly

- Megaloblastic Anemia
- Leukopenia
- Granulocytopenia
3 common bug that you treat w/ Metronidazole
GET on the Metro:

- Giardia
- Entamoeba
- Tricomonas
2 AE of Isonazid
INH: Injures Neurons & Hepatocytes
Anti-fungal that "Breaks" holes in the membrane
Amphotericin "B"
DOC for Aspirgillosis
CASPofugin
DOC as an oral treatment for Tinea or Ringworm
for Growing worms & Foot cheese:

GriseoFulvin
main AE with Protease inhibitors (Navirs) for HIV
GI upset
3 drug classes used for angina
- nitrates
- beta-blockers
-calcium blockers
heart medication that causes yellow vision
cardiac glycosides
drug used for acute ventricular arrhythmias & digitalis-induced arrhythmias
Lidocaine
drug that is contraindicated in post MI, but is used for V-Tach that progresses to V-fib
Flecainimide
4 K-channel blockers
BIAS to K-channels:
- Bretylium
- Ibutilide
- Amiodarone
- Sotalol
Amiodarone toxicity (3)
check PFT, LFT & TFT on Amiodarone:
- Pulmonary fibrosis
- hepatotoxicity
- hyper/hypothyroid
what is the only class of heart drugs used to prevent nodal arrthymias?

what drug abolishes an existing nodal arrhthymia?
calcium channel blockers

Adenosine
prostaglandin analog for NSAID-induced peptic ulcers
Misoprostol
muscarinic antagonist for peptic ulcers
Pirenzepine

(MUSCular PIRates get ulcers at sea)
DOC for Ulcerative colitis & Crohn's

What else is used to treat Crohne's?
SulfaSALAZINE

another: Infliximab
4 Thrombolytics
Thrombotics Tear-Up All Stoppage:
- TPA
- Urokinase
- APSAC
- Streptokinase

Deck Info

249

permalink