Cell 101 Final Exam Questions

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The method of reasoning uses general principles by careful examination of many specific cases: inductive
Which of the following characteristics is not a property of life a. responding to stimuli b. dividing in two c. regulating internal conditions d. all these define characteristics of life: b. dividing in two
The same basic array of bones is modified to give rise to the wing of a bat and the fin of a porpoise such anatomical structures are called: homologous
The attraction of water molecules to other water molecules is called: cohesion
In chemical reactions the gain of an electron is called: reduction
Mendeleev found when he arranged the known elements according to atomic mass the entries in the table exhibited a pattern of chemical properties that property repeated itself in groups of S elements. This led to the generalization now known as: octet rule
Because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen the water molecule is: polar
The atomic structure of water satisfies the octet rule by: having oxygen form covalent bonds with 2 hydrogen atoms
Macromolecules are disassembled in: hydrolysis
Which of the following is not protein: pectin
All atoms tend to fill their outer energy levels with maximum number of electrons usually 8 depending on whether the atoms satisfied this simple octet rule or not will allow the prediction of: chemical behavior of the atoms
DNA & RNA are similar in some respects and different in others. Which of the following statements is not accurate about their similarities? a. both DNA & RNA nucleotides contain the nitrogen bases adenine, cytosine and guanine b. both D: b. both DNA & RNA contain monosaccharide sugars on their respective nucleotides
Nonpolar molecules tend to aggregate in water because they are forced to come into close proximity to each other due to: hydrophobic interactions
Small cells function more efficiently because as cells become larger their surface to volume ratio: decreases
Photosynthetic bacterial membranes are located in the: plasma membrane
Protein motifs are considered a type of: secondary
Which of the following is associated with plants a. glycogen b. amylopectin c. chitin d. levo-glucose: b. amylopectin
What is the difference between a primary lysosome and a secondary lysosome: primary lysosomes have low levels of protons while secondary lysosomes have high levels of protons
Lipid synthesis occurs in which eukaryotic organelle: smooth endoplasmic recticulum
Which of the following is not found in the cytoskeleton a. actin filaments b. intermediate filaments c. spindle fibers d. microtubules e. none of the above: c. spindle fibers
Which increases the fluidity of the plasma membrane: double bonds between carbon atoms in the fatty acid tails
A cell placed in distilled water will: swell
Sucrose cannot pass through the membrane of a red blood cell but water and glucose can. Which solution would cause the red blood cell to shrink the most: a hyperosmotic sucrose solution
Proteins that function as passageways through which substances and information crosses the membrane are called: transmembrane proteins
Which of the following processes requires membrane proteins: receptor-mediated endocytosis
The peptidioglycan of bacterial cell wall contains a carbohydrate matrix linked together by short chains of: amino acids
A type of transport of a solute across a membrane up its concentration gradient using protein carriers driven by the expenditure of chemical energy is known as: active transport
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched a. actin-microtubule organizing centers b. intermedial fiber-protofilaments c. microtubules +/- ends d. intermediate fibers-cellular movement: c. microtubules +/- ends
On the outer surface of the plasma membrane there are marker molecules that identify the cell type often these molecules are: carbohydrate chains
Some single-celled organisms remove water entering by osmosis with a process called extrusion which involves: contractile vacuoles
The process often thought of as cell eating is: diffusion
Carrier-mediated transport is also called: facilitated diffusion
In a single sodium potassium pump cycle, ATP is used up with the result that: 3 sodium ions leave and 2 potassium ions enter
The accumulation of amino acids and sugars in animal cells occurs through the: coupled transport
_______ is the motor protein associated with movement of a cellular organelles towards the nucleation center and ______ is the motor protein associated with movement away from the nucleation center on the microtubular track.: dynein, kinesin
Which of the following is not bounded by membranes: nucleoid
In eukaryotes mitochondria are the organelles primarily involved in: energy release/capture
Sodium and sugar are coupled in a kind of coupled transport across the membrane called ______ while sodium and calcium are coupled in another type of transport across the membrane called ______: symport, antiport
Biological membranes contain bilayers of which of the following lipid: phospholipids
Lysosomes are vesicles bounded by membranes that contain oxidative enzymes. Their functions include all the following except they a. catalyze the rapid breakdown of macromolecules b. breakdown old organelles c. eleminate substances taken i: e. allow bacteria to pass through unaffected
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase is a multienzyme complex that catalyzes a series of reactions. Which of the following is not carried out by Pyruvate Dehydrogenase?: The production of ATP
How many molecules of CO2 are produced for each molecule that passes through glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?: 6
The electrons generated from the Krebs Cycle are transferred to _____ and then shuttled to ______: NAD+ , electron transport chain
The final electron acceptor in the Lactic acid fermentation is:: Pyruvate
The first stage of cell respiration and the oldest in terms of evolution is:: glycolysis
Chemiosmotic gneration of ATP is driven by:: A difference in H+ concentration
The reaction of C6 H12 O6 +602 -⬦: aerobic respiration
2 ATP Molecules are required for: Glucose Priming
When substrate level phosphorylation occurs, it means :: ADP is converted to ATP by Phosphorous
In gylcolysis the 3 steps of energy are:: G3Pâ€”1,3 BPGâ€”3PG and PEPâ€”Pyruvate
The order of Glucose Catabolism:: Glycolysisâ€”Pyruvateâ€”Acetyl CoAâ€”Krebs Cycleâ€”Electron transport
During the Krebs Cycle-: Acetyl CoA joins
In the cyclic reaction sequence called the Krebs cycle the following chem. Events take place, except:: Pyruvate molecules are restored
Cytochromes are respiratory proteins. Which reflects their true nature:: Cytochrome proteins reside in the mitochondria and are specifically associated with the electron transport chain.
Photosynthesis is most efficient with the colors:: Red , blue, and violet
Which evolved first:: Single photosystem
The final product of the Calvin Cycle is: G3P
O2 is produced during photosynthesis in plants when: water molecules are split to provide electrons for photosystem II
The overall purpose of the Calvin Cycle is to :: Build organic molecules
In dark reactions CO2 is added to a five carbon sugar known as:: RuBP
In photosystem I photocenter light energy is passed to: P700
The photosystem channels excited energy to:: The primary electron acceptor
Photosystem II differs from photosystem I because:: NADPH Is not made directly from the process
In dark reactions when CO2 is added to a molecule of RuBP the product is:: Phosphoglycerate
___ revolutions of the Calvin Cycle are required to produce glucose: 6 revolutions
Light+ photosynthesis in the Calvin Cycle produce:: ATP& NADPH
The CAM metabolism was developed by desert plants to reduce the problem of: photorespiration.
Which one of the following represents the interphase:: G1+S+G2
Replicate copies of each chromosome are called:: sister chromatids
Which proteins are used to control cell growth: growth factors
The cell cycle phase sequence common to Eukaryotes is:: G1 to S to G2 to M to C
The cell organelles replicate prior to genome seperation in:: the G2 Phase
Kinetochase microtubles become shorter, pulling chromatids to poles during: Anaphase
Plant Cells typically achieve cytokinesis by:: forming a cell plate across middle of cell
In humans the diploid number of chromosomes is 46, the haploid is 23, prior to mitosis in the G2 phase which is true?: The homologous chromosomes have been copied through DNA replication.
If a somatic cell has 32 chromosomes prior to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokineses each new daughter cell will have: 32 chromosomes
The bacterial genome exists as a: Single, circular, uncoated, double stranded DNA molecule
Some of the portions of the chromatin are permanently condensed so that their DNA is never expressed. They stain intensly and are called:: heterochromatin
Eukaryotic chromosomes are composed of a complex of 60% protein and 40% DNA. The name of this chemical complex is: chromatin
The physical map of the array of chromosomes is called: a karyotype
By the end of this phase of mitosis, the centromere joining each pair of sister chromatids is attached by microtubules to opposite poles of the spindle apparatus. This phase is called: prophase
The physical distribution of cytoplasmic material into the two daughter cells is called: cytokinesis
Eukaryotic chromosomes are coated with proteins containing a high proportion of basic amino acids. These proteins are given the name: histones
Which of the following sequence of cell-cycle phases is characteristic of eukaryotes?: G1 to S to G2 to M to C
Which of the following is essentially the reverse of prophase?: telophase
The proteins that participate in the functioning of the checkpoints for cell cycle control are: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases
A scientist wants to study histones. Histones are: proteins that are tightly bound to the double strands of DNA
Nucleosomes are located in the: nucleus and are composed of DNA and histones
A cell biologist is conducting a karyotype procedure on alligator red blood cells. Exactly what does this mean?: It means that chromosomes from the red blood cells of the alligator will be examined with a microscope, photographed, counted, lined up with their respective homologous partner, and displayed.
Chromosomes have centromeres and when chromosomes are replicated they are called sister chromatids. Which statement is accurate?: n humans somatic cells there are 46 chromosomes and thus 46 centromeres. When replicated there are 92 sister chromatids and 46 centromeres.
The fusion of male gamete cells with female gamete cells is called: syngamy
Diploid organisms use meiosis for the development of gametes. Meiosis consist of how many rounds of nuclear division?: two
Which of the following occurs during leptotene of prophase I?: the replicated chromosomes recognize one another, come close to each other and condense
Which of the following represents the correct order of events during prophase I?: leptotene â€“ zygotene â€“ pachytene â€“ diplotene â€“ diakinesis
The pairing of chromosomes along their lengths which is essential for crossing-over is referred to as: synapsis
During which step of which stage does crossing over take place?: Pachytene, Prophase I
In ________, the kinetochore spindle fibers bind to one side of the centromere while in _________, the kinetochore spindle fibers attach to both sides of the centromere.: meiosis I, meiosis II
The zygote has: two copies of each chromosome
In animals, the cells that will eventually undergo meiosis to produce gametes are set aside early in the development. These are: germline cells
Chromosomes exchange genetic information by: crossing over
The synaptonemal complex develops early in meiosis. It is: a lattice of proteins that holds homologues together
At the end of telophase II of meiosis, each of the four resulting cells contains: one full set of chromosomes, each a single chromatid
Meiosis and mitosis are both processes that involve nuclear division. What is the difference between the two?: Mitosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to diploid somatic cells. Meiosis is nuclear division, which ultimately leads to haploid gametes.
Hypotheses abound as to why sexual reproduction began and why it is maintained. Which of the hypotheses is described in the following statement? This hypothesis proposes that sexual reproduction allows populations to store or keep in the heterozygous con: The Red Queen Hypothesis
All of the following are processes that promote new genetic combinations except: parthenogenesis
Which of the following characteristics made the pea plant Pisum sativum an ideal organism for Mendel's studies?: All of the answers are correct.
The stamen represents the _____ portion of the plant, while the ovules represent the ____ portion of the plant.: male ; female
Which of the following traits was not studied by Mendel?: pollen color
When studying a genetic cross, the second generation following the initial cross is identified by which of the following?: F2 generation
A true breeding line of green pod pea plants is crossed with a true-breeding line of yellow pod plants. All of their offspring have green pods. From this information it can be stated that the green color is _____ to the yellow color.: dominant
Mendel's work with single-factor crosses resulted in the development of which of the following?: law of segregation
When Mendel crossed two plants that were heterozygous for a single trait, what was the phenotypic ratio of their offspring?: 3 : 1
When Mendel crossed two plants that were heterozygous for a single trait, what was the genotypic ratio of their offspring?: 1 : 2 : 1
In a Punnett square diagram, the outside of the box represents the ________: haploid gametes
In a dihybrid cross using Mendelian inheritance, if both parents are heterozygous for both traits, what will be the phenotypic ratio of their offspring?: 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
If a Punnett square is used to visualize a three-factor cross, how many boxes would be inside of the square?: 64
In a dihybrid testcross, the individual being examined is crossed to which of the following?: an individual who is homozygous recessive for both traits
In four-o'clock plants, red flower color is dominant to white flower color. However, heterozygous plants have a pink color. If a pink flowered plant is crossed with a white flowered plant, what will be the phenotypic ratios of their offspring?: ½ pink, ½ white
A heterozygote possesses a phenotype that is intermediate between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes. This is most likely an example of ________.: incomplete dominance
The coat characteristics of Siamese cats and Himalayan rabbits where proteins in the extremities function differently than in other parts of the body, is an example of _________.: temperature-sensitive conditional allele
For a certain trait a heterozygous individual has a selective advantage than a homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive individual. This is called ________.: overdominance
An individual with type A blood and an individual with type B blood mate and have offspring. What blood type is not possible in their offspring?: all blood types are possible
Both DNA and RNA are made up of building blocks known as: nucleotides
DNA consists of two antiparallel strands of nucleotide chains held together by: hydrogen bonds
The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of new DNA molecules is called: DNA polymerase
DNA primase: creates a short RNA primer complementary to the DNA template
As the two strands of DNA are unraveled, an enzyme relieves the strain on the two strands. The enzyme is: DNA gyrase
The reading of the bases along the length of a nucleic acid molecule for either replication,transcription or translation is done from the Question 6 answers: 5â€™ end
DNA polymerase requires a(n)_______________ to continue synthesis of daughter strand.: RNA primer
Replication always proceeds by adding new bases to the: 3â€™ end
If a short sequence of DNA is AATTGCCGT, its complement is: TTAACGGCA
The sites of the opening of the DNA strands which then actively proceed in two directions is: replication forks
When DNA is replicated during S of the cell cycle, the sequence is maintained but the double strand is not. Each strand of the original double strand accompanies its new complement strand. This process is known as the: semiconservative DNA replication
The replisome has two main subcomponents. They are: the primosome and a complex of two DNA pol III enzymes
Which of the following DNA replicating enzymes is responsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds between the double helix of DNA?: DNA helicase
Eukaryotic organisms solve the problem of time constraints on replication of DNA by: using multiple origins of the replication for each chromosome, which results in multiple replicons
Amino acids are transported to the ribosome for use in building the polypeptide by: tRNA molecules
The process in which an RNA polymerase molecule assembles an mRNA molecule whose nucleotide sequence is complementary to the DNA sequence is called: transcription
Similar to the complementary purine-pyrimidine relationship observed in DNA, which of the following choices pairs with adenine in RNA?: uracil
The nucleotide sequence of an mRNA codon is composed of how many bases?: three
Protein synthesis takes place on: ribosomes
Ribosomes are complex arrangements of: RNA and proteins
The sites A, P, and E are progressively occupied by amino acids being assembled into a chain in protein synthesis. These sites are part of: large ribosomal subunit
Gene expression includes which two of the following processes?: transcription and translation
The tRNA nucleotide sequence that lines up on the mRNA is: an anticodon
The codons that serve as â€œstopâ€ signals for the protein synthesis are called: nonsense codons
The bond that forms between the newly added amino acid and the previous amino acid on the chain is called a: peptide bond
The initiation complex for protein synthesis contains all of the following except: a release factor
Eukaryotic mRNA molecules are occasionally interspersed with non-coding sequences that must be removed before protein synthesis. These are called: introns
If the sequence of bases in a section of DNA is ATCGCTCC, what is the corresponding sequence of bases in mRNA?: UAGCGAGG
The process that occurs when a ribosome moves three more nucleotides along the mRNA molecule in the 5â€™ to 3â€™ direction is referred to as: translocation
Which of the following is not a type of cell surface receptor? A.)Chemically gated ion channel B.)Intracelluar receptor C.)Enzymic receptor D. G-protiens: B.)Intracelluar receptor
Which of the following is not a second messenger? A.) Adenylyl cyclase B.) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate C.) Calcium ions D.) CAMP: A.) Adenylyl cyclase
The space into which neurotransmitter are released is called a chemical: Synapse
Which of the following is involved in everything from sex in yeast to cognition in humans?: G-protein linked receptors
A scientist has developed a mutant cell line that does not respond to nitric oxide (NO) gas. What is likely to be the result of such a cell line when treated with NO gas?: Levels of GMP will decrease
The G-protein linked receptors are the largest. Each G-protein linked receptors passes through the plasma membrane: 7 times
All of the following statements about chemically gated ion channels are true except A.) Their amino acid chain winds back and both across the membrane B.) They have genes encoded on them C.) In the center of the protein, a pore exists: B.) They have genes encoded on them
Specific protein receptors are present for all the following except A.) Signal amp B.) Signal transduction C.) Intracellular receptors binding to DNA D.) Signaling to other cells E.) AC cell junctions: E.) AC cell junctions
Some enzymic receptors and most G-protein-linked carry the signal molecules message into the target cell by utilizes other substances within the cytoplasm commonly called: Second messengers
Junctions in which the cytoskeleton of a cell is attached to that of other cells or the extracellular matrix are called: Anchoring junctions
Which of the following is not part of the cell communication system in animal cells? A.) Gap junctions B.) Plasmodesmata C.) Tight junctions D.) Desmosomes E.) None: B.) Plasmodesmata
What is the function of the CD8+ cell anti-viral factor (CAF) in human white blood cells?: Blocks replication of HIV virus
Which of the following infectious agents does not contain protein?: Viroids
A layer of lipoprotein and glycoprotein that covers the outer surface of some viruses is the: Envelope
Benign vibrio cholerae becomes pathogenic by which of the following steps?: A bacteriophage infects the v. cholerae by introducing a gene coding for the cholera toxin
The infection cycle of HIV includes all of the following steps except A.) Attachment B.) Entry C.) Replication D.) Killing the host cell immediately with no exceptions E.) Viral DNA integrates into the host chromosome: D.) Killing the host cell immediately with no exceptions
Viruses infect every organism that has been investigated for their presence. However viruses can only replicate in: A very limited host range
The HIV virus is considered a _______ virus because after getting integrated into the host cell chromosome, it does not begin replicating immediately: Latent
Viruses that have defective nef genes do not cause AIDS because they: Have reduced reproductive capacity
Viruses that originate in one organism and then pass on to another organism are called: Emerging viruses
SARS is caused by: Corona virus
Archaebacteria and bacteria differ in all of the following ways except: Their presence in non-extreme environments
Prokaryotic organisms that obtain their energy by oxidizing inorganic substances are called: chemo autotrophs
In Yersinia the genes that code for the type III system are similar to the genes that code for the _______: Flagella
Prokaryotes are very important ecologically because they perform all of the following except A.) Photosynthesis B.) Fix atmospheric nitrogen C.) Carry out decomposition D.) Are all capable of causing disease E.) Inhabit all types: D.) Are all capable of causing disease
Genetic engineering technology is being applied to adapt Bacillus thuringienis for the purpose of: Insect control
Dental plaque, a first stage tooth decay consists of: Bacteria surrounded by a polysaccharide matrix
The sign of the second stage of syphilis: Rashes on the neck, throat
Chlamydia trachomatis causes an STD in humans. Select the false one. A.) Chlamydia is called the silent STD B.) Can cause sterility C.) It can be treated with some antibiotics D.) Depends on host for replication E.) No clear link: E.) No clear link to PID
Prokaryotic cell walls consist of a network of polysaccharide molecules connected by crosslinks of: Polypeptides
Which of the following is not true about prokaryotes A.) They are the oldest organisms on earth B.) They are the structurally simplest organisms C.) They are the most abundant life forms D.) They contain organelles: D.) They contain organelles
4 of the 5 choices are characteristic of prokaryotic organisms select the exception A.) most prokaryotic cell diameters are 1 micrometer in length B.) most prokaryotic organisms are unicellular C.) prokaryotic organisms use mitosis fo: C.) prokaryotic organisms use mitosis for their nuclear division
Chemical A and B are mixed. Chemical B is reduced: B has gained electrons from A
A catalyst: decreases the amount of energy needed for the reaction to proceed
Which about enzymes is false? A.) Enzymes are catalysts B.) All cells of an organism contain the same enzymes C.) Enzymes bring substances together to make reactions occur faster D.) Lower activation energy nzymes is false?: B. All cells of an organism contain the same enzymes
When the substrate is bound to the enzyme the shape of the enzyme may change slightly, leading to: a better induced fit
Î”G is positive when the reaction is ________ and Î”G is negative when the reaction is ________.: Endergonic, exergonic
Desmosome have ______ as the linking proteins while adhern junctions have ________ as linking proteins: cadherins, inegrins
HIV infects cells by docking on the CD4 receptor followed by binding to a 2nd macrophage receptor _________. After mutating, the gp120 prefers to bind to the T lymphocyte receptor ________.: CCR5, CXCR4
The ______ viruses have been linked with liver cancer in people with chronic infections: hepatitis B & C

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