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if the pump is running, what should be your first stop in diagnosing a fuel delivery problem?: the as built drawings.
the primary purpose of the orifice plate on the 302AF fueling and defueling valve is to create a differential pressure to do what?: to operate the CDHS-3
the defuel line in the panero hydrant system pit has a "U" bend to do what?: to keep the entire line from draining.
what component aids in opening the 302AF fueling and defueling valve?: the ejector strainer
what part on the 302AF fueling and defueling valve restricts the flow of fuel in the control tubing and under normal conditions will not close?: the pressure reducing control.
how many hydrant outlets are normally installed for each 302AF fueling and defueling valve?: one
during refueling, which 302AF fueling and defueling valve component is responsible for closing the defuel side of the main valve?: the solenoid.
civil engineering's primary wartime mission is to do what?: furnish operational assistance to a flying wing
crash and rescue support is provided by?: the base civil engineer
the active force not assigned to a bce unit when not deployed is: red horse
which host nation impacts should civil engineer units assess before deploying to another country?: operations, environment, and populace
which civil engineer flight plans, developes, submits, and maintains the civil engineer financial management systems?: resources flight
while ensuring mission continuity during war and peace, the ce flight that provides dedicated resources to fully protect life, resources, and the environment from the unfavorable outcomes of fires, natural disasters, and hazardous materials incidents is?: readines
which trade is in the operations flight?: pest management specialist.
which trade is in the ops flight?: professional engineers and technicians.
name the operations flight element that reviews all project designs and coordinates project impact with the appropriate work centers and reviews all projects from the standpoint of enhancing the reliability and maintainability of the facility or system: maintenance engineering
the operations flight element that manages the givernment operated civil engineering supply store (gocess) tracking material acquisitions monitoring work center stock and coordinating adjusted levels and maintaining the civil engineer material acquisition: material acquisition
the operations flight element that works closely with base contracting accounting and finance base supply and other agency personnel to ensure maximum logistics support is?: material acquisition
who introduces reviews validates and prioritizes coporate prime beef engineer programs and requirements?: readiness board
who ensures all prime beef team members are organized equipped and trained to perform their contingency roles and that all equipment is on hand and ready to deploy?: the base civil engineer
the 5 character alphanumeric code that uniquely identifies each type of unit of the armed forces is: unit type code (UTC)
the focus for deploying prime beef forces is to: support aircraft and combat operations
when contingency vehicles are not normally used during peacetime how often must prime beef personnel receive vehicle qualification training?: every three years
what training pulls together all of the various facets of the bare base field environment to include leadership innovation and team effort?: tier 3 silver flag
what prime beef mobility bag contains extreme cold weather gear?: B-Bag
the weapon requirements for prime beef members are: one m- 16 rifle per team member
a major command receives special consideration for receiving ang or afrc prime beef forces when deployment: provides unique contingency skill training
what afsc skill level is for craftsman?: 7 level
what identifies the conversion table subroup as listed in the department of defense occupational conversion manual that groups similar occupations in the military services and civil service?: unit type code (UTC)
the minimum skill level necessary to primarily manage and coordinate work centers or shops is: a superintendent
the part of the civil engineer occupation badge that represents the essence of engineering applying scientific principles and technology to practical ends is the: gear
the civil engineer occupation badge that has a wreath is the: master badge
which part of the career field education and training plan identifies transition training guide requirements for staff sergeant through master sergeant?: part 1
the part of the career field education and training plan that contains our specialty training standards (STS) is: part 2
what part of the career field education and training plan includes major command unique training requirements?: part 2
what does the airforce use to differentiate between subject knowledge levels?: A, B, C, D
the proficiency code level that analyzes facts and principles and draws conclusions about the subject is: level C
the symbol that indicates a qtp is available is: a filled in triangle
the process of teaching students specific skills to be performed under defined conditions is known as: training
the process of teaching students a body of knowledge designed to prepare them to deal with situations and solve problems not yet defined is known as: educating
the minimum skill level for a task certifier is the: 5 level
certest teaches: principles and procedures of a subject or task
why is the operations flight unable to meet all the customers reequests?: because there are more requirements than resources
if unable to fulfill a work request you should: explain constraints to the customer and seek alternatives
upon notification what work must be completed within 24 hours: emergency
what work must be completed within five workdays of receiving materials?: urgent
what initiating document identifies work requirements to correct facility deterioration or health and safety hazards?: af form 332 bce work request
bce has an af form 332 bce work request for work not qualifying for a higher priority what bce work priority do we assign to it?: necessary
to collect reimbursements and gather data for review and analysis use: af form 327 bce work order
which board determines whether the work is to be accomplished by in service personnel self help or contract: work request review board
what do we call any work whose costs exceed $15,000?: a project
who is responsible for all work performed by self help?: base civil engineer
if a person pays for lost or damaged government property who has ownership?: the us government
what form does the government use to satisfy pecuniary liability for the lost or damaged government property that is $500 or less: dd form 1131 cash collection voucher
material left over after the work is complete (but not enough to return to logistics) we keep in: shop stock
which element sends most direct scheduled work requirements to the shop or zone instead of through the planning element?: customer service
all requisitions no matter who conducts the materials planning goes through: logistics
an example of civil engineer equipment under warranty is: an hvac system
when might the air force decide not to enforce a warranty: during contingency operations, equipment was damaged by neglect, and on obsolete equipment
which type of work is not part of the rwp: utilities operations
work with a higher priority than rwp is considered: urgent and emergency
the goal of the rwp program assessment is: to balance preventive maintenance against breakdown costs
what cost center do we use to report labor hours using a weekly schedule: actual time accounting (ATA)
what form do we use to maintain weekly and daily information for each shop?: AF Form 561, BCE Weekly Work Schedule
where do we get input for the daily work schedule?: af form 561 bce weekly work schedule
the work scheduler generates one daily work schedule for each: (ATA) cost center
what information does the bce daily work schedule provide information on?: location of each worker and the status of all work
what points out flaws in the work plan, prevents confusion between crafts, and provides historical data for use with similar projects?: documentation
what is the systematic procedure for any job the sequence for work in order of performance?: job phases
placing safety suggestions on the bulletin board and passing safety literature to each worker are examples of which type of accident prevention method: education and training
what best describes a confined space with a class a classification: it has limited openings for entry and exit and has unfavorable ventilation
if a worker does not understand the procedures for an assigned task what should the supervisor do?: have the worker state the procedures
before cleaning or adjusting a power tool you must: disconnect the power tool from the power source
when working around moving equipment avoid: wearing loose clothing
if more than one worker is doing maintenance on a piece of powered equipment which worker should lockout tagout the equipment?: each journeyman working on the equipment
which airforce program is established to protect people from harmful effects of hazardous noise: hearing conservation program
what determines which organ or body system is affected by chemical vapors?: specific compound involved
a chamical agent that produces dermatitis after prolonged contact with the skin is a: skin sensitizer
what environmental protection agency office supervises the administrative law judges, who operate at the agency regional offices?: chief administrative law judge
which environmental protection agency office ensures compliance with the davis bacon act and related acts?: the office of civil rights
name the directives issued by the president of the usa: Executive orders
in a case where no final governing standards exist what publication do we use to develop final governing standards that provides the compliance criteria for use by the airforce?: overseas environmental baseline guidance document
which action qualifies for a categorical exclusion under the environmental impact assessment process (EIAP): performing exterior construction within the five foot line of a building without changing the land use of the existing building
of the following which airforce environmental quality program pillar reduces health and environmental risks created or caused by past operations?: cleanup
which workplace hazards include irritants corrosives cryogenics sensitizes carcinogens and target organ hazards?: health hazards
who oversees a states local emergency planning committes?: state emergency response commission (SERC)
what resource conservation and recovery act waste is described as ignitable corrosive reactive or toxic: RCRA characteristic waste
what hazardous waste is a discarded chemical product (in its pure form) that is an acute hazard: P- code
how often must we test high volume hazardous waste streams?: annually
what are the epa codes for listed wastes?: F- K- P- U- codes
which publications are hq airforce level documents?: departmental
organizations below the hq airforce level issue these publications: field
when a unit level publication conflicts with one of its own publications what is the protocol?: follow the publication with the most current date
what article under the ucmj are non punitive publications enforceable under?: article 92(3)
what does the airforce use to measure compliance with policy directives?: metrics
informational publications that serve to guide point out or otherwise facilitate reference are: indicies
concise reference publications on the technical aspects of a particular subject or a compilation of factual data and instructional material not subject to frequent revision are: handbooks
informational publications that are detailed listings that describe or list a collection of information according to some plan are: catalogs
publications of another federal agency including dod and its components that are directive on or of interest to the air force are: joint publications
who issues national institute for occupational safety and health (NIOSH) publications that are directive on the airforce?: department of health and human services
publications that contain mutually agreed upon policies or procedures of the airforce and one or more of the military departments or dod agencies to carry out a common mission or functions are: interservice publications
what do we call the military department or agency that publishes an interservice publication (IP): executive agent
forms that must be controlled safeguarded and accounted for so as not to jeopardize airforce installation security or defraud the government are known as: accountable
what are the publication sources for engineering technical letters?: AFCESA and the US army corps of engineers.
technical orders are issued by: the secretary of the airforce
where do we get manufacturer technical instructions for equipment or work procedures for which there are no technical orders?: commercial publications
what must you do to a pipeline when a component has been remover and the line is open?: close the line
what must be on ground powered equipment exhaust pipes?: flame arrestors
what must you do to the cathodic protection before your remover a system component?: disconnect it
describe the methods used to fill an empty underground tank: fill the tank with a flow of 3 feet per second till the inlet fill pipe is completely submerged in fuel
how long after a tank has been filled must you wait before inserting any object into it?: 30 minutes
dry chemical fire extinguishers can be used on what type of fires: B and C
at what minimal amount does current cause electrical shock?: 100 miliampers
what could cause a dead circuit to become hot even when the switch is off?: when circuit accidentally shorts to another circuit
what is the purpous of af form 979?: to protect personnel
what is the purpose of af form 980?: to identify situations out of the ordinary
what publication specifies the color code system for pipelines?: mil-hbk-161g
describe a typical pipeline marking for jet fuel: 3 narrow yellow bands and jet fuel jp-8 in white on a black background
whare should the emergency shutoff switch be located for fillastands?: no less than 25 feet away
how far away should the fire reporting telephone be located from all fixed fueling points?: within 300ft.
at what minimal amound does current cause electrical shock?: 100 miliampers
what is the purpose of the af form 979?: to protect personnel
what is the purpose of the af form 980?: to identify situations out of the ordinary
what afi contains detailed procedures on blocking and tagging electrical circuits?: afi 36-1064 electrical safe practices
what airforce publication governs the wear of respirators?: afosh std 48-137 respiratory protection program
what approval is required on all airforce respirators?: NIOSH national institute of occupational safety and health
what are the two types of respirators?: atmosphere supplying and air purfying
how many volts can nylon material generate?: 600 volts
list two reasons why jp-4 forms the greatest hazard: it generates static electricity and it has a low vapor pressure
what in fuel can enhance a static charge build up?: contaminants
how long after a tank has been filled must you wait before inserting any object in to it?: 30 minutes
relative to the wind direction where should you work?: upwind
what must you do to a pipeline when a component has been removed and the line is open?: close the line
what must you do to the cathodic protection before you remover a system component?: disconnect it
dry chemical fire extinguishers can be used on what type of fires?: b and c
what is the effective range of a co2 fire extinguisher?: 3 to 6 feet
what is the definition of a class 1 flamable liquid?: liquid having a closed cup flash point below 100 degrees F and vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psia
what is the definition of a class 2 combustible liquid?: liquids with a flash point at or above 100 degrees f and below 140 degrees f
what is the definition of a class 3 combustible liquid?: liquid with a flash point at or above 140 degrees f
what is the ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity?: conductivity
the lowest temperature at wich a substance gives off sufficient vapors when mixed with air to support combustion: fire point
the pressure exerted by a vapor at a certain temperature: vapor pressure
the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize: boiling point
the tendency of a liquid to vaporize: volatility
the lowest temperature at which petroleum products give off sufficient vapors when mixed with air to ignite: flash point
the weight per unit volume: density
the ability of a substance to support combustion: flammability
the ratio of the weight of a substance at 60 degrees F to the weight of the equal volume of distilled water at the same temperature: specific gravity
the temperature at which ice crystals form in a substance: freeze point
what is the key to waste reduction?: source reduction
what are some ways to avoid creating waste fuel?: return fuel to system, blend it back into bulk storage tank
what is the minimum flash point of jp-8 jet fuel?: 100 degrees F
The density of a fuel is its: weight per unit volume
static dissipater additive (SDA) is added to jp-8 to: increase conductivity
what is the human response to fuel vapor exposure at 10000 ppm for 10 minutes?: intoxication
when filling a cone roof with floating pan tank, what is the maximum fill rate?: 3 feet per second untill the pan is floating
how far from an underground fuel storage tank vent must you post danger signs?: 50 feet
what class fire is a jp-8 pipeline fire?: class b
how many yellow bands will be displayed on an eight inch jp-8 pipeline?: 3
how much lighting is required for a jp-8 tank catwalk?: 2 foot candlepower
what is the actual cause of electrical shock?: current
what form is used to block and tag switches during electrical work for the protection of personnel?: af form 979
what publication provides detailed procedures on blocking and tagging electrical circuits?: AFI 32-1064
how often must employees receive respirator training?: annually
with a second degree burn the skin is best described as?: blistered
what should you do for a person suffering from heat cramps?: give the victim large amounts of water
the greatest danger when the heart stops beating is lack of?: oxygen to the brain
when performing a one person cpr how many complete cycles of 15 chest compressions and two ventilations should be performed before rechecking the victim for a pulse?: four
how far should you depress the breastbone when performing cpr?: 1 1/2 to 2 inches
which law of motion proves a pressure gauge bourdon tube exerts an equal amount of pressure as the liquid it contains exerts?: the third law
what is the difference between weight and mass?: weight is gravitational pull mass is what makes up an object
which law would be used to determine the force necessary to move fuel through a pipe at specific velocity?: the second law of motion
define work: work= force x distance an object is moved
this law explains the movement of a jet: third law
this law explains the size motor required to turn a deepwell turbine pump: second law
whenever one body exerts a force upon a second body the second body exerts an equal and opposite force upon the first.: third law
a body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless an unbalanced force acts on it: first law
acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the force exerted on the body, is inversely proportional to the mass of the body and is in the same direction as the force: second law
define friction: the resistance that opposes every effort to slide or roll one body over another
define mechanical advantage: the ratio of the resistance to the effort
how many classes of levers are there?: 3
how much effort would be required to lift 50lbs with a 5 rope pulley system?: 12.5 lbs dont count the rope in your hand.
why cant you get the full mechanical advantage the threads of a screw offer?: because there is too much friction between the screw and the object its going into
what formula is used to determine power?: work/time=power
is a drill bit a driver or driven machine?: driven
name the four methods of transmitting power: direct, belt, gear, and fluid
what is pascals principle: pressure applied to a confined liquid is transmitted equally and undiminished in all directions throughout the vessel regardless of the shape or size of the vessel
explain how temperature affects the pressure, weight, and viscosity of a liquid: temperature increases the movement of the molecules
why do fluid molecules flow and take the shape of any container they are poured into?: because fluid molecules have a weak attraction to themselves
what are the classes of fluids? and what is the major difference between them?: liquids and gasses, liquids are less compressible than gasses.
what is static pressure?: the pressure created by a liquid over a given area
how do you find the static pressure exerted on the bottom of a tank?: multiply the depth by .433 and multiply the results with the liquid's specific gravity
explain the hydrostatic paradox: the force exerted on the bottom of a vessel can be greater than the weight of all the liquid in the vessel
what is the law of buoyance?: a body immersed in a liquid is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it
what is the term used for liquids that separate when they settle?: immicible
what is the name of the clear cut line between two immicible liquids?: interface
what is the term for liquid flowing in a streamlined manner?: laminar flow
what is the rate of speed a liquid is flowing?: velocity of flow
what is the term for liquid particles tending to tumble and jostle each other?: turbulent flow
what is the term for the amount of liquid that passes a given point in a unit of time?: volume of flow
what is used to flush pipelines?: turbulent flow
what is rated by the average flow across the cross section of a pipe?: velocity of flow
what can be determined by multiplying the area of a pipe by the velocity in feet per second?: volume of flow
what is the term for particles of liquid following one another and moving alongside each other?: laminar flow
what is measured in gallons per minute?: volume of flow
what is measured in feet per second?: velocity of flow
name the five physical factors that can act on a liquid to affect its behavior?: gravity, atmospheric pressure, specific applied forces, inertia and friction
which physical factors are the static factors?: gravity, atmospheric pressure, and specific applied forces
which physical factors are the dynamic factors?: inertia and friction
explain bernoulli's principle: as the velocity of a moving fluid increases its kinetic energy increases. consequently, the pressure it exerts must correspondingly decrease.
pressure losses through valves are normally given for valves in what position?: wide open
what causes hydraulic shock?: suddenly stopping or reducing flow
during hydraulic shock waves, what happens to the intensity of each successive pressure wave and accompanying time interval?: the amplitude (pressure) decreases while the time interval of successive waves remains constant
which would create more shock, a system with a velocity of 7 fps slowed suddenly to 4 fps or a system with a velocity of 3 fps stopped quickly?: neither the same pressure is produced
which unbalanced forces close an automatic valve that has been opened by force pushed against its diaphragm?: gravity and spring tension
which law is used to help determine the size pump required to move liquid?: second law
how is mechanical advantage determined?: ma= resistance/effort
what would the mechanical advantage be if you used a block and tackle with seven supporting ropes counting the rope you use to pull on?: 6 to 1
what determines the ease with which a screw can be turned?: the depth of pitch.
what does a direct drive pump generally use to absorb vibration?: flexible coupling
what is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?: liquids are less compressible than gasses
what is the lifting force of a liquid called?: bouyance
what measurement would indicate volume of flow?: barrels per hour
which of the following physical factors affect the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?: gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces
what happens to fuel's kinetic energy and the pressure it will exert when it passes through a venturi?: energy increases and pressure decreases
a complete cycle of pressure waves and reversals of flow during hydraulic shock occupies the time required for: 2 round trips
what determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water hammer wave?: the amount of extinguished velocity
centimeter: .01
deci: .1
kilo: 1000
milli: .001
how large a pipe can a hand tube bender bend?: up to 3/4" diameter
when cutting copper tubing with a hacksaw what type of blade should you use?: a wave set blade with 24 teeth per inch
why is the tubing cutter prefered over the hacksaw?: to keep from getting chips inside the tubing
to produce a leakproof flare joint the tubing should be free of what?: burrs
name the 3 methods of bending tubing: hand, spring, and lever
what are metric wrenches sized in?: milimeters
what are metric hammers sized in?: grams
how are nonadjustable wrenches sized?: by the distance between the parallel flats of the nut
what type of punch is used to mark a point in metal?: center punch
what type of chisel is most commonly used for cutting sheet metal?: flat chisel
a hacksaw's adjustable frame will accomodate what size blades?: 8-16 inches in length
to produce a correct size flare how far should you insert the tubing into the flaring block?: equal to the depth of the bevel in the flare block
what is the minimum radius that tubing may be bent?: 5 times the diameter of the tubing
define commercial publication: a publication produced for profit by non governmental agencies.
what is the main reason some commercial pubs. needed by the airforce are not included in the T.O. system?: Economics
what month does DESC send out a data call?: October
Who is the data call sent to?: all CINCs, Majcoms, and service energy offices
when is projec documentation due to DESC for the following program year?: February 1
this form is used to control all blocking and tagging done on primary electrical circuits: AF Form 269
This form must never be used for other than the protection of personnel: AF Form 979
This form indicates abnormal operating conditions on lines or equipment: AF Form 980
what do voltmeters check?: potential difference between two points
what is an ammeter used to check?: current flow
what does a clamp on meter measure?: volts and amps
define matter: any substance that has weight and takes up space
what cannot be broken down into a simpler substance using ordinary chemical means?: elements
define molecule: the smallest part of a substance that has all the characteristics of that substance.
what makes up the elements that form molecules?: atoms
what charge do protons carry?: positive
what charge do electrons carry?: negative
what charge do neutrons carry?: neutral
define electrical current: electrons moving through a conductor
how many watts are in one horse power?: 746
what is the rate of doing work?: power
what are the symbols for power?: w or p
what is the unit in which electrical motors are rated?: horse power
what unit are generators and regulators rated?: watts
what is the symbol for resistance?: R
when 1 volt of pressure pushes 1 ampere of current flow through an electrical path then 1 ohm of resistance is present.: ohm's law
what is the symbol for voltage?: E
what changes heat energy into electrical energy?: thermocouple
what changes mechanical energy into electrical energy?: generators
6.26x10 to the 18 power electrical charges are known as what?: coulomb
one coulomb passing a given point per second is known as what?: an ampere
the symbol for current used in equations is what?: I
what is the symbol for quantity of amperes: A or a
what is the unit of measure for electrical pressure?: volt
what are the forces that cause electrons to move from atom to atom?: voltage or EMF (electromotive force)
what is the uniform movement of free electrons in a specific direction?: current flow
what is the induced magnetism that remains in a magnetic substance after you remove the magnetic field?: residual magnetism
what is a material usually iron that has the ability to become magnetized?: magnetic material
when do magnetic lines of force cross eachother?: never
which of the blueprint drawings shows the layout of all the walls?: floor plan
what does the block diagram usually explain?: power distrobution systems
what are the four basic types of electrical diagrams?: block, wiring, connection, and schematic
what are the three diagrams that show physical relationship of parts or components?: block wiring and connection
which blueprint drawings shows the layout of all the walls?: floor plan
wiring diagrams often use pictures to show components. what is often presented along with these components?: a parts list
what type of diagram makes it easy to trace the electrical operation?: schematic diagram
what does the reading on a volt meter indicate?: electrical pressure
when using the multimeter as an AC voltmeter, how must you connect it?: in parallel with the circuit
what is the easiest and simplest meter to use for measuring current flow in a circuit?: a clamp on meter
what is the smallest current that can be fatal under certian conditions?: 1/10th of 1 amp
what is used to move a sufficient number of electrons to perform a useful job?: voltage
1 horsepower equals how many watts?: 746
what is a magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source?: an electro magnet
what are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?: magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion
what type drawing shows a cross-sectional view of equipment?: detail
what type diagram is a simple drawing showing the relationship of system major parts?: block
what type diagram makes use of diagram symbols instead of pictures to show components?: connection
what is the relationship of the current to the voltage and resistance in a DC circuit according to Ohm's law?: current= voltage/resistance
the symbol for current is what?: I
the symbol for resistance is what?: R
the symbol for voltage is what?: E
what is used to supply the DC voltage in a 3 phase alternator?: an exciter
how many degrees are the poles set apart for three phase operation of an alternator?: 120 degrees
whats the difference between a primary and secondary cell?: a primary cell cant be recharged but a secondary can
what solution is used for the electrolyte in a lead acid battery?: sulfuric acid and water solution
how is the measurement of apparent power of an AC electrical system expressed: Kilovolt-amperes
what unit of measurement is used when calculating the inductance of a coil?: Henry
how many micro farads are in 1 farad?: 1,000,000
what does kirchhoff's voltage law state?: the algebraic sum of the voltages around a closed loop must equal zero
what is the open- circuit voltage of a lead-acid storage battery?: 2.2
what type of generator has brushes riding on the commutator to carry the current to an external circuit?: DC type
what are the 3 main parts of any dc motor?: armature, frame, and end bells
what is the primary function of the end bells?: to keep the armature in position
what determines the polarity of an electromagnet?: the direction of the current flow through the winding.
name the 3 types of DC motors: series, shunt, compound
which DC motor should not be operated without a load?: series
which DC motor is used when high torque is required and rapid fluctuations of torque occur?: Series
what DC motor should you use when constant speed is desired and high starting torque is not needed?: shunt
which DC motor should you use when high starting torque is required with good speed control?: compound
what are the 2 types of AC motor?: induction and synchronous
what are the basic parts of a three phase induction motor?: stator, rotor, end bells
other than housing the stator windings, what function does a stator serve?: provide an attachment point for the supply voltage
name the parts of a squirrel cage rotor: laminated iron core, rotator bars, end rings, shaft
which type of rotor has sliprings for variable speed control?: the wound rotor
when is the use of a wound rotor desirable?: for variable speed control and low starting current
what functions do the endbells perform on a motor?: house the bearings, support and align the rotor and shaft, and complete the frame of the motor
on what does the rotation of a 3 phase motor depend?: a rotating magnetic field
what factors determine motor speed?: frequency and number of poles
if frequency increases in a three phase induction motor what happens to motor speed?: it increases
what is the difference in speed between the rotor and rotating magnetic field called?: slip
what is the normal slip for an induction motor?: 2-5% of synchronous speed
what percentage of slip causes the rotor to stall or lock in an induction motor?: 25%
what are the 2 types of internal connections for a three phase motor?: wye, and delta
how many leads does a single voltage three phase motor require?: 3
how many leads does a dual voltage three phase motor require?: 9
how are the windings of a three phase dual voltage motor weather wye or delta, connected for high voltage?: in series
which leads of a three phase wye motor connect to the power source leades when connected for low voltage?: 1-7, 2-3, and 3-9
to which leads are the 480 volt 3 phase power source connected?: 1, 2, and 3
list the two windings found in a split phase motor: run, and start
what is the purpose of the centrifugal switch in a split phase motor?: to deenergize the start windings after the rotor reaches a preset RPM
how are the contacts of the centrifugal switch connected in relation to the start winding?: in series with the start winding
how is the addition of a capacitor in the start winding of a capacitor start motor beneficial?: it increases starting torque
which percentage of full speed opens the centrifugal switch in a capacitor start motor?: 75% of full speed
which type of AC motor uses a capacitor in series in the start winding but no centrifugal switch?: permanent split capacitor motors
in which devices are shaded pole motors used?: small fans, timers, and various light load control devices
what is the use of a shaded pole in a shaded pole motor?: it is used in place of a start winding
list the three kinds of repulsion type commutator motors: simple repulsion, repulsion start induction run rotor, and repulsion induction
what are the operating characteristics of a simple repulsion motor?: high starting torque and low starting current draw.
which type of repulsion motors would provide power to conveyors small compressors and woodworking equipment?: simple repulsion motors
what purpose do the compensating windings in a repulsion start induction run motor serve?: to improve the power factor during the starting peroid.
why does a repulsion induction motor start as a repulsion motor?: because at low speeds very little current flows in the squirrel cage windings.
what causes a repulsion induction motor to operate as an induction motor?: the increased current flow in the squirrel cage windings when the motor reaches operating speed
what type of motor can operate on either AC or DC power?: a universal motor
what factor determines the operating speed of a universal motor?: the load low speeds when there is a heavy load and high speeds when there is a light load
how many external leads are necessary for a single voltage non reversible type AC motor?: 2
to connect a dual voltage motor for high voltage the run winding must be connected how?: in series
how must the start winding be connected to the windings?: in parallel
what leads are reversed to change the rotation of a single phase reversible induction motor?: leads 5 and 8
list the two types of across the line AC motor controls: Manual or magnetic
what is a manual motor control device?: a device mechanically operated to control a motor from a single point.
how do you solve for current resistance or voltage given 2 of the other 3?: use ohms law circle e(for voltage) over i (for current) next to r (for resistance)
how are the overload devices connected in a three phase manual controller?: in series with each of the main contacts
what does the controller have that reacts to excess motor current?: an overload device
the three line terminals of a three phase controller are labeled in what manner?: L1, L2, L3
what is the purpose of the drum control?: to change the rotation of the motor
what is the purpose of reduced voltage starters?: to reduce the high starting current draw and starting torque of motors
what type of reduced voltage starter uses taps?: the auto transformer
what type of starter uses a motor that has externam motor connections?: star delta
when are reversing starters used?: when there is a need to change the rotation of single phase and 3 phase motors
what should you do to change rotation on a 3 phase motor?: change any two power leads
how many contactors are used with the reversing starters?: two
what should you check first if you have a problem with the reversing starter?: check for power
what two meters do you use if you have a problem with the reversing starter?: the voltmeter and the ohmmeter
what are the two main parts of an across the line magnetic starter?: the contactor and the overload relay
what part of the contactor attracts the armature?: the operating coil
what is the purpose of the shaded ring on the stationary core of the armature?: to prevent contact chatter
list the two basic types of overload relays: thermal and magnetic
what are the two types of thermal overload relays?: bimetallic or melting alloy
how can you find the full load current rating of a motor?: look at the motor data plate
list the two electrical circuits of the across the line magnetic starter.: the load circuit and the control circuit
what set of contacts keeps the holding coil energized after the start button has been released?: auxiliary contacts
how many overload relays must be installed on a three phase magnetic starter?: 3
list four automatic devices that control magnetic starters: float switches, pressure switches, thermostats, and cells
what is the function of the control circuit in a magnetic starter?: its the portion of the starter that starts, stops, controls, and protects the motor.
in a DC motor how are coil ends from the armature windings attached to a commutator (riser)?: they are soldered
in what way does a DC shunt motor have the field coils and armature connected?: in parallel
what part of a three phase motor is connected to the supply voltage?: the stator
the magnetic field of a three phase motor rotor is caused by what?: current flow in the rotor.
the internal windings of all three phase motors are: either wye or delta connected
which motor requires some starting means?: single phase AC motor
what is the squirrel cage winding placed beneath in repulsion induction motors?: the wound rotor section
what should you connect, and how, to operate a single phase dual voltage motor on high voltage: run windings in series
how many basic types of across the line motor controls are there?: two
the device used in most magnetic across the line motor controllers to reduce chatter is: shaded rings
what are the methods used to open the contacts ona an across the line magnetic controller?: spring tension and gravity
a temperature sensitive device to operate a magnetic across the line starter automatically is a what?: thermostat
to be sure of trouble free operation list seven factors you should consider when selecting a motor: physical location, ambient temperature, duty, bearings, voltage, mechanical connection to load, and motor data plate.
what type of motor enclosure is designed to prevent liquids or solids from entering it, except at indirect angles?: splash proof
what is the most commonly found ambient temperature rise of a motor?: 40 degrees celcius or 104 degrees farenheight
what type of bearings would you find on an electric motor mounted in a vertical position?: ball or roller bearings
list 6 items found on the data plate of an electric motor: manufacturers name, rated HP, rated volts, time rating, code letter, and design letter.
a type 3 motor controller is used in what type of location?: outdoors
list 5 problems that may cause trouble in motors: an overload, low or high voltage, frozen or worn motor bearings, failure of motor windings, failure of motor controls
what instrument should you use to determine whether a motor is overloaded?: an ammeter
how can you sometimes repair openings in rotors caused by overheating?: use a soldering gun to restore the circuit
how can you determine whether the drive of the machine is at fault?: disconnect the motor from its load and rotate the rotor shaft of the motor by hand to determine whether rotation is free.
how can you remove excessive endplay in bearings?: add fiber spacer washers
what are the 3 common malfunctions of electrical circuits?: open, grounded, and shorted circuits
where may an open circuit exist in a three phase motor?: at any point between the power source and the rotor
why is it sometimes necessary to disconnect the motor from the starter in a three phase motor?: to determine whether a ground exists in the motor or on the conduit
when must you check the motor windings for grounds?: when the ground does not exist in the conduit from the stator to the motor.
how can you locate shorted circuits?: check across conductors with the power off
what would indicate a short circuit between the main disconnect and the start?: continuity across any two conductors
what would indicate a shorted stator in a wye wound motor?: continuity between any combinations of lead numbers other than those that form a winding
how does an open circuit affect a single phase motor with a squirrel cage rotor?: the motor slows down under load; it will have low starting torque and signs of overheating
what are the two types of fuses?: plug and cartridge
what are the two types of protective devices for electrical circuits?: fuses and circuit breakers
what is the most important fuse characteristic?: blowing ability
which tool should you use to replace fuses?: fuse puller
what are the three types of circuit breakers?: therma, magnetic, and thermal magnetic
what should be your first check on a motor that seems to be overheating?: check for ventilation
the endplay of a motor should not exceed what distance?: 1/64th of an inch
an indication of an open rotor in a squirrel cage motor is what?: the motor slowing down under load
a motor that operates slowly may have what kind of problem?: a deficient voltage supply
a hexagon window on a plug fuse indicates that the amperage rating is between what values?: .5-15 amps
what is the first step to replace a fuse?: de-energize the circuit
during a RURK repair team members cannot be in the work area if the LEL is above what percent?: 1 percent
what is the maximum tow speed for the RURK trailer on paved surfaces?: 45 mph
what is the maximum tow speed for the RURK trailer on dirt or gravel roads?: 25 mph
what additional support equipment and personnel may be needed for the RURK?: a tow vehicle, a backhoe or excavator, a large capacity pump, an eod team, and a fire truck team
at what interval must all shelf life items be inspected and replaced if past disposal date?: every 5 years
how many types of RURK repairs are there?: 5
what are the 5 types of RURK repairs?: in crater, bypass, valve pit, end cap, and puncture.
how long will it take to complete an in crater repair of a 6 inch pipeline?: 45 minutes
what are the main components of the RURK?: an open bed trailer, collapsible fabric tank, air compressor, four consolidation containers, and a variable number of supplemental containers
what are the repair capabilities of the RURK?: one in crater repair, 3 bypass repairs, and 1 fourway valve pit repair for 4, 6, and 8 inch pipe
what items critical for support of the RURK are not included in the kit?: a fire extinguisher, a tow vehicle, and an excavator or backhoe
what is used to complete the pipe cut if the pneumatic hacksaw fails?: a bow saw
who initially approaches and circles the crater on foot with the automatic gas alarm?: the team chief
where is the compressor placed in relation to the crater?: 50 feet from and upwind of the crater
what is the closest the mast floodlights can be placed to the crater?: the height of the floodlights from the edge of the crater
what is the minimum amount of pipe to be exposed in a RURK repair?: 3 feet
where should the vaneaxial fan be positioned for a RURK repair?: on the downwind side of the crater
how many members are on the RURK crater repair team?: 3
where should the automatic gas alarm sampling hose be placed?: at the lowest point in the crater
what is the minimum distance between pipe cuts for two hard wall hose repair?: 15 feet
what is the closest you may stand to an initial RURK repair pressure test?: 50 feet
what may be placed on the bypass pit hose assembly to reduce the load on the coupling?: a 90 degree elbow
on which side of the crater should the first cut be made?: on the pipe end closest to the crater.
if fuel cannot be removed by other means, what equipment is used?: tapping and fuel suction equipment
what is the exception to in crater or bypass repairs that allows valve pit repairs?: one or more butterfly valves are installed.
what are end cap repairs used for?: to cap off a ruptured pipe.
what is the largest diameter hole that can be repaired in an 8 inch pipe?: less than 4 inches
what size of hole can be repaired with a RURK puncture repair kit?: the hole's diameter has to be smaller than half the diameter of the pipe.
what is the most serious hazard associated with the CFRS?: jet fuel vapors and mists
at what oxygen level are supplied air respirators required?: below 19.5%
what is the power source for the PFTU?: a diesel engine
what does PFTU stand for?: Portable Fuel Transfer Unit
what does FSU stand for?: Fuel Scavenging Unit
at what fuel temperature will the two stage temperature switch shut down the diesel engine?: 180 degrees
what does CFRS stand for?: Contingency Fuel Recovery System
where is the deadman switch connected?: to the low pressure output section of the system pressure control refueling valve.
how many bonding reels are contained on the PFTU?: 3
how many emergency stop switches are on the PFTU?: two
where are the emergency stop switches located on the PFTU?: at the rear of the cart and on the front of the cart.
what two automatic valves are located on the PFTU?: the pump pressure(bypass) relief valve and the system pressure control refueling valve.
what are the supply and return pressures of the FSU hydraulic pump?: supply 2250 psi and return 1200 psi
what is the maximum fill pressure from a R9/11?: 20 psi.
how long should you idle the PFTU to allow warmup?: 2 minutes
what RPM should you warm the PFTU up at?: 1000rpm
how long should you idle the FSU to allow warm-up?: 2 minutes
at what RPM should you idle the FSU for warm up?: 1800 RPM
where should the fire extinguisher be placed during CFRS set up?: near the access/ egress route
where should the PFTU be placed during CFRS set up?: 50 feet from the fuel source and upwind.
where should the FSU be placed during CFRS set up?: at least 50 feet from the pumping site and no more than 140 feet and upwind of the pumping site.
Step number one of the FSU and PFTU operations requires that you locate the FSU emergency stop button where?: near the PFTU
in FSU and PFTU operations when is fuel flow initally established throughout the system?: when the dead man switch is activated.
How are the PFTU and FSU shutdown in an emergency?: by pressing their respective emergency shut down buttons.
what engine component must be disconnected and isolated during F/S element changeout?: the alternator
how many ft-lbs should the separator hex nuts be tightened in a PFTU filter/ separator element removal and installation?: 10 ft-lbs
during PFTU filter/ separator element removal and installation how many ft-lbs should the cealescer hex nuts be tightened?: 10 ft-lbs
what can most diesel engine troubles be traced to?: lack of fuel, fuel contamination, lack of energy in the battery to operate the starter motor, loss of electrical circuits, lack of air support combustion, or problems in the lubrication circuit.
what should be consulted before making adjustments, replacements, or repairs?: Manufacturers instructions
After initial break-in how often must engine oil be changed in a PFTU diesel engine?: 250 hours
what is the first component to check when experiencing starting problems with a PFTU Diesel engine?: the battery.
in what sizes are the collapsible fabric fuel bladder tanks available?: 3,000 5,000 10,000 20,000 and 50,000 gallon tanks
how should the dike capacity compare to the bladder capacity?: 1 and a half times the capacity of the bladder.
how much clearance must be maintained between the bladder and dike wall?: 2 feet
what are the three ares to consider in fuels distribution for a bare base?: distances and location of facilities; types of facilities and general layout; and coordination of the schedule of deliveries
what is the maximum allowable distance from the dikes to the aircraft's fuel receiving adapter?: 250 feet
how far should jerry cans and other flammable storage containers be stored from open flames or ignition sources?: 50 feet
what are the three types of fuel facilities used on any base?: Bulk storage, operating storage, and dispensing facilities.
what is the capacity of the r22 pump?: 900 GPM
what is the maximum flow rate through the FFU-15E with JP-8?: 600 gpm
what is the maximum flow rate of diesel fuel through the FFU-15E?: 450 GPM
what is the maximum flow rate of gasoline through the FFU-15E?: 750 GPM
what is the FFU-15E?: the Filter Separator for liquid fuels
what is the R-22?: a trailer mounted 600/900 GPM pump
How many R-14s does each ATHRS contain?: 3
What are the GPM and pressure capacities of the R-14?: 600 GPM and 50 PSI
what is the size of the aluminum IPDS pipe?: 6 inches by 19 feet
how much time is required to assemble the improved hinged coupling?: less than 50 seconds per joint
what are the main factors to consider when estimating rate of construction of a military pipeline?: terrain, obstacles, weather, tactical situation, and location of the construction staging areas and construction access road.
what is the first step in constructing the pipeline?: stake the pipeline route
how often must expansion loops be installed in a pipeline?: every 1,000 feet
what is the maximum deflection on aluminum pipe?: less than 2%
how long will it take three pol rurk team members to repair an incrater 6" pipeline?: 45 minutes
what items critical for support of the pol RURK are not included in the kit?: fire extinguisher, tow vehicle, and backhoe
what can you use to complete the pipe cut if the pneumatic hacksaw fails?: bow saw
who should initially approach and circle the crater on foot with the automatic gas alarm?: the team chief
when you do an incrater repair what is the minimum amount of undamaged and visibly round pipe you should expose on each side of the damaged pipe section?: 3 feet
how many members are on the incrater repair team?: 3
what is the minimum distance between pipe cuts for the type of repair that requires two hardwall hoses?: 15 feet
what can you place on the bypass pit hose assembly to reduce the load on the coupling?: a 90 degree elbow
when making a bypass repair on which side of the crater should you make the first cut?: on the pipe end closest to the crater.
if residual fuel cannot be drained by other means what equipment can you use to drain it?: tapping and fuel suction equipment
what is the most serious hazard associated with the contingency fuel recovery system?: jet fuel vapors and mists
at what fuel temperature will the two stage temperature switch shut down the portable fuel transfer unit diesel engine?: 180 degrees F
how many emergency stop switches are on the portable fuel transfer unit?: 2
how long should you idle the portable fuel transfer unit to allow warm up?: 2 minutes
how long should you idle the fuel scavenging unit to allow warm up?: 2 minutes
what is the minimum distance the portable fuel transfer unit should be placed from the fuel source?: 50 feet
what is the maximum distance that the fuel scavenging unit should be placed from the pumping site?: 140 feet
fuel flow is initally established throughout the fuel scavenging unit system when what is done?: the dead man switch is activated
how are the portable fuel transfer unit and fuel scavenging unit shut down in an emergency?: by activating their respective emergency buttons
when you install the portable fuel transfer unit separator how many foot pounds should you tighten the separator hex nuts?: 10 ft-lbs
when you install the portable fuel transfer unit separator how many footpounds should you tighten the coalescer hex nuts?: 10 ft-lbs
what is the first component you should check when the portable fuel transfer unit engine is hard to start?: the battery
how should the dike capacity compare to the bladder capacity? the dike capacity should be...: 1 and a half times the bladder capacity
what must be the maximum distance from the dikes to the aircraft's fuel receiving adapter?: 250 feet
what is the minimum distance jerry cans and other flammable storage containers should be stored from open flames or ignition sources?: 50 feet
what is the capacity of the R-22 pump?: 900 GPM
how many R-14 fuel servicing modules does each air transportable hydrant refueling system contain?: 3
what is the size of the army's inland petroleum distribution system aluminum pipe?: 6 inch by 19 feet
how often must expansion loops be installed in aluminum pipeline?: at least every 1000 feet of pipeline
how much deflection does the hinged pipeline coupling allow for between joints?: 2 percent
how many personnel is one harvest eagle distribution system designed to support?: 550 personnel
how many subsystems make up the harvest eagle distribution kit?: 3
what are the subsystems that make up the harvest eagle distribution kit?: raw water, waste water, and potable water
what color code is used to denote components used in the wastewater disposal system?: a yellow stripe
what color code is used to identify a potable water subsystem in the harvest eagle?: a white stripe
what color code is used to identify a raw water subsystem in the harvest eagle?: a green stripe
what is the main purpose of the raw water subsystem?: to deliver water to a storage tank near the ROWPU
how many gallons per minute can the raw water pump produce in the harvest eagle?: 125 gpm
how many raw water pumps are included in the raw water subsystem?: 2
what is the purpose of the potable water subsystem in the harvest eagle?: to transfer treated water from the ROWPU to its point of use
what is the purpose of the backpressure regulators?: to maintain at least 20 psi of pressure in the loop at all times; they allow system water to exit back into the 10k water bladders when system pressure exceeds limits.
what is the purpose of the hypochlorinator?: to feed a cl2 solution to water before it goes to the end user.
what is the purpose of the waste water disposal subsystem in the harvest eagle?: to keep the camp sanitary
how many people and aircraft can the harvest falcon beddown and support?: 55000 people and 750 aircraft
how many evaporation beds are required for waste disposal in the harvest falcon?: 7
how much brine water is produced if the ROWPU produces 500 gallons of potable water?: 1000 gallons
how much brine water is produced if the ROWPU produces 100 gph of potable water?: 200 gallons
how does the ROWPU purify water?: first removes large suspended particles from the water through a multimedia filter, the remaining suspended particles are removed in a cartridge filter, the water is then pumped at high pressure to reverse osmosis membranes the membranes allow 1/3 of the water to pass through them. this water is purified
how many days can 50,000 gallons of water generally support 550 people?: 5 days
what types of materials/ hazards are contained in a pipe color coded yellow?: flammable materials
what types of materials/hazards are contained in a pipe color coded gray?: physically hazardous materials
how can a leak ate a threaded joint be repaired?: cut out sections of the piping so the joints can be properly tightened
how would you replace a leaking plastic fitting?: cut the pipe going to each connection of the fitting and remove it from the system to install a new fitting glue a short piece of pipe into each end of the new fitting this piece of pipe replaces the section that was cut out when you removed the leaking fitting check to see whether or not the pipe and fittings will fit into the opening if assembly fits then glue it into the system using couplings and test for leaks
where is the fuel can located on a preway heater?: on a holding stand next to the heater.
what does the combustion chamber consist of?: a metal drum surrounded by a preforated metal guard and is mounted on a metal base.
how is combustion air drawn into the drum?: through an opening in the bottom
how is a preway heater leveled?: by placing a level across the top grille from front to rear and side to side. adjust the leveler bolts on the bottom of legs until heater is level.
how is the control valve leveled?: place a small level across the top of the valve from front to rear and from side to side. bend the valve bracket until the valve is level both ways.
where is the draft regulator located?: on the first length of smoke stack
what is the final step in installing a tent heater?: attach a rain cap to the top of smokestack with screws and bolts and anchor it with guy ropes.
how is a preway tent heater primed?: by moving the siphon assembly up and down rapidly 4 to 6 strokes. the strokes should be 4 to 6 inches long.
how is the preway heater lighted?: press the reset lever of the fuel control valve down and turn the control knob to high fire open door and observe if the oil has entered reset control knob to first mark position crumple a small piece of paper light it and drop it into the burner bottom the saturated kindler will light.
how is the heat output increased in a preway tent heater?: by turning the control knob of the constant level fuel control valve counterclockwise.
how much time should you wait between turning the knob to increase the heat output on a preway heater?: 10 minutes after each turn of the knob
in what adverse conditions might you have to operate a tent heater?: extreme cold, high wind, dusty or sandy areas, rainy or humid conditions, salt water areas, and high altitudes
name the daily service required on a preway heater: operate and adjust shut off knobs to see that they turn properly, inspect fuel container and fuel lines for leaks, inspect stack to make sure all connections are tight, also check for split seams or rust on stacks, fill fuel container with clean fuel oil.
what maintence do you do to a fuel control valve on a preway heater?: examine fuel strainer for foreign material brush inside and out with a soft brush, rinse the strainer in clean fuel oil
what maintenance do you do for the smokestack flue and the draft regulator?: inspect the smokestack connections for tight joints and proper installation check to see that the draft regulator moves freely and is not binding
what does a soot deposit in burner in a preway heater mean?: there is too much oil at high fire setting
what does insufficient heat in a preway heater mean?: burner fuel line raised out of position
what does a fluctuating flame in a preway heater mean?: there is water in the oil
what does oil or flue gas odor coming from a preway heater mean?: there is a fuel leakage
what does it mean when the flame in a preway heater dies out?: the fuel can is empty or the burner fuel line is raised out of position
what does it mean when you have a smoky flame in your preway heater?: the burner rings are warped
state the three draft faults and what effect they have on a burner: high, low, and downdrafts. they result in decreased efficiency and soot and carbon in the burner and combustion chamber.
state how you would test for a downdraft in a preway heater.: hold a lighted match at a narrow opening between the regulator vane and rim if the flame is blown out there is a down draft
what is the total water storage of a harvest eagle water distribution system?: 50,000
what is the most expansive subsystem of the harvest eagle water distribution system?: the potable water system
the backpressure regulators of the harvest eagle water distribution are designed to keep a minimum system pressure of what?: 20 psi in the loop
how many evaporation beds are used in a field kitchen waste disposal system?: seven
a pipe carrying steam is safety color coded what color?: gray
a pipe carrying liquid oxygen is safety color coded what color?: green
how do you repair a leaking plastic pipe joint in a waste system?: replace the fitting
which type of tent heater uses a siphon to start the fuel flowing from the fuel can to the control valve?: preway
which burner is used in a preway tent heater?: vaporizing pot burner
what is the minimum height above the highest point of the tent you install the smokestack on the preway tent heater?: 18 inches
how many strokes are required to prime a preway heater?: 4 to 6
when lighting a preway heater you first press the reset lever of the fuel control valve down and turn the control knob to what position?: High fire
you increase the heat output on a preway heater by turning the control knob what direction?: counterclockwise
you clean the siphon assembly on a preway heater by flushing it with what?: clean fuel oil
which of the following conditions could cause a fluctuating flame in a preway heater?: water in the oil
which of the following conditions could be the cause of high draft in a preway heater?: additional lengths of stove pipe or high winds
what is AFOSH 91-25?: confined spaces
what is OSHA 29 CFR 1910.146?: permit-required confined spaces
what is the characteristic of a permit required confined space?: immediately dangerous to life or health, potential for or has contained a hazardous atmosphere
what is the oxygen range for a permit required confined space?: less than 19.5% or greater than 23.5%
what is the toxicity classification of a non permit required confined space?: an atmosphere concentration of any chemical substance regardless of OEL that is not capable of causing death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self rescue, injury or accute illness due to its health affects.
list the members of the confined space program team.: base safety, fire department, bio, and the functional manager and commander of their designated representatives.
what functions must the Confined space program team (CSPT) perform?: the CSPT must develop a master entry plan when requested to do so by the functional manager or commander; develop and provide a train the trainer program for entry supervisors; determine atmospheric monitoring requirements evaluate and approve MEPs; review the installation confined space program at least annually; establish procedures with the contracting office to review all new construction projects to identify, record, and classify confined spaces; permit the use of AF Form 1024, Confined Spaces Entry Permit; and periodically monitor permit required space entry operations.
who must make sure equipment is procured to support entry into confined spaces?: the commander or functional manager
who leads the CSPT?: the cheif of ground safety
when it comes to confined spaces what is the fire chief responsible for?: to provide rescue support for confined space entries according to local agreements; review and approve non routine entry permits that are not contained in an organizaltion MEP; evaluate confined spaces for flammable, explosive, or oxygen enriched atmospheres when permitting entries that are not covered by an MEP; and be a member of the CSPT.
who must provide local training on the use, calibration, and care of the atmosphere testing and monitoring equipment?: the bioenvironmental engineer.
who determines when acceptable conditions are present at a confined space where entry is planned?: entry/onsite supervisor
who is responsible for coordinating assistance from base safety, fire department, and bio?: the entry/onsite supervisor
who must be the last person to sign the entry permit after all conditions are met?: the entry/onsite supervisor
what are the requirements of the workers entering a confined space?: workers entering confined spaces must fully understand all procedures, safeguards, and emergency egress and/or rescue procedures associated with the entry; follow all safe work procedures required by supervisory personnel and SEG, CEF, and BE personnel; notify the entry supervisor when hazards exist that have not been corrected; and notify the entry supervisor if they are ill or on medication of any type.
what is meant by entering a confined space?: any action by which a person passes through an opening into a permit required confined space.
what AF form is used to authorize entry into a confined space?: AF form 1024 confined spaces entry permit
how long must entry permits be retained and who is required to maintain it?: 1 year by the organization responsible for the entry.
what is the master entry plan (MEP)?: it is a part of the overall written confined space, serves as approval for recurring entries having the same conditions and entry requirements when signed by representatives of SEG, CEF, and BE.
who may reclassify a permit required confined space to a non permit required confined space at the time of entry if testing done before entry shows the space to be free of all hazards?: the entry supervisor
how is a non permit required confined space defined?: not considered hazardous and there is no reason to suppose they will become hazardous
what is an example of a non permit required confined space?: lateral fuel pits less than 5 feet deep; dikes less than 6 feet in height around a fuel storage tank.
who is responsible for ensuring that PPE is provided, used, and maintained?: the supervisor
who is responsible for complying with PPE requirements?: airforce personnel
why cant helmets be painted?: the paint may hide cracks or defects in the outer shell and destroy or degrade the insulating characteristics
what clothing material produces the least static electricity?: 50% cotton and 50% polyester
over what height should fall protection be used?: 6feet
what is the maximum distance that a lanyard should allow a worker to fall?: 6 feet
what must the tie off capacity be for each worker tying off?: 5,000 lbs
how often must fall arrest systems be inspected?: before each use, entire systems annually
how many members of the rescue team must have CPR training?: all members
what are the primary means of rescue?: self rescue, centrally located rescue team (fire department) and organizational rescue team
who is normally the centrally located rescue team?: the base fire department
how are confined spaces classified?: by oxygen content, flammability, and toxicity
who is not a member of the confined space program team?: the entry supervisor
who must maintain all confined space records?: ground safety
who is responsible for evaluating confined spaces for flammable, explosive, or oxygen enriched atmospheres when permitting entries that are not covered by a master entry plan?: the fire chief
using the master entry plan as a guide, who may authorize entry into the confined space by his or her signature on the entry permit?: the entry supervisor
who may reclassify a permit required confined space to a non permit confined space, at the time of entry, if testing shows the space to be free of all hazards?: the entry supervisor
as a minimum how often must a non permit required confined space be reviewed to make sure conditions have not changed enough to create a potential for hazards and a need for a change in classification?: annually
in the confined space entry program who is responsible for making sure employees use ppe?: the supervisor
in the confined space entry program, who develops a structured and effective training program to establish safe work practices and techniques?: the supervisor
in the confined space entry program who is the approval authority for the color of protective helmets?: ground safety
in the confined space entry program, whom should you contact with questions concerning the hearing protection program?: Bioenvironmental engineering
in the confined space entry program, at what height is fall protection required?: over 6 feet
in the confined space entry program, how often must fall arrest equipment be inspected?: before each use
who among the confined space rescue team must be familiar with toxic effect or symptoms of exposure to anticipated hazardous materials?: all entrants
who normally provides rescue service for operations requiring entry into permit required confined spaces?: CE base fire department
how often must organizational rescue team members receive hands on rescue training after initial training?: annually
what determines the quantity and the different types of fuels that are stored at a particular base?: the mission of the installation
who determines the size of fuel tanks and how many will be located at each base?: the defence energy support center (DESC)
normally, what type storage tank is used for storing 25,000 gallons of MOGAS?: horizontal underground storage tanks
what are all fuel storage tanks with a capacity of more than 10,000 gallons made of?: welded steel
name the components of a cone roof tank: sumps, inlet and outlet lines, vents, liquid level gauges, tank drain and water drain off lines, and gauge hatches
on newly installed tanks, what type valve will be used on the inlet and outlet lines?: double block and bleed plug valve
what type aboveground tank must be used to store fuel with a flash point under 100 degree F: the all weather tanks
where does the product withdrawal line terminate inside a cone roof with floating pan tank?: in a vertical position 6 inches above the sump
what is the purpose of the 3 inch stripping line tee in a cone roof tank?: to pump the tank down below the product withdrawal line termination level.
what size is the water draw off line and where does it terminate inside the tank?: it is a 3/4 inch line and terminates 1/2 inch from the bottom of the sump
why does the tank fill line enter the tank and cause the fuel to rotate counterclockwise in the northern hemisphere?: because of the coriolis force, which as a result of the earths rotation, deflects moving objects to the right in the northern hemisphere by doing so it helps to clean the sediment from the tank.
what is the purpose of the high high level alarm?: incase the high level shutoff fails
what happens when the low level shutoff is activated?: the low level shutoff will sound an audible alarm, illuminate a light in the control room, and will open the circuit to the refueling pump motors when the fuel in the tank reaches low level.
what is the main purpose of the pan on a cone roof with floating pan tank?: to eliminate the vapor space above the fuel
name the two types of floating roof tanks: double check or a pontoon roof
explain how the pontoon floating roof is designed: the pontoon floating roof has an annular (ring shaped) pontoon around the outer edge of the roof deck however the deck is only of single thickness at its center. the pontoon is sectioned into compartments with bulkheads
what is the purpose of the liquidometer installed on an underground fuel tank?: the liquidometer indicates the amount of liquid in the tank in either gallons or one quarter tank increments ranging from empty to full
what is the purpose of the wire screen placed across the inlet to the first stage of a deepwell turbine pump?: it prevents solid particles of sludge from entering the pump and damaging the pump
explain how the diffuser type pump bowls make sure of even distribution of fuel through the pump column: when fuel is thrown outward from the impeller into the pump bowl, the fuel is forced through a series of fixed guide vanes mounted in each stage. the diffuser action forces fuel through guide vanes before it enters the next stage. the design of the diffuser guides the fuel through the guide vanes and makes sure of uniform fuel flow from one stage to the next
name the two types of low level controls on underground tanks: the mercury tube switch and cam actuated microswitch
what two valves are used as highlevel shutoffs on an underground tank?: the 124AF and the 129AF (cla valve)
what is the size of the cleanout line on an underground tank and where does it terminate outside the tank?: 3/4 inch; 12 inches above ground level
how often is a bulk storage tank inspected if it has a receiving filter separator within one mile or is internally coated?: every six years
how often is a standard bulk storage tank inspected?: every 4 years
how often is a bulkstorage tank with a receiving filter separator within one mile and internally coated?: every 8 years
how often is a bulk storage tank inspected that receive fuel directly from barges or tankers?: the frequencies change from 4,6 and 8 years to 3, 5, and 8 years respectively
what must be inspected on an above ground tank monthly?: the exterior of the tank for leaks, corrosion, and condition of markings
explain what could happen if an above ground tank goes out of round: the roof may hang up and then suddenly drop as the fuel level lowers. there is danger from fire here as the result of increased vapor space and the possibility of sparks from the metal sliding on metal
explain how to use a plumb bob to inspect an above ground tank for settling: attach a plumb bob to a cord long enough to reach from the top of the tank to ground level. extend the cord out from the roof of the tank and lower the plumb bob. holding the cord steady at a set distance from teh edge of the roof measure the exact distance between the cord and the edge of the tank shell. let a second person at ground level measure the distance between the cord and tank shell at the base.
what publication tells you how to mark a jp-8 fuel tank for identification?: military handbook 161G
what type valve is used as a dike drain valve?: a lock type gate valve on the exterior of the dike.
how do you adjust a pipeline pressure relief valve?: first determine what the system deadhead pressure is for that line. You find this by checking the pressure gauges. turn the adjusting screw on the pressure relief valve clockwise to increase the pressure setting and counterclockwise to decrease it. After making the adjustment and replacing the cap, be sure to safety wire and seal the cap
how is the amount of pressure or vacuum it takes to lift the pressure/vacuum vent pallets determined?: by the weight of circular brass discs that are placed over the stem of each pallet.
list the components requiring inspection on the floating roof of the floating roof tank: roof supports, tank vents, manhole covers, roof drain system, and fabric roof seal.
name the two positions of the roof supports and differentiate between them: up and down. The down position is used for internal inspections and cleaning of the tank; this position is approximately 6 feet above the floor of the tank. The normal position is up allowing the roof to stop at approximately 3 feet from the floor of the tank when empty.
why are two people needed to raise and lower the roof support?: it takes one person to position the support and another person to insert the guide pin.
to assure ease of operation, what should you do for the roof support legs and guide pins of a floating roof tank?: coat them lightly with grease
during freezing weather, what should you watch the trim vent closely for to keep this from happening to it during inspection of a floating roof tank?: keep it from freezing and being frozen closed
before you can repair joints of the roof drain line on a floating roof tank, what must you do?: drain the tank and make it vapor free
what are the things you must do after you have repaired a roof drain on a floating roof tank?: check it for leaks by connecting a water hose to the drain valve and filling the drain line; then install a plug in the roof drain sump and allow pressure to build up
during freezing weather, what must you do to protect the fabric seal on a floating roof tank?: keep it free of ice.
the major command must be notified a minimum of how many workdays before the proposed entry date for a tank cleaning project?: 15 work days
who is responsible for removing fuel from the tank to the lowest point possible through existing connections for a tank cleaning project?: the base fuels managment office
list the precleaning responsibilities fulfilled by the tank cleaning supervisor for tank cleaning projects by contract.: to act as quality assurance evaluator in all technical matters pertaining to tank work and to inspect the contractors equipment
list the precleaning requirements fulfilled by the tank cleaning supervisor for tank cleaning projects to be done in house.: overall supervising of all activities, notification of the major command of the proposed starting date and to obtain permission to do the work, inspecting all equipment to be used, requesting assistance from ground safety and fire department as deemed necessary, and notifying the base fuels management office and the bioenvironmental engineer.
what is used to determine the vapor concentration in a given area?: combustable gas and vapor indicator
which fuels contain benzene?: all fuels
what is the maximum safe airborne concentration of benzene to which personnel may be exposed?: the maximum 8 hour, time weighted average airborne concentration of benzene to which personnel may be exposed is 1.0 parts per million.
what reading must you have on the vapor indicator to make initial entry?: if the vapor indicator registers 20 percent or less of the LEL, initial entry may be made
during tank cleaning, how often must vapor reading be taken?: every 15 minutes
how is the mask set cleaned at the end of the day after cleaning a tank?: wash all parts of mask sets with warm water and soap; swab face piece and breathing hose with an aqueous hypochlorite or iodine disinfectant solution; and thoroughly dry all items to prevent deterioration. the drying should be done by natural ventilation
wpecify the type of electrical equipment and conductors that can be used within 50 feet of fuel pipes of storage tanks, according to the National Electrical Code.: they must be class 1 division 1 group D with maximum temperature ratings of "T2D" -419 degrees F
what must all gasoline driven equipment used in a tank cleaning operation be equipped with?: a flame arrester and a protected ignition system.
whose approval is required on lights used during tank cleaning and what type must they be?: explosion proff, portable, battery powered lights approved by Bureau of Mines or NIOSH are the only lights authorized for use inside the tank
what type respirator is used for tank entry and what condition is it approved for?: type C respirator; immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) areas
who must approve the length of air hose if it exceeds the NIOSH approval?: the bioenvironmental Engineer or a designated representitave.
while inspecting the safety harness, you notice that the metal date tag on the back of the harness is missing. Should the harness be used?: no
what is the service life of life lines?: 5 years from the date of first use.
what parts per million will vapors produce a stage of excitement?: 500 PPM
what should you do before entering a fuel pit?: take a vapor/oxygen reading
explain where a sniffer may be recharged: in a non hazardous area
what is the minimum voltage the battery voltage should display on a gas sniffer?: 5.2 volts
what base personnel provide health and safety surveillance of tank cleaning operations?: the civil engineer, medical service, ground safety, and fire protection personnel.
what are the principal things to be concerned about in vapor freeing a tank?: removing the fuel sludge and disposing of displaced vapor in a way that minimizes the possibility of any hazardous condition in the tank and in the surrounding areas.
during initial cleaning, at what vapor reading must you temporarily suspend washing down the tank?: 50 percent LEL or higher.
after sludge has been removed, what part of the tank should be scraped to remove rust and scale?: the bottom of the tank and 3 feet up the sides.
how is the remaining portion of the tank cleaned after cleaning the bottom?: the remainder of the tank sides and all metal supports and braces will be washed down with a high pressure water hose until the water flowing or pumped out of the tank is clean.
how close can an electrical storm be before all tank cleaning operations must stop?: 5 miles
who will direct the disposal of sludge?: the BCE environmental coordinator
discontinuance of a fuel system can present many problems. List them.: Rust, dirt, dust, water, heat, freezing, and fire hazards.
what must be stenciled on a deactivated leaded MOGAS tank?: WARNING: This tank previously contained leaded gasoline and is not safe for storage of any material destined for human or animal consumption. DO NOT ENTER THIS TANK WITHOUT THE PRIOR APPROVAL OF THE MAJOR COMMAND.
when deactivating a floating roof tank, where would you store the drain line?: inside the tank
what size lumber would you use to prevent damage to a floating roof?: 4 inch by 4 inch
when you are going to discontinue use of a separator, what do you do?: clean and coat them with light oil
who determines how many fuel tanks are required at each base?: the defence energy support center
what size water drawoff line is installed on a cone roof tank, and what is it piped to?: 3/4 inch, into a 55 gallon product recovery system
what size pipe is used as the gauge well on a cone roof tank with floating pan?: 8 inches
how and where does the product withdrawal line terminate insida a cone roof tank with floating pan?: in a vertical position 6 inches above the top of the sump.
what is the slope of the stripping line inside an all weather tank, and where does it terminate?: 6 inches per 10 feet ; and terminates 4 inches from the sump bottom
what size is the water draw off line in an all weather tank, and where does it terminate?: 3/4 inch, 1/2 inch from the sump bottom.
at what level does the high level alarm actuate on a cone roof with floating pan?: just before the high level shut off level.
how many vents are installed on an all weather tank?: 3
the wind girder is installed on floating roof tanks to do what?: to prevent the collapse of the tank shell.
the roof guide is installed on floating roof tanks to do what?: to keep the roof from rotating.
the double deck floating roof tank is the most efficient type of roof because the roof does what?: has insulating air space between decks.
how is the deck on a pontoon floating roof tank constructed?: the outer edge is double thickness and the center is single thickness.
what underground tank component prevents overfilling?: high level shutoff valve.
at what level in an underground fuel tank is the low level shut off set to deenergize the fueling pump?: 13 inches
the 129 AF ball float is set to close the main valve when fuel in the underground tank reaches what level?: 11 inches from the top of the tank
what size is the cleanout line on an underground tank, and where does it terminate?: 3/4 inch, 12 inches above ground level.
what component closes the refueling side of the 302AF fueling and defueling valve when there is excess flow at the hydrant outlet?: the CDHS-3
what indicates leakage past the diaphragm on the pressure relief control?: fuel leakage from the vent port.
how often must you clean a bulk storage tank that has a receiving filter separator within one mile of its location and is internally coated?: at least every 8 years
how often must you clean an internally coated bulk storage tank that receives fuel directly from a barge?: at least every 5 years
how often must you clean an operating tank that is not internally coated and does not have a receiving filter separator?: at least every 3 years
when must an internally coated diesel fuel tank be cleaned?: by direction of the fuels managment office
at what point is uneven settling first considered dangerous for a floating roof tank?: 3 inches
what is installed on a floating roof tank to help prevent out of roundness?: a wind girder
when should operating storage tanks with a receiving filter separator within one mile OR internally coated be inspected?: at least every 5 years
when should an operating storage tank with a receiving filter separator within one mile and internally coated be inspected?: at least every 8 years.
how is the product identification displayed on an aboveground tank?: yellow bands with white letters on a black background.
how many bands are used to identify JP-8 fuel?: 3 narrow bands
how many bands are used to identify aviation gasolines?: 1 narrow band
how many bands are used to identify automotive gasolines?: two narrow bands
how many bands are used to identify distillates like diesel fuel regulator?: four narrow bands
how many bands are used to identify heavy fuel (BLACK) oils?: 5 narrow bands.
a pressure relief valve installed around the inlet block valve of a floating roof tank is adjusted to open at what pressure?: 10% above system deadhead pressure.
what is the inspection frequency for a thermal pressure relief valve?: annually
during freezing weather, what is the inspection frequency of pressure vacuum vents?: daily
what prevents fuel from entering a roof drain line?: flange gaskets and asbestos ring packing.
in extremely cold climates, what should you do to the roof drain line?: fill it with antifreeze
when you are inspecting the fabric seal on floating roof tanks, what would indicate a warped sealing ring?: a gap between the metallic sealing ring and tank shell of 10 to 15 feet long
who will assign a qualified tank entry supervisor to supervise a tank cleaning operation?: the MAJCOM fuels engineer.
who is responsible for removing fuel from the tank to the lowest point possible through existing connections?: the fuels managment office
who must qualify a contractor for cleaning an Air Force tank?: the liquid fuels maintenance foreman
to qualify for an Air Force tank cleaning contract, a contractor must provide proof of having completed similar work on how many previous projects?: at least 3
who is responsible for inspecting a contractor's equipment before cleaning an Air Force fuel tank?: the LFM tank entry supervisor
which fuels normally contain a higher concentration of benzene?: Gasoline.
people entering a fuel tank must wear what type of respirator?: Type C
all electrical equipment to be used within 50 feet of any fuel system must be defined as what class in the National Electrical Code?: Class 1 Division 1 group D
what type boot should you wear when entering a tank with 7 inches of fuel still in the tank?: 3/4 length
during tank cleaning, when should you remove heavily contaminated clothing?: immediately, but leave the area first
a safety harness used in tank cleaning, is good for a maximum of how many years from the date stamped on the metal tag located on the back of the harness?: 10 years
lifelines used in tank cleaning have a service life of how many years after their first use?: 5 years
positive mechanical ventilation should be provided for below grade pits that are how deep?: 7 feet
how much time from low battery alarm until the Bacharach 514 sniffer shuts down?: 2 minutes
what is the minimum voltage desired for the Bacharach 514 sniffer?: 5.2 volts
if you suspect an unknown gas, which setting on the Bacharach 514 sniffer should you select?: jp-5
during tank cleaning, whare must an air compressor be positioned?: just outside the dike
artificial lights, other than battery powered safety lanterns, can be used only during tank cleaning after what condition is met?: the tank is vapor free.
who directs the disposal of the fuel water sludge mixture contained in drums during tank cleaning?: the BCE environmental coordinator.
During tank cleaning how often must you record vapor readings?: 15 minute intervals
what type respirator must be used for inert tank entry?: Type C
what is the preferred method of abandoning a 50,000 gallon tank?: removal
what must be done to fuel pumps and motors located in a pit if they are to be abandoned?: remove them and store in a dry place.
why is the gate valve designed so that, when it is fully open, the gate moves completely out of the pipeline?: makes it possible to send line scrapers through long runs of pipeline with out interfierence.
what are the two basic designs of a gate valve?: rising stem and non rising stem
which type of gate valve should you use in confined areas, such as pits?: non rising stem
normally, how should you close a gate valve? why?: slowly; to prevent hydraulic shock
how many seats are set into the body of a gate valve?: 2
what component of a gate valve is tightened to compress the packing around the stem?: a packing gland nut
explain the limited inspection of a gate valve.: operate the valve periodically. check for leaks adjust the packing gland if needed, lubricate the gear housing, and inspect for visible external damage.
explain the troubles encountered with gate valves and how to repair the problems.: failure to seat, sticking, and stem leakage. foreign matter can be removed by disassembling the valve; seat can be lapped to remove scratches; and stem can be repacked to stop the leak.
explain the proper method of opening and closing a gate valve.: turn handle to maximum travel, then back off a little.
why are manual globe valves used only in small pipelines rather than primary pipelines?: because they have a high flow resistance
list the components of a globe valve: body, disc, stem, wheel, packing, and packing nut.
in which direction should flow be directed through a globe valve? why?: flow of fuel will come under the valve seat and disc. This allows repacking under pressure.
in which position should a globe valve be when you replace the packing?: closed
how do you stop internal leakage of a globe valve?: by lapping the disc to the seat.
explain the purpose of the grease in a lubricated plug valve.: to seal and lift the plug slightly, making it easier to operate.
list the components of the lubricating system in a plug valve.: lubrication fitting, check valve, lubricant grooves, and lubricant chamber
list the components that are used to prevent leakage between the cover and body of a plug valve.: sealing diaphragm and gasket, metal packing ring, resilient packing, and adjustment gland.
explain how to free a stuck lubricated plug valve.: use penetrating oil to dissolve and free the hardened lubricant.
what type of plug valve will be used downstream from a filter/ separator?: non lubricated
what are the four classifications of nonlubricated plug valves?: lift, double block & bleed, movable seat, and resilient liner.
which type of nonlubricated plug valve uses seating segments instead of a solid seat?: the movable seat plug valve
what prevents leakage past the hub on a resilient liner, nonlubricated plug valve?: the diaphragm seal
what action can be taken to make sure that nonlubricated plug valves will last longer and function with less trouble?: regular operation
if tightening the packing gland will not stop a leak on a nonlubricated plug valve, what would be the next course of action?: remove and replace the packing
ball valves are a suitable substitute for which type of manual valve?: the nonlubricated plug valve.
list the components of a ball valve: valve, valve stem, stop plate, ball, packing, compression ring, bonnet cap stem packing cup, and packing adjustment screw.
ball valves that are 10 inches or larger must have what type bearings?: trunnion-type support.
what inspections are made on ball valves?: ease of operation, and leaks
what maintenance may be required on ball valves?: replacement of packing, gaskets, seals, and ball
what are the two designs of check valves?: flapper check (swing type) or lift check.
what standard requires that the check valve seat and disc be removable?: american petroleum institute standard 6D
what is the primary purpose of check valves in the fuel system?: to control the direction of the fuel flow by trapping fuel in a line or in parts of a system and by preventing reverse flow.
which manual valve can be installed in small places between two flanges?: the butterfly valve
what position must the butterfly valve be in before you can remove it from the system?: closed
who or what must be notified before removing any fuel system component?: the fuel control center (FCC)
when you remove threaded valves, how many pipe wrenches should you have? Why?: at least two one to turn the valve and one to hold the pipe.
what must you install in the place of a valve you have removed?: blind flanges, caps, or plugs
where can you look to determine how many valves you will need to close to isolate the system?: look at the as built drawings
how much fuel is in a 50-foot section of 16-inch schedule 80 pipe?: 459 gallons
why should you leave one bolt installed on the bottom of each flange of a manual valve when removing the valve from the pipeline?: if the pipeline has sprung apart, these two bolts will act as a hinge and allow you to remove the valve more safely.
how should you bleed the air from a pipeline if the pipeline goes through a filter separator?: remove a pressure gauge and use its isolation valve to bleed the air.
how many basic designs of gate valves are there?: 2
how often do you inspect a gate valve for leaks?: as required
during repacking, a gate valve should be placed in what position?: closed
for large gate valves, what type of packing is best?: teflon
what type of manual valve can be used to control the rate of product flow?: globe valves
the manual valve that can be repacked while the line is under pressure is which kind of manual valve?: globe
what type packing is used around the valve stems of globe valves?: teflon string
how often do you operationally inspect a lubricated plug valve?: every 3 months/ quarterly
what type valve does not have to be removed from the pipeline during hydrostatic testing?: the double block and bleed plug valve.
what prevents leakage past the hub of the resilient liner plug valve?: a diaphragm seal
how often do nonlubricated plug valves have to be inspected for ease of operation and leaks?: as required
a 12 inch nonlubricated plug valve will have what type of operator?: a worm gear operator
a plug valve that is 6 inches or smaller but not smaller than two inches will have what type of operator?: wrench type
a plug valve that is smaller than two inches will have what type of operator?: a lever type handle.
what position must a general twin seal plug valve be in so that you can remove the valve operator?: closed
which of the following manual valves is a suitable substitute for a nonlubricated plug valve?: a ball valve
what type valve used in fuel systems must be fire tested and qualified in accordance with the requirements of API standard 607 and operate from fully closed to fully open with a 90 degree rotation of the ball?: ball valves
how often do ball valves have to be inspected for ease of operation and leaks?: as required
to conform to API standard 6D the seat and disc of which valve must be removable without removing the valve from the pipeline?: check valves
what type of valve requires the least amount of space?: the butterfly valve
what type of valve must be fully closed before you can remove it from the pipeline?: butterfly valve
whom must you notify before you work on a fuel system that could interfere with the base flying mission?: resource control center
what specialized equipment must you have to ensure system integrity when removing a valve from the system?: blind flanges
where would you find out which valves have to be isolated before removing a manual valve from a pipeline?: as built drawings
how much fuel is in a 22 foot section of 6 inch pipe?: 33 gallons
when removing a manual valve from a pipeline, which bolts on the valve should you loosen first to drain the fuel into a drip pan?: the bottom bolts
when reinstalling a manual valve, which bolts should you insert first?: the bottom bolts
the system configuration that would not require you to manually bleed air out of the pipeline after a valve is replaced involves pumping how?: if the line goes directly into a storage tank.
explain the difference between the the internal and external gear pumps: the external gear pump moves the fuel between the pump housing and the gears, while the internal gear pump moves the fuel between the gears.
what inspections are made on gear pumps?: check for unusual noise or vibration during operation, leaks, and overheating of the pump motor.
what is the greatest cause of trouble in a gear pump?: corrosion of the gears
what is used to lubricate and cool gear pumps?: the liquid being pumped.
what are the three rated capacities of the blackmer rotary vane pump?: 250 gpm at 640 rpm, 200 gpm at 520 rpm, and 100 gpm at 260 rpm.
how is fuel moved by the rotary vane pump?: fuel entering the pump is moved by the vanes and is then compressed or forced out the discharge.
what inspections are made on the rotary vane pump?: leaks, security, alignment, and lubrication of pump bearings.
how are the bearings in a rotary vane pump lubricated?: by hand pressure gun until grease starts to escape from the grease relief.
what is used to remove the seals and bearings from a blackmer rotary vane pump?: a screw driver
how is fuel moved by a centrifugal pump?: by vanes that create centrifugal force to move the fuel
name two different types of centrifugal pumps: simple, and self priming
what type of pump is used for a priming pump?: vane type pump
what inspections are required for centrifugal pumps?: leaks, unusual noises, and vibrations.
what type of seal is used on a gilbarco pump?: mechanical seal
how is air removed from the suction line of a self priming gilbarco pump?: by the vane type pump that discharges the air to an air elminator or above the pumps discharge check valve.
what type of deep well turbine pump can have a flanged column?: peerless
what is the difference between a motor listed as vss and a motor listed as vhs?: vss means vertical solid shaft, and vhs means vertical hollow shaft
how are closed impellers adjusted on fairbanks morse deep well turbine pumps?: the adjusting screw is turned until the impellers are as high as they can move and then backed off one full turn.
after the impellers are free on the johnston deepwell turbine pump, how much further should the adjusting nut be turned for proper adjustment?: one fourth of a turn
what inspections can be made on deep well turbine pumps?: unusual noise and vibration, motor overheating, and leaks.
specify the type of mechanical seals that require proper adjustment by using a locating spacer.: johnston JD
specify the type of mechanical seal that requires four allen screws that must be tightened to secure the seal lock ring.: john crane 9
specify the type of mechanical seal that requires the proper adjustment be made by using a gauge.: dura seals, johnston, john crane.
specify the type of mechanical seal that requires the collar setscrews be loosened before lowering the shaft.: johnston JD.
if the seats on a mechanical seal are scratched while being installed what must be done to correct the problem?: replace the whole mechanical seal.
while you are adjusting the mechanical seal, setting gauges must be inserted into what part of the seal?: insert into the top groove of the adjusting sleeve.
in order to protect the adjusting sleeve o ring when replacing mechanical seals what should you do?: cover the threads of the pump shaft with tape.
after you install a new seal, it starts to leak slightly and then leakage gradually decreases. what does this indicate?: this is a good sign that the sealing surfaces will seal themselves as the pump continues to run
explain the operation of the 81 AF nonsurge check valve.: fuel pressure under the main valve diaphragm forces the fuel off the top of the diaphragm at a preset rate determined by the check valve flow control's opening the valve slowly. when fuel starts to flow in reverse in the line it passes through the check valves and closes the main valve.
explain how to adjust the check valve flow control: the CV flow control is adjusted by removing the cap, loosening the lock nut, then turning the adjusting screw clockwise to increase the opening time of the valve, or counterclockwise to decrease the opening time.
list the probable causes for an 81 AF-8 nonsurge check valve that fails to open.: flow control clogged, diaphragm failure, a closed manual valve downstream.
list the probable causes for an 81 AF-8 nonsurge check valve that pulsates.: there is air in the main valve chamber.
list the probable causes for an 81 AF-8 nonsurge check valve that has no control of opening rate.: flow control is stuck open, hytrol check diaphragm is ruptured, or hytrol check is installed backwards.
explain how the 81 AF-8 nonsurge check valve operates.: fuel flow enters the hytrol check from the right and applies pressure under the diaphragm. this raises the seat off the disc and allows full flow through the control. when reverse flow occurs, fuel flows through the drilled passage to the cover chamber. this applies pressure on top of the diaphragm, closing the hytrol check, preventing reverse flow through the control. the opening time of the 81 AF-8 is also controlled by the CV flow control. fuel being pushed off the main valve passes between the needle valve and disc.
explain what would happen to the 81AF-8 if the hytrol checks were installed backward: you would have no control of the opening rate of the 81AF-8, or the main valve would not prevent reverse flow.
what is the main difference between the internal gear pump and the external gear pump?: where the fuel flows.
what type of pump has a built in pressure control valve?: the rotary vane type
what type of lubricant is used and how is it applied to the blackmer pump ball bearings?: lithium based grease; with a hand pressure gun.
what is used to remove the seals and bearings from the head of a rotary vane type pump?: a screwdriver.
to adjust a rotary vane pump pressure relief control, you turn it in what direction, with what effect?: counterclockwise to decrease delivery pressure
if a centrifugal pump develops 600 gpm at 350 feet of head, how much psi is developed at 600 gpm when pumping jp-8?: 123 psi
what type of impeller in the centrifugal pump is the most efficient and develops the highest pressure?: closed
at what rate will a gilbarco self priming pump remove air?: 18 gallons per minute
what should you do if the centrifugal pump binds after you have replaced parts in the self priming pump portion of a gilbarco pump?: add a paper thin gasket
what type pump is the API 610 pump?: single stage centrifugal, radial split case, with end suction and top discharge.
what is the maximum tolerance allowed when aligning an API 610 pump shaft and motor shaft?: 0.002 inches
how often is an API 610 pump operationally inspected?: quarterly
the number of column shaft sections a deep well turbine will have is determined by the what?: the distance between the pump tank flange and the tank floor.
when adjusting impeller clearances in a deep well turbine pump, what type of impeller is raised all of the way up and then backed off one full turn?: closed impeller
you are replacing a mechanical seal on a deep well turbine with threaded couplings. you turn the couplings in which direction to disconnect it? with what do you cover the shaft threads to protect the mechanical o ring?: clockwise; tape
what action should you take if you notice a slight leak on a mechanical seal you have just installed?: allow reasonable time for the seals to adjust.
the components of the 81 AF, nonsurge check valve, are one check valve flow control, a variable position indicator, and what else?: two swing check valves.
to speed up the opening time of an 81 AF, nonsurge check valve, you must turn the check valve flow control adjusting screw which way?: clockwise to increase.
what would cause the 81 AF, nonsurge check valve to open too rapidly or have no control of the opening rate?: a swing check valve disc stuck off its seat
when reverse flow occurs to an 81AF-8, nonsurge check valve, how does fuel get to the cover chamber of the hytrol check valve?: through a drilled passage.
what is the standard opening rate for the 81AF-8, nonsurge check valve?: 20 seconds
what would cause the 81AF-8, nonsurge check valve, to fail to open?: a closed downstream manual valve.
how does fuel pass through the filter cartridges on a horizontal filter/ separator unit?: from the inside to the outside
what happens to the water that is removed from the fuel in a horizontal filter/separator unit?: it is discharged by the water drain valve.
which component will aid you in determining the level of water in a vertical filter/separator?: the sight gauge
where does the water collect in a vertical filter/separator?: on top of the baffle plate.
what occurs when the float reaches the middle position on a vertical filter/separator?: the water drain valve opens and discharges the water.
what happens when the float reaches the top position on a vertical filter/separator?: the fuel discharge valve closes.
what material is the API 1581 filter/separator made of?: aluminum or carbon steel, and it is internally coated with epoxy.
what is the size of the API 1581 inlet and outlet lines?: 6 inch normal pipe size.
what type differential pressure gauge is installed on an API 1581 filter/separator?: a direct reading piston type that measures the differential pressure across both the coalescers and separators.
what is the minimum capacity of the API 1581 coalescers and separators?: 2.27 gpm per inch of length, and the separators 8.33 gpm per inch of length.
what is the purpose of the spider plate in an API 1581 filter/separator?: to hold the coalescers and separators in position and support them firmly against vibration.
what are the 3 major components of the water drain system in a filter separator?: the pilot valve (flange float control) assembly, water drain valve, and auxiliary hytrol control valve.
how are the three major components connected to each other in a filter/separator water drain system?: by control tubing.
what component protects the inlet supply tubing of a filter/separator water drain system?: a strainer
how many distinct positions are there of the float that operates the rotary disc in the pilot valve assembly of the water drain system in a filter/separator? what happens at each position?: 3 lowest- water drain valve closed, fuel discharge valve open; Center-WDV open, FDV open; TOP-WDV open, FDV closed.
what is the 40AF-2A?: a fuel discharge valve.
what component of the 40AF-2A creates a differential pressure?: the orifice plate
what component of the 40AF-2A opens when pressure is applied under the diaphragm, closing the fuel discharge valve?: the powertrol.
what component of the 40AF-2A controls the flow of fuel through the control tubing?: the CDHS-2
what component of the 40AF-2A closes when pressure is applied to the top of the diaphragm, closing the fuel discharge valve?: the auxiliary hytrol
what component of the 40AF-2A creates a low pressure area at its suction port allowing pressure under the diaphragm to open the main valve.: the ejector.
what component of the 40AF-2A insures clean fuel through the control tubing?: the flow clean strainer.
what component of the 40AF-2A shows the position of the main valve disc assembly?: the valve position indicator.
what component of the 40AF-2A restricts flow through the control tubing, causing the main valve to modulate?: the CDHS-2
what component of the 40AF-2A when aligned to drain, opens and allows fuel to flow through the control tubing?: the auxiliary hytrol.
what component of the 40AF-2A when open, applies full pump pressure to the top of the main valve diaphragm?: the powertrol.
what component found on the 40AF-2C fuel discharge valve is different from that on the 40AF-2A? what components did it replace?: the three-way hytrol 1/8 inch orifice; it replaces the ejector, powertrol valve, and auxiliary hytrol.
list the inspections required for filter/separators.: inspect for damage or missing parts, improper or loose connections, high differential pressure, and evidence of corrosion or leakage.
what maintence may be required when the 40AF-2A fuel discharge valve fails to open?: remove water from the filter/separator, replace main valve diaphragm, hytrol diaphragm, or powertrol diaphragm, and free the stuck open powertrol.
what maintenance may be required when the 40AF-2C fuel discharge valve fails to open?: remove water from the filter/separator, replace the main valve diaphragm, and replace the three-way hytrol diaphragm.
what maintence may be required when the water drain valve fails to open on a filter separator?: replace the main valve diaphragm.
the pressure relief valve installed on a filter/separator is set at what pressure?: 10% above system dead head pressure.
after changing elements in the filter/separator, whom must you notify? why?: base fuels managment office. to have the quality control personnel flush and sample the filter separator.
after changing the filter/separator, what information must you record on the filter/separator vessel?: the next change date (month and year) and the maximum allowable differential pressure.
what is the probable cause if the 40AF-2A fuel discharge valve fails to open?: water in the filter/separator sump, a defective diaphragm in the main valve or hytrol, or by the powertrol being stuck open.
what is the probable cause if the water drain valve fails to open on a 40AF-2A?: the diaphragm is defective.
what is the probable cause if the fuel discharge valve fails to maintain the proper rate of flow on a filter separator?: a defective CDHS-2 diaphragm, clogged sensing lines, or an out of adjustment condition on the differential control.
list 3 types of strainers: the Y, cylindrical, and basket.
how is the basic strainer constructed?: rugged basic frame, a heavy and rather coarse wire mesh, and then a fine screen.
what inspections are required on strainers?: for rust, corrosion, leaks, and damage or contamination by microorganisms.
how are strainers cleaned?: by air pressure or a stream of water from a hose against the normal direction of flow; or in some cases, a high flash point solvent may be required.
the newest filter/separator modification requires how many cartridges total for a 600 gpm filter/separator?: 30
in a horizontal filter/separator, what will change positions and to what valve will pressure be directed when the float of the pilot valve assembly is in the top position?: rotary disc; fuel discharge valve.
what is the purpose of the liquid level gauge on a vertical filter/separator?: to determine the water level.
when the float in a vertical filter/separator raises to the top position, what happens?: the fuel discharge valve closes
how are the coalescers and separators mounted in an API 1581 filter/separator?: coalescers at the bottom and separators at the top.
coalescers in an API 1581 filter/separator are rated for what minimum gpm per inch of length?: 2.27
the hub of the water drain system in a filter/separator is the what?: the pilot valve assembly.
when the float of a filter/separator is in its lowest position, supply pressure is directed to what component? will that component be open or closed?: the water drain valve; closed
when the water drain valve is removed from the filter/separator, where is the control tubing that once went to the water drain cover chamber rerouted to?: downstream of the fuel discharge valve
which component on the 40AF-2A, fuel discharge valve, will stop all flow of fuel in the control tubing when there is excess water in the filter/separator?: the auxiliary hytrol.
if a fuel system has a maximum operating pressure of 125 psi, at what psi should the filter/separator pressure relief be set?: 137.5 multiply the pressure by 10%.
when removing the KMU-416/f modification kit with nine additional elements, how many elements must you remove from the front side to balance the manifold?: six
when gravity-filling a horizontal filter/separator from another horizontal filter/separator, how many minutes must you wait for the two filter/separators to equalize?: 10 minutes.
what information must be recorded on a filter/separator after the elements are changed?: the next change date and the maximum allowable differential pressure.
if the 40AF-2A, fuel discharge valve, fails to open, what should you check first?: the main valve diaphragm.
the new CFF21 flange control differs from the old pilot valve assembly in that it has what?: it has a float that floats on fuel
if required, what mesh strainer is used upstream of pumps?: a 7 mesh
what is the normal flow of fuel through a strainer?: from the center to the outside.
how is major maintenance performed on a meter?: by contract with the manufacturer.
what maintenance processes will you be doing on a meter?: minor repairs like replacing gaskets, seals, packing glands; calibrating the meter, and occasionally, replacing meter registers or gear drives.
how do you calibrate a meter?: change the gear train ratio.
how are meters damaged?: by air & dirt back pressure on one way flow meters.
List the major components of the A.O. Smith Meter.: rotor, ball bearings, vanes, body, and register
list inspections required on the A.O Smith meter.: visual inspection of meter assembly.
what maintenance is performed on the A.O. Smith meter?: removal of dirt, replacement of gaskets, and calibration of meters.
what is the value of the coarse and fine adjustments on the A.O. Smith meter?: coarse, 138.8 cubic inches per 100 gallons; fine, 11.5 cubic inches per 100 gallons.
if the master meter reading is more than the meter you are calibrating on an A.O. Smith meter, in which direction must you move the calibrating levers?: outward
on what principle does the liquid control meter operate?: the positive displacement principle.
what inspections are made on a liquid control meter?: inspect visually for leaks and calibration.
how is the liquid control meter calibrated?: by using a master meter and making the necessary adjustment to the micrometer.
list the major components of the brodie meter.: two meshed spiral rotors, calibration mechanism, body, gaskets, and register.
list visual inspections made on the Brodie meter.: visual inspection for condition, leaks, and calibration.
what routine maintenance is performed on the Brodie meter?: replacement of worn parts and gaskets and calibration.
describe the calibration process of the Brodie meter.: dispence 1,000 gallons of fuel through the meter and the master meter. If the reading is less than the amount of fuel dispensed and beyond the allowable limit, the levers are moved outward.
How many hoses does the master meter have? and breifly explain their use.: 2 hoses one is used to connect to truck bottom loading connections or to defuel stubs. the other has an over the wing nozzle.
what is used to isolate the hose you are not going to use on a master meter?: a flow control valve.
how can you insure only 600 gallons will flow through the master meter?: set the automatic stop at 600 gallons.
what is the purpose of using the installed thermometer and a taped thermometer on the pipeline when using a master meter?: to ensure the fuel through both meters is the same temperature; if not, you must convert to 60 degrees F.
how often must a master meter be calibrated?: every 6 months or 1,200,000 gallons
what is the most critical component of a liquid level gauge?: the float
how is accumulated moisture in the gauge head of a liquid level gauge corrected?: change the dehydrating agent in the gauge.
what is one liquid level gauge adjustment you can make easily?: adjusting the float.
how do you determine the accurate amount of liquid in the tank?: by manually stick gauging the tank.
at what predetermined level should the low level control switch shut the pump off?: 13 inches from the bottom of the tank
what are the different types of gauges found in the fuel system?: high pressure, low pressure or differential pressure, and pressure vacuum gauges.
how are pressure gauges tested?: by use of a deadweight or hydraulic gauge tester.
what does PMEL stand for?: precision measurement equipment laboratory.
how will you know what gauges are required to be sent into PMEL?: from a listing sent out by PMEL monthly
what maintenance is required on gauges?: cleaning gauge glass, removing moisture, calibration, and leak check.
meters must be within what percent of total flow displaced to meet AF standerds?: 0.2%
what is the most probable cause for a meter to overregister?: air in the line.
how often at a minimum must meters be calibrated?: yearly
how is the register of a meter changed to match the actual fuel dispensed through the meter?: change the gear train ratio
how much will each notch of the A.O. Smith coarse adjustment lever change the calibration?: 138.8 cubic inches per 100 gallons.
the liquid control meter uses what type of movement to register the fuel?: blocking rotor and two displacement rotors.
if you changed the brodie coarse adjustment one position, what change would be made to the register reading?: 6 gallons per 1000 gallons
if a brodie meter reads 603 gallons on a 600 gallon run, what adjustments must be made?: push the coarse knob in one groove, and pull the fine knob out two grooves.
how many hoses does a master meter have and where are they connected?: two hoses; outlet side.
if the temperature readings of the master meter and the meter you are calibrating are not the same what should both readings be converted to?: 60 degrees F.
how often is the master meter calibrated?: every 6 months or 1,200,000 gallons
which of the following is correct if the automatic gauge reads 10 feet 2 inches and the tape and bob shows 10 feet 3 1/2 inches?: underreading; lengthen the cable 1 1/2 inches.
at what level in an underground tank does the low level control usually shut off the pump?: 13 inches from the tank bottom
where would a pressure vacuum gauge be found on the type 2 (pritchard) hydrant system?: by the defuel pump.
a differential pressure gauge installed on a filter/separator measures the difference between what?: the higher inlet pressure and the lower outlet pressure.
at a minimum, how often are simple pressure gauges calibrated?: annually
the dead weight tester is used to calibrate what?: pressure gauges
tank truck unloading headers will be spaced about how many feet apart?: 60
what type hose is used on an unloading header?: 4 inch, API 1529, noncollapsible type.
the usual cause for an OPW swivel joint leak is what?: a worn O-ring
when receiving fuel by pipeline, what is the first component that fuel passes through at the bulk storage area?: a pressure reducing valve.
during an annual pressure test, what is used to pressurize a piping system and for how many hours should the pressure be maintained?: installed pumps; 2 hours long
annual pipeline pressure test records are kept on file for how many years?: 5 years.
during the 5 year pressure test, what is used to pressurize a pipeline, and for how many hours should the pressure be maintained?: a hand pump for 4 hours.
at what percent of system deadhead pressure will pipelines be tested during the hydrostatic test?: 150 percent
what is the minimum speed for a scraper when cleaning a pipeline?: 2 mph.
how many turns should you be able to turn a new fitting by hand if the threads are of proper depth?: 2 1/2 to 3 turns.
an impressed current cathodic protection system uses anodes made of what?: carbon
what do unaccountable fluctuations of the rectifier in a cathodic protection system indicate?: stray current activity.
truck loading and offloading headers are grounded by what size and type of cable?: 3/32 inch, stainless steel.
what type of grounding rods are used on above ground fuel tanks?: galvanized steel.
how many 10,000 gallon storage tanks would normally be used at an automotive service station that offers leaded MOGAS, unleaded MOGAS, and diesel fuel?: 1 for each product.
for safe dispersal of fuel vapors, a storage tank vent pipe must extend how high?: 12 feet
what type of gauging device is normally used to gauge service station tanks, and what is the increments of measurement used on this gauging device?: a stick gauge, 1/8 of an inch increments
what type of valve is found on the suction line, inside the tank, if the fuel dispensing units are self contained?: a foot valve.
what is the difference between the motors used in the self contained single dispensing and the dual dispensing units?: the dual dispensing motors have a higher horsepower rating.
what component regulates the flow through the service station dispensers?: the hydraulic control valve.
what must you do if you receive a new tokheim dispensing unit that is set for 110 volts but the service station island is serviced for 220 volts?: reset the motor change over plate.
what type of pumping unit is used in the Tokheim self contained dispensing units?: gear type rotary.
how would you prime a self contained rotary pump?: squirt a heavy lubricating oil in the strainer cavity.
end play in a Tokheim pump can be taken up by removing the rotary pump head and by doing what?: reducing the amount of gasket material.
you have replaced the pump head of a Tokheim pump but the pump still binds. what can you do to solve the problem?: increase the number of gaskets used under the head, one at a time, until the pump is free.
which valve in the Tokheim self contained pumping unit equalizes the pressure in the system when the motor is turned off and the rotary pump and air separator assembly is at atmospheric pressure?: the surge check valve.
tokheim self contained units used with aboveground tanks must have what installed in their suction line?: a pressure regulating valve.
the measuring unit drive shaft will make how many revolutions for each gallon of fuel delivered?: 4
in servicing the measuring unit you have to remove the wobble plate. before removing the wobble plate from the measuring unit, you must mark it at some point because why?: because it must be replaced in exactly the same position when reassembling the unit.
if the measuring unit computer on a dispenser does not reset to zero or the numerical wheels do not turn during delivery, the probable cause is a what?: a broken shear pin.
what should the vacuum reading be on a normal rotary pump installation?: 4 to 6 inches
which of the following would cause a rotary pump to have an excessive vacuum reading?: the foot valve poppet spring is too heavy.
to check for sufficient pump pressure on a self contained dispensing unit, where should you install the pressure gauge?: on top of the meter cover
with the rotary pump running and pumping against a closed nozzle, what should the pressure be if the bypass valve is functioning properly on a tokheim system?: 24.5 psi.
the rotary pump regulating valve is functioning properly when a pressure gauge is reading what? on a tokheim system.: 18 psi one hour after the pump is turned off.
when connecting a 230 volt circuit for a submerged pump, what size fuse is used until the unit is checked out?: 10 amp
a shorted capacitor on a submerged pumping system will give what reading on an ohmmeter?: a zero resistance reading.
you suspect computer creeping in the remote control system of a automatic dispensing unit. to confirm your suspicion, you take a pressure reading at the hydraulic valve just above the operating piston. What is the minimum acceptable pressure reading that: 25 psi.
why should you be careful when removing the automatic shutoff nozzle poppet valve cover?: because there is a very stiff spring under the cover.
how many selectable fuel product pumps does each master vehicle identification reader have the capacity to control?: eight
how many fuel dispensing pumps will one master vehicle identification reader and a maximum of eight satellite vehicle identification readers control?: 72; 8 apiece
what does the National Electrical Code require of all electrical equipment and wiring in hazardous locations?: it all must be enclosed totally & explosion proof
what are the dimensions of the Class 1, Division 2, hazardous area for an automotive service station dispenser?: 20 feet outward from the dispensers and 18 inches from the ground
what is the difference between explosion proof and vapor proof fittings?: vaporproof fittings add gaskets and seals to all mating surfaces, plugs, and switch arms.
where can general purpose, enclosed type fittings be used?: in nonhazardous locations such as enclosed pressurized control rooms.
What are the 3 positions on a transfer pump selector switch?: Hand, off, and auto
what is used to isolate the fuel transfer pumps?: circuit breakers.
what type of switch is used to select the transformer station or portable generator as the source of power for the pump house?: a 3 pole double throw switch
breifly explain the two methods of grounding pump house components.: connect a ground cable from the components to a ground rod driven below the floor level. connect a ground cable from the components mounting bolts to a ground that has been welded on the concrete metal reinforcement.
what components are found on the Type 1 pump selector panel?: pump control panel and pump selector panel.
what components are found on the Type 2 pump selector panel?: pump control panel, pump selector panel, and defuel pump control panel.
what panel is found in the Pritchard pump house is not found in the other hydrant system and storage area pump houses?: a defuel pump control panel.
what is the graphic display on the Type 3 pump control panel?: a single line mechanical diagram of the type 3 system.
what are the address, data, and alphanumeric display windows on a type 3 pump control panel used for?: to obtain information from the microprocessor.
where are emergency stop switches located on a loading/offloading area?: at truck and tank car loading installations. they must be no closer than 25 feet.
are emergency stop switches normally closed or open?: closed.
what must be reset when an emergency stop switch is pushed?: the circuit breaker
what color are emergency stop switches?: red
when the pump select switch is turned to AUTO, what switch must be used to operate the pump?: the remote pump switch.
determine the probable cause of a pump motor not starting or even humming when the switch is turned on in a fuel storage area?: a bad relay or switch
what would be the cause of a solenoid not energizing when the magnet is placed on the magnetic switch?: an open switch or a defective solenoid
after placing the magnet on the two reference points, the pumps will not start. What could be the cause?: the magnetic switch plate has ice on it, or the pump house is not set up properly.
what is a key task in your day to day maintenance activities?: being able to trace the fuel system piping and locate the valves in the system.
if a pump is running, where is your first stop in diagnosing a problem?: the as built drawing located on the wall of every fueling facility.
if a modified panero system has seven tanks, how many ofthe tanks are used for refueling aircraft?: 6 one is used for defueling aircraft.
what change has taken place in the filter/meter pit in the modified panero system from the origional?: the filter and meter have been removed from the pit and installed on hose carts.
how many hydrant outlets are normally found for each 302AF valve?: 1
what is used in some filter/meter pits to keep the entire line from draining and leaving the meter dry?: a U bend
how many automatic valves are located in the filter/meter pit?: only 1 the 302AF fueling and defueling valve.
what component aids in the opening of the 302AF valve?: the ejector strainer.
what prevents leakage around the 302AF valve's ejector strainer's primary jet?: the O-ring
which component on the 302AF fueling and defueling valve controls pressure on the downstream side of the main valve during refueling?: the CRD
how does the CRD operate?: fuel enters the control through the inlet, passing through the seat and disc, which is held open by a spring, and out the discharge. pressure downstream overcomes the spring tension, drawing the disc closer to the seat. this action slows down fuel flow, which increases pressure on the top of the main valve diaphragm.
on the CRD, what indicates leakage around the diaphragm?: the vent port
how many CRLs are there on the 302AF valve?: two
which CRL applies pressure to the top of the fueling portion diaphragm of the 302AF?: the loading CRL.
what happens to the defuel side of the 302AF when the four port solenoid is deenergized?: the drain line becomes common with the defueling cover chamber and allows the defuel side to open.
what are the spring loaded positions for the refueling and defueling sides of the 302AF valve?: refueling side: spring loaded closed; defueling side:spring loaded open.
what component of the 302AF vents the cover chamber of the hytrol, allowing the CRD to take control of the fueling valve?: the four port solenoid
which component of the 302AF in the pilot control line restricts flow through the ejector strainer? What effect does that restriction have on the refueling side of the main valve?: the CDR. Modulates the refueling side maintaining a constant downstream pressure.
explain what would happen if the downstream pressure suddenly increased to 10 psi above normal operating pressure in a 302AF valve during fueling.: the fueling valve will close rapidly and the defueling valve will open
explain what would happen if the delivery flow rate suddenly increased in a 302AF valve.: the excess flow would create a low pressure drop at the orifice plate, tripping the CDHS-3 and closing the main valve.
what component must be installed on the 302AF when a CDHS-3 and orifice plate are used? and why is this component necessary?: the CV flow control, because if the refueling side opens too rapidly, it will cause the CDHS-3 to trip.
how does the 302AF operate during defueling?: the defuel side of the valve is already open because the solenoid is de-energized. The refueling side is closed because of spring tension and the solenoid aligns common supply to the hytrol.
how often do you inspect the 302AF valve?: every 3 months (quarterly)
list the inspections required on the 302AF valve.: proper downstream pressure, proper operation of the defueling section, excess pressure control, opening speed, leaks, and general condition of valve components.
how do you adjust the CRD and CRL pressure settings on a 302AF valve?: bottom both pressure reliefs, energize the system, set the pressure reducing control to 10 psi. above the desired operating pressure, back off on the loading pressure relief until the gauge needle dips, adjust the pressure reducer to 5 psi. above the desired operating pressure, back off on the unloading pressure relief until the gauge needle dips. Set the pressure reducer to the desired operating pressure, lock the jam nut, and replace the caps.
how do you adjust the opening rate of the fueling valve on a 302AF valve?: turn the adjusting screw on the CV flow control clockwise to increase the time it takes the valve to open.
How do you adjust the excess flow control on a 302AF valve?: turn down on adjusting screw of the CDHS-3 pressure differential control, establish the correct differential pressure, back off on the adjusting screw of the pressure differential control until it trips. Lock the jam nut and replace the cap.
what could cause the fueling valve to fail to close when delivery pressure increases on a 302AF valve?: loading pressure relief set too high or a defective diaphragm in the loading pressure relief.
what could cause the defueling valve to fail to close on a 302AF valve?: a defective valve diaphragm or ports in solenoid not aligned properly.
in which direction is the hydrant outlet spring loaded? why?: spring loaded closed to keep fuel from leaking if the adapter is pressurized when the hose coupling is not connected.
what opens the poppet in the hydrant outlet adapter?: the poppet in the coupling.
what feature on the coupling in a hydrant outlet allows air to enter the coupling, providing a smooth gravity flow back to the defuel tank?: the vacuum breaker
what components of a hydrant outlet are energized by placing the magnet on Type 1 refueling contacts?: the deep well turbine pump and the solenoid on the 302AF valve.
what type of switch is used to replace the remote electrical control station on hydrant outlets?: magnetic switches
how is leakage on the hydrant outlet adapter usually remedied?: replace the cover gasket, the flange gasket, or the O-ring on the poppet.
what course of action do you take if the poppet binds in a hydrant outlet?: dress away any burrs on the poppet, stem guide, stem, and cylinder wall. If this does not fix the problem, replace the faulty parts.
what inspections are required for a modified Panero system hydrant outlet?: check for leaks, cleanliness of the pit, and proper operation of the poppet.
what type of electrical units and wiring is used in nonhazardous locations, such as pressurized control rooms?: general purpose, enclosed type
what type grounding rod, if any is used on a horizontal fuel tank installed under the pump house floor?: ground rod is not required.
the pritchard system control room has how many electrical panels? for what are they used?: 3; pump control, pump selector, and defuel pump
the positions of the pump control selector switch are what?: hand, off, and auto
emergency stop switches at a truck loading header must be no closer than how many feet?: 25
the emergency stop switches have what type of contacts and complete which circuits at the loading and off loading area?: closed; low voltage for the fuel transfer pump control.
emergency stop switches are painted what color?: red
which of the following should you check first if a pump motor will not start or hum?: the control panel setup.
what do most emergency service calls involve?: no delivery of fuel
when you adjust the unloading CRL on the 302AF fueling and defueling valve, at what pressure do you set the CRL?: 5 psi above NOP
when you adjust the 302AF fueling and defueling valve, at what rate do you set the CV flow control?: 20 seconds
in order to calculate the differential pressure required to adjust the CDHS-3 properly, you need to know the what?: the orifice plate bore size and the gallons per minute delivery.
what would happen if the vacuum breaker on a hose coupling failed to open?: fuel from the hydrant outlet and fueling hose would not drain properly.
the magnetic switch at the hydrant in the modified panero system energizes what?: the 302AF solenoid and deep well turbine pumps.
what would remedy leakage on the Philadelphia hydrant adapter?: the flange gasket, the o ring on the poppet, or the cover gasket.
how many automatic valves are located in the lateral control pit of the pritchard system?: 4
what is the type 2 hydrant system also known as?: the Pritchard system.
what is the Type 1 hydrant system also known as?: the panero system.
what type of controls is used to energize the pumps in the pump house and the solenoid located on the refueling control valve?: the refueling magnetic control assemblies. the (KISS) keep it simple, stupid switch.
what types of block valves are used in the lateral control pit in a type 2 hydrant system?: nonlubricated plug valves or ball valves
what are the 5 functions of the 90AF-8 refueling control valve?: pressure reducing control, nonsurge, pressure relief, excess flow shutoff, and emergency shutoff.
which of the four automatic valves in the lateral control pit are used during defueling in a type 2 hydrant system?: the 134AF defueling control valve, and the 41AF rate of flow control valve.
how can you electrically isolate the defuel pump in a type 2 system?: by opening the defuel pump circuit breaker.
what lateral control pit component cuts off the defuel pump when the vacuum in the line between the defuel pump and the hydrant outlet reaches a predetermined setting in a type 2 hydrant system?: the vacuume control switch.
what type of pump is used in the lateral control pit for defueling in a type 2 system?: a self priming centrifugal pump.
the automatic main valve body or hytrol main valve has a seating arrangement similiar to what type of manual valve?: the manual globe valve.
what decides the positions of an automatic valve, and what are those positions?: cover-chamber pressure and spring force; Open, closed, or modulating(in between)
what inspections should you make on the 90AF-8 every 3 months?: check for leaks and external damage and for operation of its five functions.
list the adjustments required on the 90AF-8.: pressure reducing setting, pressure relief setting, excess flow shutoff, and opening rate.
state the probable cause for the main valve fails to open on the 90AF-8: solenoid not energized, CDHS-3 tripped, ruptured main valve diaphragm, ruptured diaphragm in downstream hytrol, upstream hytrol installed backward, adjusting stem on pressure reducing control backed off too much.
state the probable cause for the main valve failing to control delivery pressure on the 90AF-8.: the 50AF-2 valve is open, a ruptured diaphragm in pressure relief control, a pressure relief control is set too low, a 134AF defuel control valve opening, or a main valve disc is stuck off its seat.
state the probable causes of the main valve failing to open at the desired rate on the 90AF-8: improper setting of the CV flow control.
what component opens the 50AF-2 valve very quickly?: the strainer orifice.
which component on the 50AF-2 valve allows the main valve to open?: the CRL.
why is the 50AF-2 valve installed with flow under the disc?: so that it opens when the fueling line has excessive pressure even if the main valve diaphragm is ruptured.
how do you test the 50AF-2 pressure relief valve?: open the solenoid control switch for the refueling valve or close a downstream manual valve; then apply pressure equal to or above the opening pressure of the 50AF-2 and observe the valve position indicator. test five times to make sure of proper operation.
what happens to the 50AF-2 valve if the CDHS-3 on the 90AF-8 valve trips?: it opens when pressure increases to 10 psi above 90AF-8 normal inlet pressure.
what must you record before adjusting the 50AF-2?: the normal inlet pressure of the 90AF-8 during refueling.
which manual valve in the lateral control pit must you close before adjusting the 50AF-2?: the manual valve downstream from the 90AF-8
before starting the deep-well turbine pump, what must you do to the adjusting screw on the 50AF-2 CRL?: turn it all the way in (clockwise) for maximum spring tension.
what is the standard for adjusting the 50AF-2 CRL? Who really has the final say to that adjustment setting?: set it to 10 psi above the 90AF-8 normal inlet pressure. The supervisor or your trainer has the final say.
list the probable causes for the 50AF-2 to fail to open properly.: a ruptured diaphragm in the pressure relief control; a defective o ring in pressure relief control; a clogged control tubing downstream of the strainer orifice; a closed manual valve downstream; or improper setting of the pressure relief control.
list the probable causes of the 50AF-2 to fail to close properly.: the pressure relief control is bypassing fuel; an obstruction in the main valve; a clogged cover chamber tubing; a clogged strainer orifice; a broken or leaking tubing; or a ruptured diaphragm in the main valve.
list the probable cause of a 50AF-2 to pulsate.: air being in the main valve cover chamber
what is the refueling magnetic control assembly on the type 2 (pritchard) hydrant system also known as?: KISS (keep it simple stupid)
how does the 134AF defueling control valve operate?: when you place a magnet on the defuel control switch, the solenoid on the 134AF is energized open. Fuel passes through the ejector and solenoid. Fuel passing through the ejector creates a low pressure area above the diaphragm, allowing fuel pressure under the diaphragm to force the valve open.
what inspections are made on the 134AF defuel control valve?: check for leaks and general condition of components and assurance that it will open during defuel and remain closed during refuel.
list the probable cause of the 134AF failing to open.: solenoid not energized; main valve diaphragm failure; clogged control tubing downstream of ejector; a closed manual valve; or an obstruction in the main valve.
list the probable causes for the 134AF to fail to close.: the solenoid valve is stuck open; or an obstruction in the main valve.
list the probable causes for the 134AF defuel pump to rotate slowly during refueling.: a fuel leakage through the solenoid; or leakage past the main valve disc and seat.
what are the two distinct functions of the 41AF rate of flow control valve?: to hold the preset flow rate during defueling at 200 gpm. and to act as a check valve, preventing reverse flow when the 50AF-2 opens during refueling.
which component on the 41AF maintains the defueling rate of flow through the defuel pump?: the CDHS-2. (the pressure differential control)
what is energized when you place a magnet on the magnetic defuel (kiss) switch on a 41AF valve? what flow rate is then established?: the 134AF solenoid and also the main valve. A 200 gpm flow rate will be established.
what two components on the 41AF work together to prevent reverse flow?: the hytrol check and the swing check valves.
why does the hytrol check valve allow fuel to pass through in one direction but closes in the other direction on a 41AF valve?: because of a drilled passage. when inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure, it opens; when outlet pressure exceeds inlet pressure, it closes.
how often is the 41AF inspected?: once every 6 months.
explain how to prepare the differential control for adjustment on a 41AF valve.: back off the CDHS-2 adjusting screws (turn counterclockwise) until they lose spring force; then turn them IN two complete turns.
explain how to adjust the CDHS-2 on a 41AF.: back off (turn counterclockwise) the adjusting screw until it loses spring tension. then turn it clockwise two turns. Place a magnet on the defuel KISS switch. Turn the adjusting screw on the CDHS-2 clockwise until you get 200gpm flow.
what problems would you look for if the 41AF failed to open?: a hole in the main valve diaphragm; a manual valve closed downstream; clogged secondary jet in ejector; a normally closed solenoid valve is not energized on the 134AF.
what effect would a hole in the diaphragm of the differential control have on the 41AF rate of flow control valve?: it would fail to maintain the desired flow rate.
what problems would you look for if you notice the defuel pump rotating and the 41AF opening while refueling an aircraft?: leakage through the 134AF valve.
what are the two functions of the 352AF adapter?: it provides a quick, pressure tight connection between the installed piping and portable hose equipment, and it also controls the level at which fuel flow stops during defueling.
what coupler must be connected to the 352AF to open the adapter?: the 351AF
what allows the float in the hydrant adapter to rise and stay open during fuel flows?: buoyancy and velocity.
what 352AF constructional feature allows pressure above and below the ball float to equalize when pressure above the float is greater?: the automatic bypass valve.
what happens if the defuel pump is started before the pressure on either side of the float is equalized on a 352AF hydrant?: the float is held tightly against its seat.
what constructional feature of the 352AF prevents air from being drawn into the piping system?: the float assembly.
briefly explain what happens to the defuel pump when air enters the 352AF hydrant adapter.: the float assembly closes, and then the defuel pump starts to pull a vacuum. This vacuum is sensed by the vacuum control switch and breaks the electrical control circuit to the defuel pump motor, de energizing the pump.
which part of the 352AF adapter must you remove if you have to replace the disc?: the cover, seat, and poppet.
what has to be replaced if you notice leakage around the push button on the bypass valve?: the O-ring.
almost all of the maintenance on the 352AF involves what?: ppartial disassembly of the valve.
what component of the 352AF hydrant adapter would you suspect as being faulty if the defuel pump continued to run even though you knew it could only be pulling air?: either the bypass valve is leaking internally or the float is not seated properly.
what component on the 352AF hydrant adapter makes sure jet fuel is not dispensed to a reciprocating, aviation-gasoline aircraft?: the stop.
how do you operate the magnetic emergency stop switch on the 352AF hydrant adapter?: simply lift the cover.
how do you test the new magnetic switch plate assembly for a 352AF hydrant adapter?: use an ohmmeter and a magnet. attach the test leads from the ohmmeter to the magnetic switch wires. Place the magnet on the switch's reference points. The ohmmeter should read zero resistance, and when the magnet is remover, it should read OL (open load)
what are the hydrant outlets grounded to?: a galvanized or stainless steel ground rod.
how are approved static grounds identified?: by the month and year, painted in 3 inch leters on the pavement adjacent to the grounding point.
what two items at the hydrant outlet are connected to the approved static ground, and what type of cable is used to make this connection?: the lateral piping and the electrical conduit are connected to the static ground with 3/32 inch stainless steel wire rope.
what would be different about the grounding of the hydrant outlet if the piping were cathodically protected?: the piping would not be connected to the static ground.
what component of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve prevents reverse flow through the control loop?: the hytrol check
which components of the 51AF-4 hold the valve closed during refueling operations?: the hytrol and the three port, two way solenoid.
which components of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve closes to keep the lateral piping full of fuel?: the low pressure CRL
which components of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve relieve excessive refueling pressure?: the high pressure CRL
which components of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve relieves pressure from the hytrol cover chamber?: the hytrol.
which components of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve keeps pressure from escaping the main valve cover chamber during refueling?: the hytrol, the three port, two way solenoid, and the swing check valve.
which components of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve controls the main valve closing speed?: the CV flow control.
which components of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve opens at 5 psi?: the low pressure CRL
which components of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve prevents sudden surges in the lateral piping when the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve closes?: the CV flow control.
which components of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve unloads the main valve cover chamber pressure during refueling?: the high pressure CRL.
which components of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve prevents flow through the defuel pump during a rapid flow defueling operation?: the normally closed solenoid installed on the 41AF-10
where is the normally closed solenoid on the 41AF-10 located?: downstream of the CDHS-2.
list the changes that occurred in the 352AF. what is its new numeric designation?: the float assembly was removed and the manual bypass valve was replaced with an angle valve. The 352AF is now a 358AF.
what 3 components on the 51AF-4 valve are adjusted?: the CV flow control and both CRLs.
which of the 3 components on the 51AF-4 valve is adjusted aaccording to the 90AF-8 CRL setting?: the high pressure CRL.
which pump on is used to set the low pressure CRL on the 51AF-4 valve?: the refueling pump.
what should the lateral piping static pressure be if the low pressure CRL is set correctly on the 51AF-4 valve?: 5psi.
at what pressure does the 51AF-4's high pressure CRL open if the 90AF-8CRL is set to open at 105 psi?: 110 psi (5psi above NOP)
what component would you check if the 51AF-4 would not open to relieve excessive refueling pressure?: the high pressure CRL.
what would be the result if the three port, two way solenoid on the 51AF-4 failed to energize?: the 51AF-4 would bypass fuel during fueling operation.
list the probable causes if the 51AF-4 failed to open when fueling stopped.: there is a hole in the diaphragm of the low pressure CRL, there is a defective o ring in the low pressure CRL, there is a hole in the hytrol diaphragm, or there is a hole in the main valve diaphragm.
what valve in the lateral control pit was removed for the rapid flow modification?: the 134AF defueling control valve.
how many automatic valves are found in the lateral control pit of the pritchard system?: 4
what lateral control pit component cuts off the defuel pump when the hydrant outlet closes in the pritchard system?: the vacuum control switch.
when the cover chamber pressure of the 90AF-8 refueling control valve is at least as great as the inlet pressure, the valve does what?: closes tightly.
what type solenoid is used on the 90AF-8 refueling control valve?: a two port normally closed solenoid.
at what pressure is the CRD on the 90AF-8 refueling control valve set?: 100 psi.
the setting of the pressure relief on the 90AF-8 refueling control valve is what?: 5 psi higher than the NIP of the 90AF-8.
how often is the 90AF-8 refueling control valve operationally inspected?: quarterly (every 3 months)
before you set the CRL on the 90AF-8 refueling control valve, what pressure must you establish?: 5 psi above normal downstream pressure.
what would probably cause the 90AF-8 refueling control valve to open, then close?: the CDHS-3 tripping.
how many auxiliary components does the 50AF-2 pressure relief valve have in its control system?: 2
why is the main valve body of the 50AF-2 pressure relief valve installed with the flow under the disc?: for system safety in case the main valve diaphragm ruptures.
how often should the 50AF-2 pressure relief valve be checked to ensure that it is opening and relieving pressure?: annually.
what is the standard setting for the 50AF-2 pressure relief valve's CRL?: 10 psi above the NOP of the 90AF-8
what would be a prime suspect if you noticed a 50AF-2 pressure relief valve pulsating during a refueling operation?: air in the main valve cover chamber.
the components of the 134AF defueling control valve include a valve position indicator, and what else?: a flow clean strainer, an ejector, and a solenoid.
how often is the 134AF defueling control valve operationally inspected?: semiannually (every 6 months)
what is the probable cause if the 41AF-10 main valve opens when refueling and is detected by the defueling pump rotating?: leakage through the normally closed solenoid valve.
the type 352AF hydrant adapter controls the level at which fuel flow stops in defueling in order to do what?: prevent air from entering the installed piping system.
when does the defuel pump shut off automatically?: when the 352AF float assembly closes.
when the defuel pump shuts off automatically, what opens its electrical control circuit?: the vacuum control switch.
suppose you are testing a magnetic switch. what reading is shown on the ohmmeter when the magnet is placed on the switch place?: zero
after activating an emergency stop switch at the type 2 hydrant outlet, how do you reset the system to refuel?: manually reset the controls in the pump house control room.
when the piping system of a type 2 is not cathodically protected, to what are hydrant outlets grounded?: a galvanized grounding rod.
when a magnet is placed on the defuel KISS switch, the solenoid of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve is energized open along with the what?: defuel pump.
what are the settings for both pressure reliefs on the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve?: the low setting is 5 psi and the high setting is 5 psi above the CRL on the 90AF-8
how often is the 41AF-10 operationally inspected?: semiannually (same as the 41AF.
what changes have to be made to the 352AF hydrant adapter and level control valve to permit rapid defueling?: install an angle valve, replace the cover with an aluminum blanking cap, and remove the float.
after adjusting the high pressure CRL on the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve, what is the last thing you should do to the CRL before leaving the area?: place cap back on the control and seal.
which component has failed if the 51AAF-4 rapid defuel valve opens during a refueling operation?: the hytrol check valve is stuck off its seat.
what type of pipe is used to carry fuel from bulk storage to the issue filter/separator in a type 3 system if the pipe is 12 inches in diameter?: carbon steel, ASTM A53, Grade B.
why is stainless steel used in the hydrant loop of a type 3 system?: because it is less susceptible to rust and ensures the quality of fuel being delivered to the aircraft.
what type of pipe is used in the drain system of a type 3 system?: schedule 40, API 5L, Grade B, or ASTM A53, Grade B, carbon steel.
in a type 3 system how can you determine whether the receiving strainer requires cleaning?: once the differential pressure gauge reaches 10 psi, the strainer must be cleaned.
Name the four functions of the 40-27G filter/separator control valve.: flow control, water slug shutoff, maximum differential pressure shutoff, and act as a check valve.
what happens to the 40-27G filter/separator control valve when the differential pressure across the filter/separator increases to a preset point?: the 40-27G closes rapidly.
where is a 40-28G bypass valve installed in a type 3 system?: only on systems that receive fuel directly from a commercial or cross country pipeline.
where is the 40-28G bypass valve located?: between the two receiving F/Ss.
what component on the 40-28G bypass valve sends a signal to the pump control panel to indicate whether the valve is open or closed?: the limit switch.
what receiving meter component indicates on the pump control panel the amount of fuel being received?: an electronic digital counter.
where do you install the master meter to calibrate the receiving meter?: just downstream of the receiving meter are 2 2_1/2 inch meter proving connections.
when can on base bulk storage tanks be used as the operating storage tanks for a type 3 hydrant system?: if suitable and located within 1 mile of the fueling apron they can be used. Base bulk storage tanks must be modified to meet the criteria in standard design AW 78-24-27.
what type of reading do the tank level indicators provide? where can these readings be observed in a type 3 system?: local and remote fuel level readings; local means right at the tank; remote reading is a digital reading on the PCP graphic display.
what does the low level indicator alarm do if its actuated on a type 3 system tank?: when the low level actuates, it sounds a horn and causes the lights behind the annunciation alarm window, marked low level alarm, to flash. also, it shuts down any or all fueling pumps that might be operating at the time.
which tank level alarm is actuated if the 413AF-5A high level shutoff valve fails to close?: the high high level alarm.
what type of manual valve is the operating storage tank outlet valve?: a 12 inch nonlubricated double block and bleed valve.
from what parts of the system does the product recovery tank collect fuel and water in a type 3 system?: the pressure reliefs, strainer drains, F/S automatic water drains, low-/high point drains, and operating storage tanks' water draw off system.
what size and type of tank does the product recovery system use in a type 3 system?: a 4000 gallon, double wall, steel tank.
what types of leak detection monitors can be used on the product recovery system in a type 3 system?: vacuum maintenance, positive air pressure maintenance, hydrostatic pressure maintenance, or probe detection.
what type of pump is used to remove water from the product recovery tank?: a hand operated pump. it is a double action piston type that delivers liquid on every forward and backward stroke.
where does the pressure that closes the product recovery tank 2129AF overfill valve come from?: from a pressure reservoir connected to the discharge of the product recovery tank fuel transfer pump.
how many manifolds are in the issue pipeline in a type 3 system? Where are they located?: 3; The filter/separator discharge header is located after the filter separators, the pump discharge header is located directly after the pumps, and the suction header is located just upstream of the refueling pumps.
In a type 3 system, what types of pumps are used as refueling pumps? what is their rated capacity?: single stage centrifugal, horizontal mounted, vertical or radial split case, enclosed impeller, with end suction and top vertical discharge. Their capacity is 600gpm when driven at 3600rpm.
in a type 3 system, how are the fueling pumps connected to the hard pipeline?: the end suction and centerline discharge of the fueling pumps are connected to the hard pipe by flexible metal hoses.
what type of mechanical seal is used on the fueling pumps in a type 3 system?: single unbalanced, multiple spring type.
in a type 3 system what is the sight glass on the fueling pumps bearing housing used for?: to check the oil level.
what information must be stamped on the fueling pumps service nameplates?: manufacturers name, serial number of the pump, capacity in gpm, pumping head(feet of water), max specific gravity of fluid to be pumped, RPM, and horse power of the driver.
in a type 3 system how are the fueling pump and motor shafts coupled together?: with a flexable and self aligning coupling.
in a type 3 system where are the flow switches located and what are they used for?: immediately downstream of the fueling pumps discharge line. and are used to lock on the fueling pumps after they are called on by the microprocessor and to notify the microprocessor that the pump is pumping fuel.
what flow rate must be set on the 41AF-1A nonsurge check valves flow controller? and why is it important?: 650GPM because it allows the fueling pump to operate efficiently.
in a type 3 system how are the issue filter/separators installed?: in parallel and manifolded at both the inlet and the outlet by 12 inch manifolds.
what feature was added to the 40AF-2C to make it the 41AF-2C?: a check valve feature to prevent reverse flow through the filter separator.
what type of component is on the 136AF-9B emergency shutoff valve that causes this valve to close when an emergency stop button is engaged? and how do they work?: two solenoids. When the button is pushed the solenoids will deenergize, closing the 136AF-9B within 10 seconds.
why is a venturi tube used instead of an orifice plate?: because the venturi is much more accurate.
where is the return venturi located?: upstream of the 58AF-9 valve in the hydrant loop return line.
the transmitters used in the type 3 hydrant system consist of what type of internal working mechanism for pressure sensing?: a dual opposed, liquid filled, rupture proof, bellows type pressure sensing element.
at what two system pressures does the PIT send a signal to the microprocessor in a type 3 system? what results from the signals?: at 60 psi the lead pump is called on; at 175psi the lead pump is called off.
how do you calibrate the PIT in a type 3 system?: by verifying the miliamperes being sent to the microprocessor. Using an ammeter, you must ensure there is a 4mA signal being sent to the microprocessor when there is zero psi on the system. Next you must ensure there is a 20mA signal being sent to the microprocessor when the transmitter is at its maximum psi.
how many DPTs are there on the issue venturi of a 2400gpm type 3 system?: 2
what flow range can be read on the low range DPT of the type 3 system?: 0-100 GPM.
what flow range can be read on the high range DPT in a type 3 system?: 0-800GPM
what five points must you calibrate on an issue DPT in a type 3 system?: 0gpm, 600gpm, 1200gpm, 1800gpm, and 2400gpm.
what three points must you calibrate on the return venturi's high range DPT on a type 3 system?: 0gpm, 560gpm, and 700gpm.
in a type 3 hydrant loop and return what should the loop pressure be if the type 3 hydrant system is idle in the automatic mode?: 75 psi.
how much pull does it take to open the hydrant pit lid in a type 3 system? How much push does it take to close it?: 30lbs of pull to open and 50lbs of push to close.
what is used to seal the floor where the issue line enters the hydrant pit in a type 3 system? How is this device secured?: a buna-n boot. By stainless steel clamps that are connected to a metal collar that is welded to the pipe riser and to a flange where the pipe penetrates the pit floor.
how much pressure at the skin of the aircraft is the CRA on the 362AF-8 set to maintain?: 45psi for any flow rate from 50 to 600gpm, or 50 to 1200gpm depending on the system design.
at what pressure set point does the CRL on the 362AF-8 relieve pressure?: 50psi.
what valve does setting the air sense pressure at 65psi on the HSV cause to relieve excess nozzle pressure at 55psi on a type 3 system?: the brooks valve.
in a type 3 system what happens if a deadman hose ruptures?: the 362AF-8(main valve) valve closes in a maximum of 5 seconds.
in a type 3 system the BPCV opens when the loop reaches what pressure?: 100psi.
what is the 58AF-9 valve?: a BPCV (backpressure control valve)
how many seconds should the 58AF-9 BPCV take to close?: 3 seconds.
in a type 3 system the PCV is capable of what flow rate under normal operating conditions?: 50 gpm
what is the 58AF-3?: a pvc (pressure control valve)
what is the pressure relief setting on the 58AF-3 PCV? how long does the valve take to close?: 75 psi and closes in 3 seconds.
what position should the 58AF-9-1 D/FV be in during refueling?: de energized/closed.
what is the 58AF-9-1?: a defuel/flush valve.
what happens to the 58AF-9-1 D/FV when all the refueling pumps stop?: solenoid A energizes, allowing the valve to open and remain open until the loop pressure drops to 80psi.
where is the pressure developed to open the 58AF-9-1D/FV for defueling?: in a defuel pump on the HSV.
what flow range does the 58AF-9-1D/FV allow during system flushing? What determines the flow rate within that range?: 600 to 2400gpm., the number of fueling pumps used.
what is the size of the return venturi tube?: 4 inches in diameter.
how many SPRs are there on the HSV checkout stand?: 4 SPRs.
what are the two overhead receptacles used for on the hydrant servicing vehicle checkout stand?: for testing the straight throat nozzles and checking the hydraulic lift that the HSV provides when using these nozzles.
what is a HSV?: a hydrant servicing vehicle.
where is the first place to go in trying to identify a problem in the type 3 hydrant system?: the type 3 pump control room.
what color lines are on the graphic display in the type 3 control room? What do they indicate?: the green lines indicate the receiving and hydrant loop return line. the yellow lines indicate the pump suction, from the storage tank discharge lines to the inlet of the pumps. yellow lines also show the water draw off lines from the filter/separators and pressure relief valves that go to the product recovery tank. blue lines are the pump discharge and hydrant loop up to and including the 58AF-9 BPCV, 58AF-3 PCV, and the 58AF-9-1 D/FV
what is a PCP?: the pump control panel.
how can you tell which fueling pumps are operating if your in the pump control room of a type 3 system?: by looking at the graphic display panel; a red light illuminates for stopped pumps and a green light illuminates for running pumps.
in a type 3 pump control room which problems does the resonating horn sound to indicate?: emergency stop, low level on operating tank number 1 or number 2 (if the outlet valve is not fully closed), high high level on operating tank 1 or 2.
what must you do to silence the emergency horn in the type 3 pump control room?: push the acknowledgment button.
what does each pressure/flow recorder pen plot in the type 3 system pump control room?: one pen records the issue venturi flow rate and has a range of 0 to 2400gpm. another pen records the return venturi flow rate registering 0 to 800gpm. the third pen records the hydrant loop pipeline pressures from 0 to 300psi.
in the type 3 system pump control room what are the two speeds of the pressure/flow recorder's motor?: 1 inch per hour or 8 inches per hour.
in a type 3 system what is the pump starting sequence if fueling pump 3 is the lead pump?: 3,4,1,2.
how many microprocessors are in a type 3 system pump control room?: two.
what happens if one of the microprocessors in the type 3 system pump control room fails?: if the active microprocessor fails, the backup microprocessor automatically assumes control without interruption to the process. control can be transferred from one microprocessor to the other manually by the use of a lockout key system.
in the type 3 system pump control room what does it mean if the microprocessor's battery status LED is lit?: that the battery is fully charged.
in the type 3 systems pump control room panel what are the two states of discrete inputs: first is an on condition represented by a closed contact, voltage present, or a 1 in the PLC program. SECOND is an off condition represented by an open contact, no voltage, or a 0 in the PLC program.
on what page and rung of the blueprint wiring code would the wire number 622 be located?: page 6 rung 22.
What are the steps in a PLC scan?: check the inputs, execute the program, and update the outputs.
during automatic mode in an idle condition of a type 3 system why should the lead pump designation be changed periodically?: so that all pumps have basically the same amount of running time.
What components of a type 3 system sense the pressure just downstream of the 136AF-9B emergency shutoff valve?: PITs (pressure indicating transmitters) 1 and 2
what does PIT stand for?: pressure indicating transmitter.
at what pressure does the 58AF-9 BPCV modulate open when the system is pressurized?: 100psi.
what 58AF-3 PCV component keeps the valve closed when the fuel pumps are running?: the solenoid.
how many solenoids are on the 58AF-9-1 D/FV?: two.
at what hydrant loop pressure in the type 3 system does the PIT signal the microprocessor to call off the lead pump?: once the hydrant loop pressure reaches 175psi, PIT-1 or PIT-2 signals the microprocessor to call off the lead pump.
in a type 3 system where is excess pressure from thermal expansion relieved to?: the excess pressure bleeds back to the operating storage tank.
what connects the type 3 system to the aircraft to be refueled?: the hydrant servicing vehicle (HSV) coupler is connected to the 364AF-2, API adapter, and one of the HSV's single point nozzles is connected to the aircraft.
in a type 3 system when the lead pump is running, what flow rate through the return venturi calls on the second pump?: a flow rate less than 40gpm sensed through the return venturi for a continuous 10 second interval.
in a type 3 system what two conditions require more than one pump to run at the same time?: more than one pump runs when the aircraft being serviced can receive fuel at a rate that exceeds 560 gpm or when more than one aircraft is being refueled at a time.
in a type 3 system how many pumps are running if the issue venturi senses 1800gpm and the return venturi senses 50gpm.: 3
in a type 3 system if a pump fails to start when called on by the microprocessor, or fails after successfully starting, what happens?: it is called off and the next idle fueling pump in the predetermined sequence of the four pumps is called on.
in a type 3 system when four pumps are running, how are all the pumps shut off?: they will be called off 1 by 1 in the reverse order that they were called on as the need for fuel decreases
in what modes can the type 3 system be used to defuel?: in the idle or refueling mode.
where is the defuel pump on the type 3 system?: on the HSV (hydrant servicing vehicle)
during idle condition defueling, with a type 3 system, fuel pumped by the HSV passes through which valves?: the 362AF-8, the 58AF-9-1, and the 58AF-3
if your defueling one aircraft while another aircraft is being refueled, where does the defueled fuel go in a type 3 system?: it goes into the hydrant loop and then either to the other aircraft connected to the system, which are being refueled, or to the 58AF-9BPCV and into the operating tanks.
what is the purpose of the flush mode on a type 3 system?: to clean the loop system.
what happens to the fuel that is flushed through the system during the flush mode in a type 3 system?: fuel will be flushed through the apron loop and routed back into the operating storage tanks.
how are the refueling pumps started in the flush mode of a type 3 system?: place the pumps (auto-off-hand) selector switch in the hand position.
what type of piping is used on the receiving line of a type 3 system if the pipe is 8 inches in diameter?: carbon steel, schedule 40S.
what type of piping is used in the hydrant loop of a type 3 system if the pipe is 12 inches in diameter?: stainless steel, schedule 20S.
what type of control tubing is used on the type 3 system?: seamless stainless steel.
at what differential pressure must the receiving strainer in the Type 3 system be cleaned?: 10psi.
what causes the 40-28G to open and let fuel bypass the receiving separators when receiving fuel into a type 3 system from a cross country pipeline?: a differential pressure of 15psi sensed across the receiving separator.
what is not a function of the 40-27G filter/separator control valve?: pressure reducer
once the 40-27G filter/separator control valve has closed due to high differential pressure, what must be done to get the valve to operate again?: manually reset the CDHS-3A
what type of meter is used in the receiving line of a type 3 system?: a 1200gpm positive displacement meter.
normall, which tanks can be used on the type 3 system as an operating storage tank when the nearest bulk storage tank is 2 miles from the fueling apron?: 10,000bbl (barrels)
where is the float assembly for the 413AF-5A high level shutoff valve on an aboveground operating storage tank located?: on the exterior side of the tank at the required shutoff height.
how can the closing feature of the 413AF-5A high level shutoff valve be tested without filling the tank with fuel up to the high level shutoff point?: with a manual tester located on the high level shutoff float assembly.
a type 3 operating storage tank level indicator servo compartment must be listed for use in what?: class 1, division 1, group D.
what actions occur when the low level alarm on a type 3 operating storage tank is activated?: a horn sounds, a light illuminates on the alarm window, and all fueling pumps are shut down.
what happens when the high level alarm is activated on a type 3 operating storage tank?: the high level alarm window on the PCP flashes, and a vibrating horn sounds.
what happens when the high high level alarm is activated on a type 3 operating storage tank?: the high level alarm window on the PCP flashes, and a resonating horn sounds.
how must the tank outlet valves be positioned to refuel an aircraft in a type 3 system?: one must be fully open and one must be fully closed.
what size is the product recovery tank in a type 3 system?: 4000 gallons.
what type of pump is used as the fuel transfer pump on the product recovery tank in the type 3 system?: a 50gpm deep well turbine pump.
the fuel transfer pump on the product recovery tank in a type 3 system automatically energizes when the tank is how full?: 70 percent full.
what valve is used as an overfill valve for the product recovery tank in the type 3 system?: the 2129AF.
how is thermal expansion relieved when the overfill valve on the product recovery tank in the type 3 system is closed?: a CRL bleeds pressure around the overfill valve.
what does CRL stand for?: Pressure Relief Control.
what does MVB stand for?: Main Valve Body.
what size piping is used for the suction header in the type 3 system?: 16 inch.
what prevents leakage due to a complete seal failure on the type 3 fueling pump mechanical seal?: a nonsparking throttle bushing.
who defines the temperature rating for motors used with the fueling pumps in the type 3 system?: NFPA 70 (national fire protection association).
the fueling pump and motor in the type 3 system must be aligned to within how many inches?: .002 inches.
what is the purpose of the flow switch in the type 3 system?: to lock on the lead pump.
how many solenoids are on the 136AF-9B emergency shutoff valve, and what does the valve do when the solenoids energize?: 2 and the valve free floats.
what is the rating for the issue venturi, and where is it located within the type 3 system?: 2400gpm, downstream of the emergency shutoff valve.
what is the rating of the return venturi, and where is it located in the type 3 system?: 800gpm upstream of the back pressure control valve.
how many DPTs are piped into the return venturi on a 2400 gpm type 3 system?: 4
what is the range of the low range DPTs piped into the return venturi in the type 3 system?: 0-100 gpm.
in the type 3 system, what what milliampere signal is sent by the issue DPT when there is 1200 gpm flowing through the issue venturi?: 12 milliamperes.
what points on the return venturi's high range DPT must be calibrated?: 0gpm, 560gpm, and 700gpm.
at what pressure does the brooks valve relieve excess nozzle pressure, and what dictates the brooks valve set point?: 55psi, setting the air sense on the HSV at 65.
what opens the 362AF-8 hydrant control valve for refueling of an aircraft?: the pneumatic deadman.
at what pressure does the 58AF-9 backpressure control valve open to control the hydrant loop pressure?: 100psi at the farthest hydrant outlet.
at what pressure does the 58AF-3 pressure control valve close to trap loop pressure?: 75psi.
after refueling an aircraft and the lead pump deenergizes, at what pressure does the 58AF-9-1 defuel/flush valve close?: 80psi.
which item is not found on the HSV checkout stand?: a fuel pump on/off switch.
what will be the first symbol in a rung of ladder logic?: contacts.
what is the term for the three step process of checking inputs, executing the program, and updating outputs in the PLC?: scan.
what must be done at the PCP to set up the type 3 system for fueling?: select the lead pump, place the system in automatic, and push system start.
what actions occur if the issue venturi senses 600gpm and the return venturi senses 560gpm or more for 60 seconds?: the 58AF-9 deenergizes, pressure builds up to 175psi, and the lead pump is called off.
what actions occur if the issue venturi senses 600gpm and the return venturi senses 40gpm or less for 10 seconds?: the lead pump continues to run and the second pump is called on.
what actions occur if the issue venturi senses 1800 gpm and the return venturi senses 100gpm for 15 seconds?: the lead, second, and third pumps continue to run.
what actions occur if the issue venturi senses 2400 gpm and the return venturi senses 1000gpm for 15 seconds?: the 4th pump is called off.
when refueling and defueling at the same time in a type 3 system, where does the fuel being defueled go?: to other aircraft being refueled.
when must a type 3 system be flushed?: when a system is not used in 30 days.
how much fuel must be pumped to flush the hydrant loop of a type 3 system that contains 42,000 gallons?: 84,000 gallons (double the capacity).
what must be done on the PCP to flush a type 3 system?: turn the system switch to "flush" and all available pump switches to "hand"
what type piping is used from bulk storage to the issue filter/separators if the piping is 16 inch in a type 4 system?: internal epoxy coated carbon steel, ASTM A53, Grade B, with a wall thickness of 0.375 inch.
what type piping is used from the issue filter/separators, through the system loop, and back to the return line if the piping is 12 inch. in a type 4 system?: seamless stainless steel, schedule 10S, ASTM 312, type 304L.
what type piping is used from the issue filter/separators, through the system loop, and back to the return line if the piping is 4 inches in a type 4 system?: seamless stainless steel, schedule 40 minimum, ASTM312, type 304L
why is stainless steel piping used in a type 4 system?: stainless steel is less susceptible to rust than other piping and ensures the quality of fuel being delivered to the aircraft.
what type piping is used for pressure relief lines in a type 4 system?: internal epoxy coated carbon steel, schedule 40, API 5L, grade B, or ASTM A53, grade B.
list the methods by which a type 4 system can receive fuel.: truck, tank car, pipeline, or barges.
what are the primary methods of receiving fuel into a type 4 system?: by pipeline or barges.
what type receiving filter/separators are used in the type 4 system?: two 600gpm, horizontal, API 1581 filter/separators.
what valve is used as the receiving filter/separator control valve?: the 40-27G filter/separator control valve (FSCV)
what valve is used as the high level shutoff on a type 4 cut and cover tank?: the 129AF-3F high level shutoff valve.
what component actuates the high level shutoff valve? where is that component located if the valve is installed on a type 4 cut and cover tank?: a CFM2 float control. located inside the tank at the required shutoff height.
what is the purpose of the manual valve installed in the control loop of a type 4 high level shutoff valve if the valve is installed on an underground tank?: to manually test the closing feature of the valve.
how much control tubing pressure does it take to open the powertrol on a 129AF-3F?: 5psi in the control line.
in what increments do the tank level indicators read in a type 4 system?: in feet and tenths of a foot.
what is the purpose of the low level alarm on a type 4 cone roof with floating pan tank?: to protect the fueling pumps from running dry.
what happens when the fuel level reaches the high level alarm setting on a type 4 underground tank?: the annunciator high level alarm window on the PCP flashes and a vibrating horn sounds.
what happens when the fuel level reaches the high high level alarm setting on a type 4 cut and cover tank?: a resonating horn, a light external to the control room, and the window on the PCP marked high high level alarm are all activated.
what type pump is used as the fuel transfer pump on a type 4 product recovery tank? where is the fuel in the tank pumped back to?: a 50gpm, multistage deep well turbine pump. back through the receiving separators to the operating storage tanks.
what type fueling pump is used on a type 4 cut and cover tank? what is its flow rating?: deep well turbine pumps. 600 gpm when driven at 3600rpm.
what type fueling pump is used on a type 4 cone roof with floating pan tank? what is its flow rating?: API 610, horizontal centrifugal type pumps. 600gpm when driven at 3600 rpm.
what is the purpose of the flapper flow switches on a type 4 system tank?: to lock the fueling pumps on after theyve started.
what is the primary purpose of the 41AF-1A valve?: to control the flow rate through the pump at 650 gpm.
what valve is used as the type 4 issuing filter/separator control valve?: the 41AF-2C
what happens to the emergency shutoff valve when there is system power loss or an emergency shutoff switch is activated in a type 4 system??: the 136AF-9B (emergency shutoff valve) closes within 10 seconds.
what happens to the 7psi trapped in the emergency shutoff valves control tubing when an emergency shutoff switch is activated in a type 4 system?: it is directed to the main valve cover chamber, closing the valve.
where is the issue venturi located in the type 4 system?: downstream of the 136AF-9B valve.
what is the rating of the issue venturi in a type 4 system?: 1200gpm.
how many pressure transmitters are found in the type 4 system? where are they piped to?: two pressure indicating transmitters are in the issue line upstream of the 136AF-9B ESO there are two differential pressure transmitters piped to the issue line venturi and four attached to the return venturi.
what is the primary purpose of the differential pressure transmitters in a type 4 system?: to signal the microprocessor whenever system pressure drops below 60psi, to call on the lead pump, and to call off the lead pump when system pressure reaches 175psi.
what does DPT stand for?: Differential Pressure Transmitter.
what does the type 4 system use to connect to an aircraft for fueling?: a pantograph
what type swivel joints are used on a hoseless pantograph in a type 4 system? how are they connected?: nonlubricated type connected to the pipe with flanges.
what is the maximum electrical resistance throughout a hoseless pantograph on a type 4 system?: 1 kilohm.
what type pressure gauges are installed on a hoseless pantograph on a type 4 system?: 4_1/2 inch metal case pressure gauges, silicone liquid filled, with a range of 0-275psi.
what type single point nozzle is used on the hoseless pantograph?: a 2_1/2 inch straight nozzle (D-2) type.
what size piping is used on a hose end pantograph on a type 4 system?: 3 inches in diameter, schedule 10 stainless steel.
what type hose is used on a hose end pantograph?: 3 inch, API 1529, grade 3, type A or C, semi hardwall designed for use with JP-8 for working pressure of 300psi.
why are lubricated swivel joints not allowed on a hose end pantograph?: because there is no filter/separator after the pantograph. the pantograph connects directly to the aircraft and there is a chance the lubrication could get into the aircraft during refueling.
what type single point nozzle is used on a hose end pantograph?: a 2_1/2 inch curved nozzle(D-1) type.
what valve is used as the refueling control valve in a type 4 system?: the 362AF-7 refueling control valve.
what is the set point for the refueling control valve CRA on a type 4 system?: 45psi. for any flow rate from 50 to 600gpm.
what happens if the deadman is disconnected from the refueling control valve on a type 4 system?: the main valve will close in a maximum of 5 seconds.
what happens to the 58AF-9-1 when the type 4 system is placed in loop flush?: the valve opens wide and free floats, which means the valve opens wide with any fuel flow.
what happens to the 58AF-9-1 solenoid A when the type 4 system is automatically started?: it is energized.
explain how the 58AF-3 valve works.: the solenoid is energized anytime a pump is running and de energizes when the pump stops, regardless of wether the pump was started automatically or manually.
explain the solenoid operation of the 136AF-5B valve in a type 4 system.: the solenoid is energized when the system is placed in the pantograph flush mode. when the solenoid is energized, the main valve closes; when the solenoid is de energized, the main valve free floats.
explain the solenoid operation of the 58E-47 valve.: the solenoid is energized open, allowing the valve to relieve excess pantograph pressure anytime a fueling pump is energized. it is de energized to close the valve anytime a fueling pump is not running.
what is the 58E-47 valve?: the pantograph pressure control valve.
explain what the color coded lines represent on the pump control panel graphic display in the type 4 pump control room.: the green lines on this graphic display indicate the receiving and system loop return line. the yellow lines indicate the pump suction from the storage tank discharge lines to the inlet of the pumps. yellow lines also show the water draw off lines from the filter/separators and pressure relief valves that go to the product recovery tank. blue lines are the pump discharge and fueling loop up to and including the 58AF-9-1 (BPC/FV), 58AF-3(PCV), and the 136AF-5B(FV).
what alarm annunciators are required on the type 4 pump control panel?: low level alarms, high level alarms, high high level alarms, leak detectors, vapor detectors, receiving bypass valve open, pump failure, microprocessor system faults, and any other conditions that may be deemed important to that particular system.
list the conditions that cause the vibrating horn to sound in a type 4 system.: pump number 1 failure, pump number 2 failure, high level alarm tank number 1, high level alarm tank number 2, high level oil water separator, system 1 fault, system 2 fault, high differential pressure drop receiving filter/separator, high level product recovery tank, product recovery tank overfill valve closed, product recovery tank leak, or an engine generator fault.
list the conditions that cause the resonating horn to sound in a type 4 system.: emergency stop, low level operating tank number 1(if the outlet valve is not fully closed), low level operating tank number 2(if the outlet valve is not fully closed), high high level operating tank number 1, high high level operating tank number 2.
what does the pressure/flow recorder tell you about the type 4 system?: it provides not only an immediate indication of the pressure and flow rates while the system is operating, but also a history of prior operations.
what are the four positions of the system selector switch of a type 4 system?: refueling, off, loop flush, or pantograph flush mode operation.
how many microprocessors are in a type 4 system?: 2
when do you get an invalid entry indication on the PCP address parameter on a type 4 system?: when a value is entered into an address that is not within the range of that parameter.
in a type 4 system why should you rotate the pump you use as the lead pump?: so all pumps have basically the same amount of running time.
explain what happens to the 58AF-9-1 and the 136AF-5B valves when a type 4 system is placed in the loop flush mode.: solenoid B on the 58AF-9-1 BPC/FV is energized, allowing the valve to open with any flow of fuel. the 136AF-5B FV solenoid is de energized to allow the valve to open.
when does the 58AF-3 solenoid energize during the loop flush mode?: place their auto off hand selector switch to the hand position. this starts the pump and closes the 58AF-3 PCV by energizing the solenoid.
in flushing the loop of a type 4 system how much fuel must be pumped?: completely flush the type 4 system with twice the line capacity
what happens when a type 4 system is placed in the pantograph flush mode?: the 136AF-5B flush valve solenoid energizes to close the main valve. solenoid B on the 58AF-9-1 BPC/FV is energized, allowing the valve to open with any flow of fuel.
what happens to the 58AF-3 and the 58E-47 valves when a type 4 system is placed in the pantograph flush mode and the pumps are started?: the solenoid on the 58AF-3 is energized to close the main valve, and the solenoid on the 58E-47 is energized, allowing the valve to open at 75psi.
how many pantographs can be flushed at one time during the pantograph flush mode?: pantograph flushing is performed at only one pantograph at a time. once you completely flush the first pantograph, repeat the flushing procedure at each pantograph.
what type of piping is used on the receiving line of a type 4 system if the pipe is 2 inches in diameter?: epoxy coated carbon steel, Schedule 80S.
what is the primary method of receiving fuel in a type 4 system?: barges or pipelines.
what automatic valve is used as the receiving filter/separator control valve in a type 4 system?: the 40-27G valve.
what valve is used on a type 4 cut and cover tank for high level shutoff?: the 129AF-3F valve.
once a type 4 operating storage tank high level alarm has been activated and acknowledged by the operator, when does the high level light go out?: when fuel is removed to a level below the high level alarm setting.
what is the purpose of the limit switch on the type 4 product recovery tank high level shutoff valve?: to signal the microprocessor when the main valve is closed.
to what psi differential is the pressure differential control on the type 4 emergency shutoff valve adjusted?: 7 psi.
what type swivel joints are installed on a type 4 hoseless pantograph?: stainless steel, nonlubricated, flanged.
what type of refueling hose is installed on a type 4 hose end pantograph?: 3 inch, API 1529, semi hardwall.
what position is the solenoid B of the 58AF-9-1 defuel/flush valve in during pantograph flushing, and what does it cause the main valve to do?: energized, open.
when is the solenoid in the 58AF-3 pressure control valve in the type 4 system de energized?: when all pumps are off.
what valve is used as the flush valve in a type 4 system?: the 136AF-5B valve.
when a type 4 system is placed in the pantograph flush mode, what happens to the flush valve?: the solenoid is energized and the main valve closes.
what is the flow rate range of the high range differential pressure transmitters on the type 4 return venturi?: 0-800gpm.
what condition would cause a resonating horn to sound in a type 4 system?: emergency stop.
where are the pressure indicating transmitters located in a type 4 system?: on the issue line downstream of the 136AF-9B
when refueling in the refueling mode of a type 4 system, what is the condition of solenoid A on the 58AF-9-1 defuel/flush valve?: energized enabled.
during an aircraft refueling in a type 4 system, where does flow increase as flow demand decreases through the 362AF-7 refueling control valve?: through the return venturi
when a type 4 system is placed in the loop flush mode, what happens to the 136AF-5B flush valve?: the solenoid is deenergized to open the main valve.
when a type 4 system is placed in the pantograph flush mode, what happens to the 136AF-5B flush valve?: the solenoid is energized to close the main valve.
how long will it take 3 POL RURK team members to repair an in crater 6" pipeline?: 1 hour and 45 minutes
what is the total pumping capacity of the Harvest Eagle raw water subsystem to the treatment site?: 250gpm
at what point is uneven setteling considered dangerous for a floating roof tank?: 5 inches

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Created By waterhead42