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Microbiology Test 3 Flashcards 2006 Kent


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What is a coliphage?
a bacteriophage that infects the bacterium Escherichia coli
Of the three ways a virus enters a cell, when a virus envelope joins with the cell lipid bilayer, it is called ______.
Membrane fusion.
What part of the virus enters the cell via membrane fusion? List two components.
The capsid and genetic material.
In membrane fusion, the virus enters the cell and undergoes uncoding. What is this?
When genetic material leaves the capsid and enters cell.
In a another type of a virus entry, a virus is phagocytized leaving it in an ________ where it then releases ______ ______ into the cell.
endosome; genetic material
When a virus translocated it has its ________ _______ across the cell _______.
genetic material; membrane.
Two types of animal virus replication is ________ and _______.
lysis; exocytosis (budding)
In virus lysis, what happens to the cell membrane? What happens to the cell?
The cell membrane tears apart. The cell dies.
In virus exocytosis, the excretes a part of its ______. Describe how the cell dies.
membrane; The cell dies by an eventual removing of its membrane until it can no longer live.
A virus with its genetic material produces +mRNA. What is the orginal genetic material?
dsDNA or - RNA ssRNA
What types of genetic material in viruses are translated to complementary ds RNA?
Viruses with - RNA and + RNA produced +/-RNA (or dsRNA)
What type of virus directly translates into proteins?
If you have measles or influenza, you have what type virus genetic material?
Viral ds DNA is taken by the host and what two processes happens to it>
1. mRNA production
2. Viral dsDNA production
Retrovirus + RNA from a virus is turned into what form?
+ RNA/ - DNA.
In a retrovirus, + RNA/ - DNA is turned into ______ by a ribonuclease.
What happens to the - DNA from a + RNA retrovirus?
The complementary (+ DNA) strand is made. Thus creating (+DNA/-DNA or dsDNA).
What two purposes is + DNA/-DNA made for in a + RNA retrovirus.
It is used to make + RNA and + mRNA.
What enzyme causes the - DNA to become - DNA/+ DNA (dsDNA?
reverse transcriptase
What is proviral DNA from a retrovirus known as?
In - RNA and + RNA, the replicative form (-RNA/+RNA) comes from the virus RNA. What does the -RNA/+RNA do?
It is used to reproduce copies of the orginal RNA creating virions.
A general term for a long lasting infection from a virus.
persistent virus
I am a long lasting peristent virus and always detectable virus.
chronic infection
This persistant virus is long lasting and dormant.
latent infection (latency)
You have HIV. Classify by genetic material and by type of persistance.
+ RNA retrovirus; chronic
You notice you have hepatitis. It never seems you leave you. It is a _____ infection.
Epstein-Barr is a type of _____ virus (general class of virus it is). The type of persistance is _____.
Herpes; latent
What is a neoplasm?
a tumor
How does a virus cause cancer?
It viral nucleic acid is incorporated into its genome.
True or false - Cancer attacks certain people populations over others.
Give evidence of cancer attacking by population type.
High incidence rates have been found in sub tropical Africa.
Epstein-Barr virus cause which type of cancer?
Burkitt's lymphoma
Cervical cancer is from what virus?
human papillomavirus
Prion are notorious for causing what agricultural disease?
Mad cow disease or BSE (Bovine spongiform encephalopathy)
Prion is a _______ ______ _______.
Infectious protein particle
How do prions replicate?
Self-replication (note, this is not clearly understood)
Which of the following diseases could you get? Scapie, Creutzfelt-Jacob disease, BSE, Kuru
Only Creutzfelt-Jacob disease and Kuru. Scrapie is sheep, BSE bovine (cows).
An infectius RNA particle is a ______.
A cow has red eyes, it may have a ______.
A plant shows distorted growth from something interacting with its RNA polymerase II. It is a _____.
If you have hepatitis D, you probably have prion/ viroid / bad choice in a partner.
Viroid have capsids. True/false
False. (though they may use the capsids of other viruses such as hepatitis B to cause hepatitis D)
What is a close association between two species of organisms?
Symbiosis is good for both organisms involved? true or false
Mutualism is good for both organisms involved. True or false
When one species benefies and the other does not, it is called _______.
The type of symbiosis that involves a mosquito is called _____.
A marine nematode and sulfide oxidizing bacteria is an example of ________
Why is gut commensalism sometimes considered mutualism?
Because the gut bacteria may actually benefit the organism by preventing other more harmful bacteria from colonizing the gut.
What type of symbiosis is normally found on the surface of the human body?
mutualists or commensals
Bacteria that is living permanent on your body is called ______.
Bacteria not so permanent are ______.
Which of the following places would you expect to find a large diversity of microflora?
skin, urethra track, mouth, veins, large intestine
skin, mouth, large intestine
Clostridium difficile normally resides in the ___________
large intestine
Clostridium difficile is causing you to produce watery diarrhea. Why?
Antibiotics has killed the normal bacteria, causing the C. difficle to flourish and produce a toxin.
E. coli from the colon, can easily cause a infectin problem in the urinary tract. Why?
The urinary tract is sterile. E. coli grows easily there.
The lower repiratory tract is sterile. T/F
An IV picks up mircroflora from the skin and enters the blood. Explain what happens next and why.
An infection occurs in the blood because it is sterile.
An indigenous pathogen might reproduce rapidy in a low competitive area, in a sterile area, or when what system shuts down?
the immune system
What is spread of disease from one host to another by close interaction?
contact transmission
If you catch a diease from a non-living substance transporting the pathogen, you would assume ______ transmission occured.
What is spread of disease from host to host by means of a living organism acting to transport the pathogen?
vector transmission
A communicable disease is a a type of ______ transmisiion in which you get a disease from ______ to _______.
contact; human to human
You notice you have bloody diaherra. You assume you have shigellosis. You probably caught it from which of the following: touching poop, having sex with a shigellosis victim, born with it, eating food with shigellosis fly poop
touching poop (fecal matter) or eating food with fly poop (oral transmission)
Syphilis is conidered to be a communicable/zoonotic disease and transfered sexually/ oral-fecal/ vertical and is an example of direct/ indirect.
sexually and vertical
If you catch meascles, it means you caught a direct/ indirect diease by means by _______ traveling through the air.
You catch a disease from fomites, this is a form of ______ transmission
vehicle (also considered a form of indirect contact)
A communicable is a type of ____ transmission. It has two types of categories. What are they are how are they different.
Direct and indirect.
Direct is from one human to another human.
indirect is human, to inanimate object to other human
High fever in addition to a blood urine test shows you have leptospirosis. You probably caught that disease from:
1.contaminated water from your pet Fifi's urine
2. From your buddy "bubba"
3. a parasite seeking revenge
contaminated urine water from your pet fifi (zoonitc disease)
When an infected organism sheds a pathogen on an object, that ojbect becomes a ______.
You notice your lungs bleeding and pneumonia due to fungal spores. You notice it started in the office on a hot day. You caught it from air conditioning/a coworker and presume it to be ________ transmission. bonus: the disease is _______
air conditioning; vehicle; stachybotrys
You catch giardia by means of _____ transmission in the ______.
vehicle; water
Giardia and rotavirus infect the throat. true / false
False, they are gastrointestinal diseases
Salmonella is caught by what activity?
water/ air/ food
Tuberculosis, influenza, fungal infections are respiratory diseases that travel through the _______.
What is a invertebrate animal that parasitizes a vertebrate animal?
a vector
Typhoid mary is an example of a mechanic/biological vector.
mechanical. She carried the pathogen only to bring it to a new host.
A pathogen uses a vector as part of its life cycle. It is considered a _______ vector.
A human body louse transmits a disease. A mosquito transmits malaria. This is called a mechanical/biological vector type.
A vector disease in which a human originates the diease is called non-communicable / zoonotic diseae.
non-communicable disease
You have murine typhus disease, you realize you have a non-communicable / zoonotic disease.
zoonotic (comes from a flea)
Name 2 host factors that affect disease transmission.
1. number of hosts
2. host immune system
What is ID(sub)50.
50 refers to the amount of pathogens needed so that 50 percent of test subjects come down with disease
Three main factors affect disease transmission abbreviated by HEP. What are they?
host, environment, pathogens
A ______ is a place where pathogens exist when not causing disease.
Name three reservoir types.
Animal, human, non-living
An animal acting as a reservoir can only transfer it if it is not infected. t/f
Another name for a human reservoir is a ________.
What reservoir is vibrio cholerae found in?
West nile virus, it comes from _____ reservoir.
Tenatus can be found in the water/soil/ an animal.
The three events to bacteria causing disease is gaining access, multiplying, then overcoming host defense. How does tetanus differ at step 2, multiplying?
Tetanus works by
If a small area of skin is found to have a staph infection, then it is described as a ______ pattern of damage.
This is a method of tissue damage. One bacteria, Clostridium botulinum, specilizes this. What is the tissue damage?
The second tissue damage involves is seen to break peptide bonds. This category is ______.
Host defense mechanism does not cause tissue damange. True of false
false, (it can harm the body and is the third type of tissue damage)
A disease spreads to multiple organs. It is _______.
A typical infection starts in incubation and moves into what phase?
prodromal stage
What characterizes the prodromal phase?
Symptoms which seem like weakness and fatigue.
After prodromal phase, the infection enters _______.
the period of invasion
Period of invasion is intensified by ________.
an increase in symptoms which go up and are more specific.
The last stage of infection is _________ period.
The convalescent period is marked by what?
the treatment or immune system decreasing the number of microbes
What is the degree or intensity of a pathogen ability to cause disease called?
A category of virulence. It describes how deep a pathogen goes into the flesh.
Describe the difference between sign and symptom.
symptom- something the patient verbally reports
signs - something the physician can gather from examining the patient
What is the difference between ID50 and LD50.
ID50 is the dose needed to infect half the population. LD50 is dose required to kill half the members of a tested population.
What is a specific characteristic or aspect of a pathogen that is responsible (either in whole or in part) for the pathogens ability to cause disease?
virulence factors
This virulence factor that refers to cell parts such as fimbraie is _________.
external structure
The virulence factor that refers to proteins that can break down the structures of other cells is ________.
This virulence factor causes one to show very violenct symptoms due to the nature of its particles. It is ________.
This virulence factor includes lipotechoic acids and mycolic acids. It is ______ /_______
cell wall/ membrane components
What external cell structure is used for the attachment of bacteria to surface of host cells?
If N. gonorrhoeae has its fimbraie removed, what major result happens?
It can't attach to the membranes of epithelial cells and cause disease.
How does Streptococcus pneumoniae prevent phagocytosis?
It has a capsule and has techoic and lipotechoic acids.
Where are techoic and lipotechoic acids found?
the cell wall components
What two functions do techoic and lipotechoic acids?
1. prevents destruction by certain host immune system chemicals
2. aids in attachment to host cells
What does LPS stand for?
Though LPS is a normal cell wall component, to mammals it acts as an _______.
Is LPS found normally in gram + or gram - cells?
Gram -
Neisseria gonorrhoeae attaches to what type of cell?
epithelial cell
LPS acts as a toxin causes which effects. (choose 3)
-depression/ fever / abnormal growth / inflammation / blood loss / cardiovascular shock / diarrhea
fever, inflammation, and cardiovascular shock
Mycobacteria are notorious for having what lipid?
mycolic acid
What are synthesized in the bacteria and purposely secreted outside for particular tasks?
Exoenzymes help the host gain _______ and _______ to the host.
nutrients; access
What does hyaluronidase break down?
hyaluronidase acids
What is the purpose of hyaluronidase acid?
they hold cells together
Exotoxins and endotoxins are different. Which one are primarly lipid, and which one primarily proteins.
exotoxins - proteins
endotoxins - protein
Vaccines target which best, endotoxins or exotoxins?
AB toxin is an endo or exo toxin?
What are the two components in the AB toxin?
A unit- toxic enzymatic unit
B unit- binding unit
What are the two types of membrane-disrupting toxins?
pore-forming toxins; phospholipase toxin
Pore toxins enlarge pores in membrane. What effect does this have?
The cell loses its ability to have selective transport.
The _______ toxin enzymatically disupts cell membrane lipids.
The phospholipase clips off the polar head group. How does this disrupt the membrane?
The phospholipids are stable only with a polar and non polar tail. Clipping the head causes the lipid to leave the membrane or sink into the non polar portions of the membrane.
Hemolysins are a class of phospholipase that breaks down what?
red blood cells
The popular anthrax toxin used in the mail is an example of what type of toxin?
pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin
AB toxin
Leukocidins are what type of toxin?
pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin
pore forming
The chlorea toxin, is found in Vibrio cholerae which is used in _______ transmission, specifically in ________.
It uses what toxin?
pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin
vehicle; water; AB toxin
The genus streptolysins use which type of toxin?
pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin
Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces a lethal toxin called diptheria toxin.
It uses what toxin?
pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin
AB toxin (The lethal dose for humans is about 0.1 μg/kg)
If you catch Vibrio cholera? The disease will occur in the heart/ small intestine / wound. It causes which major symptom?
small intestine; hpersecretory diarrhea
Disease mechanisms are divided into methods of tissue damage, patterns of damage, and time course of infection. What are the two categories of time course infection?
acute and chronic
How might a bacteria with mycolic acid grow undetected by WBCs in humans?
The mycolic acid prevents it from being destroyed by lysosomes. The bacteria grows in the lysosomes undetected.
The categories of exotoxins such as AB toxin and membrane disrupting toxins use what criteria to create the categories?
general mechanism of action
Besides from general mechanism of action, what is the other way to categorize exotoxins?
Cell/tissue the toxin effects
One category of exotoxins are hemolysins and leukocidins.
They lyse cells by interfering with their membrane.
Another category of exotoxins is the ____________. They affect the GI tract and are notorious for E. coli problems and food poisoning.
What toxin category includes products from Clostridium and damages the brain?
neurotoxin (includes Clostridium botulinum and Clostridum tetani).
What toxin category includes Corynebacterium diphtheriae's toxin, which effects heart, nerve and other cells?
multiple effects toxin
What immune defense category is present at birth?
What immune defense category is mainly developed after birth?
What immune defense category la cks specificity?
What immune defense category does not activate immediately?
The chemical pH in the stomach is considered the second line of defense. T/F
False. first
What is the first line of defense that pushes up mucous through the respiratory tract?
What is produced by the skin's sebaceous glands that act somewhat anti-bacterial?
fatty acids
What is a molecule that acts as a binding enhancer for the process of phagocytosis
Give an example of an opsonin
An antibody or C3B.
Antibodies come from the ______ immune system.
C3b proteins come from the ______ system.
This is a biochemical cascade of the immune system to help clear pathogens from the human body.
the complement system.
What is the difference between antigen and antibody?
Antigen is a substance, (usually foreign) that promotes the production of antibodies.
A phagosome is created. If it fuses with a lysosome, it becomes a _________?
Which of the following are reactive oxygen intermediates (ROI)?
superoxide radical
hyperoxide radical
(R),(-) oxide radical
superoxide radical
Hydrogen peroxide is a reactive osygen intermediate. T/F
What is a rapid release of reactive oxygen species from different types of cells known as?
respiratory burst
__________ is a response of tissue to injury
A man once said, the inflammation pathway is abbreviated by RCTD. What does that stand for?
Match the following stages with the symptom
rubor -swelling;
calor -heat;
tumor -pain;
dolor -read;
- rubor – red
- calor – heat
- tumor – swelling
- dolor – pain
The first response to nail puncturing is your skin turning pale. What phase is this?
Mast cells are involved in vasoconstriction. What are mast cells?
a cell that releases imflammatory mediators
What step after a nail puncture procedes vasodilation?
The third step is of nail puncture response is when ______ and _______ are attracted to the area and squeeze through the capillary wall to the damage.
neutrophils; monocytes
The ________ migrate in the fourth step to _____ the blood vessel wall.
fibroblasts; repair
In vasoconstriction, what family of cell adhesion molecules attract neutrophils?
In inflammation, mast cells release _________ in order to help the cell.
histamine, (move chemicals and a completion of the immune response follows)
When an injury occurs, mast cells undergo an influx of _______ causing _________, messenger molecule, levels to rise.
calcium, cAMP
Where do selectins, neutrophil recruiting molecules, come from?
within the capillaries
You notice a wound on someone, you assume that it is lower/higher than normal
Histamine released from mast cells causes what effect on capillaries?
vasodilation (increased blood flow)
A low pH releases _________ from the wound, which cause mast cells to release histamine from its granule pouches.
fill in blank
wound infection --> release selectins --> ______ attracted -->
wound infection --> low pH --> formation of bradykinin ---> mast cell activation --> capilaries widen --> increased plasma _________ --> more inflammatory chemicals --> neutralized _______ and waste
permeability; infection
What is some waste found toward the end of an infection?
dead cells and a fibrin clot
In addition to neutrophils, the neutralized infection by have also been attacked by _________.
This structure is used to wall off bacteria from the rest of the body. What is it?
The alternative, classical, and lectin pathway are all part of the __________ system.
The proteins in the complement system are found primarily in what?
the plasma membrane and other body fluids
Normally proteins in the plasma membrane are in what state?
The alternative path way begins with the cleavage of a protein called ______?
The alternative pathway is always cleaving protein c3 into protein c3a and c3b, yet it does not complete its pathway. Why does the pathway not complete?
The pathway does not complete because c3a and c3b fragments are quickly deactivated.
The alternative pathway is always cleaving protein c3 into protein c3a and c3b, yet it does not complete its pathway. What causes it to complete its pathway?
The pathway completes when c3b binds to a pathogen with lipopolysaccharides (LPS) of gram - bacteria.
The alternative pathway cascades into an event called membrane attack complex. What happens during this phase?
The complex "punches a hole" through the membrane, leading to cell lysis.
The alternative pathway puts holes in gram ______ bacteria.
All three pathways, alternative, classical, and lectin differ in their ________ but are similar that that they reach the similar product of _____________.
initiation; c3 convertase
What is lectin?
It is a protein thit binds to certain carbohydrates.
How is the lectin pathway activated?
Mannan-binding lectin (aka mannose-binding protein) MBP binds to mannose found on a pathogen surface.
The classical pathway is considered specific because it requires ________ to initiate it.
What makes lectin and laternative pathways innate?
They react to hosts without using specificity.
Alternative pathway leads to __________by coating gram + bacteria with c3b protein.
In the common c3 convertase pathway, like the initial part of the alternative pathway, the c3 protein break up into ____ and ___.
c3a and c3b
What protein from the complement pathway causes inflammation response due to histamine release?
How does c3b aid in phagocytosis?
Pathogens with c3b attached are recognized by phagocytes.
C3b is used as a catalyse in breaking down what?
The protein _____ breaks c5 into ____ and _____.`
c3b; c5a; c5b
What does c5 assist in creating?
membrane attack complex (it punches a hole in the membrane of pathogen)
The membrane makes of doughnut hole in the image of what protein?
the c9 protein
I am a ______ pathogen because I am a parasite that can live and reproduce with or without a host organism.
I am a _________ pathogen because I am a parasite that must associate with a host in order to live and reproduce
I am a ______ pathogen because I am a parasite that needs a "normal" healthy host to live.
I am a ______ pathogen because I require the host to have a special characteristic or predisposing host factor to cause disease.
What immune system defense line includes these of interferons and phagocytosis?
second defense
What is the third line of defense?
It is the host creating specific defenses for each microbe through specialized WBCs.
Immune serum is _______ immunity. It is considered active/ passive.
artificial/ passive
Maternal antibodies is ______ immunity. It is considered active/ passive.
natural; passive
The cholera toxin has a B subunit. The subunit is described as ________.
5; it is decribed as p
The cholera toxin increases Cl- secretion by doing what?
Permanetly activating adenylate cyclase, causing a conversion of ATP --> cAMP
What should be studied after all these flashcards?
figures from the internet. A a document summary can be obtained from zaid, sean, kevin, mike, liza, and possibly others.

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