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101.1 Describe the basic requirements for each of the following Navy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH) programs:

A) Respiratory Protection Program
B) Hearing Conservation Program
C) Sight Conservation Program
D) Personal P
A) Respiratory Protection Program

A program which identifies Employees as requiring respirator protection equipment due to the nature of their work or job.

1) Personnel, such as employees, inspectors and visitors who must enter an area where the use of respirators for 15 minutes or less, shall be provided and use the appropriate respirator equipment.

2) These provisions do not apply to contractors who are responsible for their own respirator protection.

B) Hearing Conservation Program
A program which surveys and identifies potentially hazardous noise levels and personnel at risk.

1) Environments that contain or equipment that produces potentially hazardous noise levels shall whenever it is technology and economically feasible, be modified to reduce the noise level to acceptable levels.

2) Periodic hearing testing shall be conducted to monitor the effectiveness of the hearing conservation program.

3) Education of individuals, their supervisors and people providing hearing conservation services to these individuals is vital to the overall success of hearing conservation program.

C) Sight Conservation Program
A program which surveys all activity work areas equipment and processes to determine which are eye hazards, which personnel require eye protection and what type of protection is required.

1) In addition the common eye hazards the survey shall also consider the eye hazard associated with exposure to various forms of electromagnetic radiation.

2) There shall be written certification that the hazard assessments have been made, shall identify the name of the person making the certification, date of the hazard assessment, and shall identify all areas designated as eye hazard.

3) All eye hazard areas shall have the appropriate warning signs posted.

4) Eye wash stations shall be provided in all areas where any employee may be exposed to corrosive materials.

5) Any employee with 20/200(corrected) in one eye shall be considered visually impaired.

a) And not assigned duties, which would present a hazard to his/her remaining eye. Required wearing eye protection to protect their remaining sight even if they do not work in eye hazard areas.

D) Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
A program which assess all workplaces to determined if hazards are present that necessitate the use of Personal Protective Equipment.

1) If such hazards are present, or likely to be present, the following actions shall be accomplished.

a) Verify that the workplace hazard assessment has been performed through a written certification that identifies the workplace evaluated, the person certifying that the evaluation has been performed, the date's) of assessment, and which identifies the document as a certification of hazard assessment.

b) Select and have each affected employee use the types of PPE that will protect them from the hazards identified in the hazard assessment.

c) Communicate selection decisions to each affected employee.
101.2 Identify the F/A-18 danger areas.
A) Flammable liquids, compressed gasses .- areas including hydraulic reservoirs, fuel tanks, nitrogen charge struts, high pressure accumulators

B) Canopy, seat and DFIRS explosive devices- many explosive devices are located throughout the airframe which have rocket motors, initiators and thrusters also controls that require special handling.

C) Airframe and external stores-external fuel tanks, vertical ejection racks missiles launchers and conventional /nuclear weapons loaded on the wing or fuselage centerline pylons may be ejected. The area near those devices must be considered hazardous.

D) Engine- danger areas resulting from engine operation are related to exhaust velocity and temperature, air intakes and high noise levels.

E) Radar antenna- operation of the radar makes this a radiation hazard to personnel.

F) APU exhaust - extreme caution should be used during aircraft start up this hazard area presents a high temperature danger.
101.3 Identify the minimum safe distance safe distances from turning aircraft intakes/exhaust at the following power settings: (Note: difference in the exhaust safe distance is due to first being temperature safe distance second being velocity safe dista
A) Idle - 9 feet radius intake / 115-155 feet from exhaust

B) MILITARY - 25 feet radius from intake / 325-725 feet from exhaust

C) MAXIMUM - 25 feet radius from intake / 850-925 feet from exhaust
101.4 State the purpose and identify the location of the aircraft STEP, NO STEP areas:
Areas to avoid are your leading edge flaps, Trailing edge flaps, horizontal stabilators, ailerons, and radome surfaces. Areas that are designated, as walkways will have a non-skid on the surface also the wings themselves are considered walkways.

1) Protective shoe covering should always be used worn when walking on aircraft.

2) To avoid in damaging the composite material through out the aircraft structure extreme caution should be used with toolboxes and heavy parts with sharp edges.
101.5 State the general safety precautions associated with applying and removing external power.
1) Circuit breakers and switches must be position as specified in the required MIMS. Failure to comply may cause aircraft systems to be energized to an in flight condition resulting in injury to personnel or damage to equipment. (Example; pitot tubes)

2) To prevent shock and damage to aircraft inspect power cables and cable assembly plugs for pin internal corrosion and damage or missing insulator washer or sleeves.

3) Ensure power source is secured prior to application and removal.

4) If using a mobile power unit ensure power unit is chocked and facing away from aircraft.
101.6 Identify the personnel danger areas during Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) operations.
1) At the most center point of the APU exhaust it's exhaust velocity reaches 142 MPH from exhaust to the deck with a temperature of 328-350 Fahrenheit degrees.

2) At 19-inch diameter the exhaust reaches a 24-MPH with a temperature range of 250-300 Fahrenheit. NOTE: This poses an extreme danger to anyone that might be working underneath the aft section of the aircraft. Or a fire hazard should a puddle of fuel or flammable solvent may be on the deck.
101.7 State the precautions/restrictions that apply to performing maintenance on ordnance loaded aircraft.
1) Major maintenance on aircraft is prohibited.

2) Minor maintenance and routine servicing necessary to ready the aircraft for the next launch may be conducted after all weapons have been safeties to the maximum degree as specified in loading check list.
101.8 Identify the precautions that must be observed when handling graphite or carbon/epoxy composite materials.
Wear respirators and goggles when exposed to these materials and in addition, wear close weave cotton gloves when handling these materials.

1) Composite material normally does not present a hazard until the composite material is broken and fiber has been exposed raising health concerns.

2) Fiber will embed into exposed skin and become difficult to remove

3) The inhalation of graphite composite fibers resulting from aircraft fires and/or aircraft material damage may be harmful to personnel.
102.1 State the number of tie-down points on the F/A-18 Hornet and identify their location.
1) There are 12 tie down points.
A) 1, 2 - Nose landing gear.
B) 3 - Bottom fwd fuselage, behind drag brace.
C) 4, 6, 8 - Left main landing gear.
D) 5, 7, 9 - Right main landing gear.
E) 10, 11 - Port/STBD wing.
F) 12 - Bottom aft fuselage fwd tail hook.
102.2 State the proper procedures for aircraft grounding.
1) Aircraft are required to be grounded during maintenance and ordnance loading.
2) Ground to earth first then to one of the a/c grounding points.
102.3 State the purpose of aircraft plugs and covers.
To protect a/c opening and protruding surfaces from physical and environmental damage and FOD intrusion.
102.4 Discuss the requirements, duties, and responsibilities of the following Aircraft Handling Team personnel:
* Note - All move team will have whistles at the ready during a/c movement.
1. Move Director
2. Brake Rider
3. Chock Walk
1. Move Director
A) Prime responsibility lies with the director for the aircraft movement.
B) Ensures a qualified brake rider mans cockpit.
C) Ensures tow bar is secure prior to movement.
D) Ensures a/c is ready for the move.
E) Ensures a/c has enough brake pressure.
F) Ensures enough clearance all around the a/c for and during the move.
G) Sets the pace to a slow walking speed.

2. Brake Rider
A) Conducts a pre-movement inspection of a/c ensuring a/c has all safety equipment installed. (Seat Pins / landing gear safety pins)
B) Ensures a/c is free from servicing equipment / external cords.
C) Ensures a/c has enough brake pressure.
D) Stays alert during entire a/c move while not leaving the cockpit until a/c is final spotted.

3. Chock Walker
A) Pulls and installs chocks when instructed by the director.
B) Stays alert to director's signals.
C) Ensures a/c is ready for move.
D) Free of any chains, power cords, and servicing equipment.
E) Watches out for ground obstacles and warns the director accordingly.
F) Stays in a relatively safe position of aircraft wheels.

4. Safety Observer (Wing-Walker/Tail-Walker)
A) Conduct's a pre-tow inspection of the a/c.
B) Ensures safety pins are installed.
C) Ensures a/c is ready for move.
D) Ensures a/c is free of chains, cable cords, and support equipment.
E) Ensures a/c will clear all obstructions during movement.

5. Tractor Driver
A) Tows a/c at a slow walking speed avoiding sudden stops or starts.
B) Pre-OP's tractor ensuring the support equipment is up and ready.
C) Follows instructions from the director while avoiding any and all obstructions.
102.5 Discuss towing preparations.
1) Minimum structural access doors must be installed to prevent damage to a/c.
2) Radome must be closed and secured (if installed).
3) Do not tow a/c with doors 68 L/R open. (engine bay doors).
4) Ensure a/c emergency brake accumulator pressure gauge reads 2900 psi minimum.
5) Ensure a/c is clear of all obstacles and support equipment.
102.6 State the purpose of the landing gear aircraft ground safety pins.
Landing gear safety pins safeties nose and main landing gear in the down position, preventing gear retraction.
102.7 Describe the hazard associated with canopy satic buildup.
During flight a high voltage (100,000 volts) static electrical charge may build up and be stored in the windshield and canopy. This is a hazard to touch unless it is discharged using a static charge removal kit.
103.1 State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.
1) Patch testing is the primary contamination measurement method used at all levels of maintenance.

2) Aids in determining fluid contamination level, ensuring a high level of fluid purity.
103.2 State the purpose of a tactical paint scheme.
1) Are applied to an a/c to lessen the probability of visual or photographic detection.

2) Used for deception, reduction of detection range, or to confuse and mislead observers.
103.3 State the purpose of the following publications and their application to the F/A-18:
A. NAVAIR 01-1A-509

A. NAVAIR 01-1A-509

1) Provides information on material and procedures for the prevention and repair of corrosion damage to equipment on land and sea.

2) Supervisory and maintenance personnel shall use this manual as a guide for all corrosion control and maintenance efforts.

3) Contractors who are required to maintain and repair corrosion of aircraft and related equipment shall use this manual.


1 Provides corrosion control procedures for organizational, intermediate, and depot levels of Maintenance.

2) Should be used with NA 01-1A-509.

3) When tasks are identified as intermediate or depot they will be identified as within each specific procedure work package.
103.4 State the three modes of wheel brake operation.
1) Normal brake

2) Emergency brake

3) Parking brake
103.5 Discuss the purpose of composite airframe materials.
1) New materials are used in aircraft to limit weight, decrease effects of corrosion attack and to increase strength.

2) All composites are used for high performance composite structure, both monolithic and sandwich material.
103.6 Discuss the following repair terms:

A. Temporary Repair
B. One-time flight
C. Permanent repair
A. Temporary Repair

1) One, which may allow aircraft to be flown until permanent repair can be made.

2) Normally restores full load carrying capabilities to required structure member.

3) May be lacking from the standpoint of interchangeability off parts, aerodynamically, or with respect to fatigue life.

4) Normal temporary repair will be removed and permanent repair installed at earliest practical time.

5) Instructions for temporary repair include information on flight restriction which must be observed until permanent have been completed .

6) Temporary repairs are as simple and practical as possible.

B. One-time flight

1) Repair made to restore limited load carrying requirements to allow an aircraft to be flown to a repair station for permanent repairs.

2) Instructions for one time flight repair include all information on flight restrictions, which must be observed during ferry flight.

C. Permanent repair

Repair equals or exceeds strength of original structure or component with no adverse affects on structural integrity, fatigue life, safety , or flying characteristics.
104.1 State the type and identify the models of engines used in the F/A-18.


1) FAN








1) 161353 - 164692 : F404-GE400 ENGINE

2) 164693 & UP : F404-GE402 ENGINE
104.2 State the three modes of operation for the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU).


104.3 State the purpose and identify the location of the In-Flight Refueling (IFR) probe.


104.4 Explain the purpose of the Aircraft Fuel Storage system.



A) INTERNAL - 10,200 LBS.

B) W/1 DROP TANK - 13,500 LBS.

C) W/2 DROP TANKS - 15,000 LBS.

D) W/3 DROP TANKS - 17,500 LBS.
104.5 State the purpose of the foam-lined wing tanks.



105.1 State the difference between a barometric and radar altimeter.
1) BAROMETRIC ALTIMETER - uses pitot-static pressure to indicate altitude above sea level.

a) the scale for barometric altimeter starts at 29.92 inches in mercury

2) RADAR ALTIMETER - uses radio echoes to determine altitude above ground level. (Terrain)
105.2 Define the following terms:
1) AZIMUTH - Angle of position of bearing. (measured clockwise).

2) BEARING - Angle of position of object.

3) RANGE - distance to the target or station.

4) HEADING - the direction you are pointing.

1) True heading - direction measured by true north.

2) Magnetic direction - direction based on the 360-azimuth circle going counter clockwise (with the 0/360-azimuth radial aligned with magnetic north).

3) Relative direction - uses the current direction that an object is facing as the 0/360-azimuth alignment.
106.1 State the objective of the Explosive Qualification and Certification Program
To ensure military and civilian personnel are qualified / certified in the safe handling, stowage and transportation of ordnance in which they are associated with.
106.2 State the purpose of suspension/accessory equipment.
To suspend single stores, bombs, and a variety of missile launchers.
106.3 State the purpose of an impulse cartridge (Cartridge Actuated Devices (CADS)
To eject single stores and a variety of weapons from the aircraft.
106.4 State the purpose of the following types of free-fall weapons/stores:
A) Cluster Bomb Units (CBUs)
B) Fire bombs
C) Air-laid Mines
D) Glide weapons
E) Pyrotechnics
F) Practice Bombs
A) Cluster Bomb Units (CBUs)- Free fall weapon containing several small bomblettes used against armored vehicles.

B) Fire bombs- Used against dug in troops.

C) Air-laid Mines- Used to defend our straights, port approaches and coastal barriers.

D) Glide weapons- Designed to deliver self guided high explosive weapons from the attacking aircraft. Does not have a rocket motor (propulsion section)

E) Pyrotechnics- Used for signaling, marking, and search and rescue.

F) Practice Bombs- Inexpensive way to keep our pilots trained.
106.5 Define the following acronyms:

A) AIM- Air-launched intercept-aerial guided missile. (Air intercept missile).

B) AGM- Air-launched surface-attack guided missile. (Air to ground missile).

C) CATM- Captive air training missile.

D) HERO- Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance.

1) OP3565 is the main hero manual.

2) NAVAIR11-1-529 (not as in-depth as OP3565)
106.6 Describe the application of the following types of bombs:

A) Retarded
B) Nonretarded
A) Retarded- slows the weapon down before it gets to the target in order to allow the jet to get away from bomb. Used for low level bombing missions.

B) Nonretarded- No means to slow bomb down. Used in high level bombing missions where the pilot and aircraft are safe from the bombs detonation.
106.7 Explain the significance of the following color coding on weapons:

A) Yellow
B) Brown
C) Blue
A) Yellow- Missile is a high explosive. (Can be seen from afar).

B) Brown- Missile has a live rocket motor.

C) Blue- Inert and for training use only.
106.8 Define the following types of weapon guided systems:

A) Active
B) Semi-active
C) Passive
A) Active- missile is self-guiding and works by itself.

1) Sends and receives its own signal.

B) Semi-active- Needs independent or external source to track and lock on target.
1) Any a/c can send out a signal to target and missile receives the signal back to lock on to target.
C) Passive- Heat seeking infrared.

1) Locks onto heat.
106.9 Describe the purpose of chaff and flares as countermeasure devices.

A) Chaff
B) Flares
A) Chaff - Very fine pieces of metal that are expelled into the airway.

1) Used for radar guided missiles.

2) Degrades launching missiles target lock.

3) F/A-18 can carry four buckets of chaff / each bucket carries 30 tubes.

B) Flares - Used for heat seeking infrared missiles.

1) F/A-18 can carry four buckets of flares / each bucket carries 30 flares.

2) A flare reaches 4000 degrees Fahrenheit.
107.1 Identify the minimum requirements for aircrew Personnel Protective Equipment
1) Flight suit (aremid6 cloth)

2) Aircrew fliers boots

3) Anti-g garment

4) Helmet

5) Survival radio/beacon

6) Aviator flight gloves (aremid cloth)

7) Anti-exposure suit

8) Identification tags (dog tags)

9) Survival knife and sheath

10) Personal survival kit

11) Signal device

12) Flashlight

13) Life preserver

14) Laser eye protection
107.2 State the purpose of the Environmental Control System (ECS.)
Provides aircrew comfort (i.e.. pressurization/temp. control) and avionics cooling. (Has 14 subsystems)
107.3 State the purpose of the following personal flight equipment:
A. Oxygen Mask
B. Oxygen Regulator
C. Life Preserver
D. Anti-Gravity (ANTI-G) suit
A. Oxygen Mask

1) designed to be worn over the face, forming a seal to the cheeks over the bridge of the nose and under the chin.

2) Used with a regulator which provides breathing gas upon demand at a

Pressure schedule dependent on the altitude.

3) Used for helmet retention when properly fitted.

4) Used for the valsalvo movement.

B. Oxygen Regulator

Reduces and regulates supply oxygen pressure for breathing.

C. Life Preserver

Designed as a constant wear item for use with the SV-2B survival vest or integrated torso harness and provides a minimum of 65 pounds of buoyancy.

D. Anti-Gravity (ANTI-G) suit

Provides protection for the aircrew man against the effect of the high g-forces experienced in high performance aircraft.
107.4 State the objective of the Egress Systems Checkout Certification Program.
1) To thoroughly familiarize personnel working in or around the cockpit with the ejection Systems / Any special hazards associated with those systems, and to routinely monitor all such qualified personnel.

2) All maintenance personnel must qualify upon arrival to command / prior to working on a/c.

3) All qualified personnel must re-qualify every 6 months.

4) TAD personnel must re-qualify after being away from command for 90 days.
107.5 State the purpose of the ejection seat.
1) For supplying a place for the aircrew to sit during normal conditions.

2) For propelling an occupant out and away from the aircraft in an emergency condition.

a) Automatic cartridge operated and rocket assisted.
107.6 Define the following conditions:

A. Hypoxia
B. Anoxia
A. Hypoxia

The higher the altitude the amount of oxygen per unit of volume of air decreases, there for the oxygen intake is reduced unless the individual breaths additional oxygen the eyes, body, and muscles will fail.

B. Anoxia

Complete lack of oxygen.
107.7 Identify the two types of Aviator's Breathing Oxygen (ABO.)
A) gaseous oxygen (type I)

B) Liquid oxygen (type II)
108.1 Define and explain the following acronyms:


1) Protection against enemy air attacks.

2) Contained to a specific area.

3) Electronic warfare.

B) WAS (WAR AT SEA) - Bombing ships.

C) CAS (CLOSE AIR SUPPORT) - Bombing in support of ground troops.

D) MAS (MARITIME AIR SUPERIORITY) - We have air superiority.


F) CAC (COMBAT AIR CONTROL) - Drilling holes in the sky while watching for threatening a/c.


1) Checking a/c to ensure everything is working correctly.

2) Four types - A, B, C, D

3) A type must be done if a/c not flown for 30 days.

H) FCLP (FIELD CARRIER LANDING PRACTICE) - Practice landing for carriers done on land.
108.2 Define and explain the following acronyms:

A) VMC (VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS). - Expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling equal to or better than specified minimums. (blue skies)

B) IMC (INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS) - Expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling less than the minima specified.

C) VFR (VISUAL FLIGHT RULES) - Rules that govern the procedures for conducting flights under visual conditions.

1) Flying in accordance with the see-and-avoid concept.

2) Pilot is responsible for his/her own separation from other aircraft under most circumstances.

3) Certain weather minimums are required for such flight.

D) IFR (INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES) - Rules for governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight.

1) Pilots must comply with IFR procedures when operating their aircraft in weather conditions that are less than VFR minimums.

2) Pilots are encouraged to use IFR procedures when their flight is conducted within the Federal Airway System.

3) Required adherence to:

a) When flights are conducted along jet routes. (Operations parallel to and within 10 miles of the established centerline)

b) Anytime aircraft are operated in established positive control zones.

c) Flights to and from targets or operating areas when practicable.

d) When performing instrument approaches.
108.3 Discuss the purpose of the Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC)
(CATCC) - 1) Primary control of airborne aircraft operating from the carrier except those Authority. (Ship/airfield)

2) Status and upkeep of all carrier air operations!
108.4 Describe the following:

A) Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS)

B) Manual Operated Visual Landing Aid System (MOVLAS)
A) Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS)

Provides the pilot with a visual indication of his/her relative position with respect to a prescribed glide slope.

1) Glide scope - designed to bring the aircraft down to the deck, within the cross-deck pendant pattern, with a sage arresting hook clearance above the stern ramp of the carrier.

B) Manual Operated Visual Landing Aid System (MOVLAS)

An emergency signaling system that is intended to be used when the primary optical landing system is rendered inoperative.

1) Works the same as the FLOLS but it's a smaller version.
201.1.1 Aircraft Structure:
Discribe the following functions and locations:
A. Radome: coordinate 128.50.
B. Forward Fuselage:
C. Center Fuselage:
D. Aft Fuselage:
E. Wing:
F. Leading Edge Extension (LEX):
A. Radome: Provides an electrically transparent window for transmission and reception of radar signals. Spans from Y coordinate 60.50 to Y coordinate 128.50.

B. Forward Fuselage: Spans from Y coordinate 128.50 to Y coordinate 383.00 or from the end of the Nose Radome to the forward edge of panel 26.

C. Center Fuselage: Spans from Y coordinate 383.00 to Y coordinate 557.50 or from the forward edge of panel 26 to the aft edge of panel 55L/R.

D. Aft Fuselage: Spans from Y coordinate 557.50 to the end of the aircraft or from panel 54L/R to the exhaust nozzles.

E. Wing: Provides lift for the aircraft, stores fuel, houses LEF's, TEF's and Ailerons, outboard section folds for carrier operation, allows for attachment of non jettison able pylons for weapons/fuel stores. Attached to the center fuselage by wall lugs which mate lugs on the wing main torque box.

F. Leading Edge Extension (LEX): Provides added lift at high angles of attack. Mounted on either side of the Forward Fuselage they are an extension of the wing leading edge. The port LEX houses the Boarding Ladder.
201.1.2 Flight Control Surfaces
Discribe the following functions and locations:
A. Ailerons:
B. Leading Edge Flaps:
C. Trailing Edge Flaps:
D. Stabilators:
E. Rudders:
F. Speed brake:
A. Ailerons: In flight, the ailerons are commanded asymmetrically to produce roll motion. The ailerons are located on the outboard trailing edge of each wing.

B. Leading Edge Flaps: When taking off or landing the leading edge flaps deflects symmetrically to change lift. In flight they deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion. The leading edge flaps are located on the inboard and outboard leading edge of each wing.

C. Trailing Edge Flaps: When taking off or landing the leading edge flaps deflects symmetrically to change lift. In flight they independently deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion. The trailing edge flaps are located on the trailing edge of each wing.

D. Stabilators: The stabilators deflect symmetrically to produce pitch motion and asymmetrically to produce roll motion. The stabilators are located on either side of the tail of the aircraft.

E. Rudders: During take off or landing when the AOA is less than 8 degrees the rudders toe-in to increase lift and improve stability, when AOA is more than 8 degrees the rudders toe-out to improve stability. In flight the rudders are commanded symmetrically to produce yaw motion. The rudders are located on the rear of each vertical stabilizer.

F. Speed brake: Under certain conditions the speed brake may be extended into the air stream creating drag and slowing the aircraft's airspeed. The speed brake is located on top of the Aft Fuselage between the vertical stabilizers.
201.1.3 Hydraulics
Discribe the following functions and locations:
A. Hydraulic System 1:
B. Hydraulic System 2:
C. Auxiliary Power Unit Accumulator:
D. Switching Valves:
A. Hydraulic System 1: Provides hydraulic fluid pressure to the primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source.

B. Hydraulic System 2: Provides hydraulic fluid pressure to the primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source. The system also supplies pressure to all other non-flight control systems.

C. Auxiliary Power Unit Accumulator: Provides required fluid pressure to the APU start and emergency hydraulic systems.

D. Switching Valves: Each switching valve allows backup hydraulic pressure to replace the primary hydraulic pressure, if the primary hydraulic pressure fails. If primary hydraulic is restored, the switching valve shifts to normal operating position.
201.1.4 Landing Gear
Discribe the following functions and locations:
A. Nose Landing Gear:
B. Main Landing Gear:
C. Wheel Brakes:
D. Launch Bar:
E. Arresting Hook:
A. Nose Landing Gear: Provides landing, takeoff and taxi energy absorption, and tire/runway compliance. Located on the underside of the Forward Fuselage.

B. Main Landing Gear: Provides a stable platform for aircraft carrier and shore based operations. Also absorbs the energy from ground loads during landing and taxi operations. Located on the underside of the Center Fuselage.

C. Wheel Brakes: Provides pilot modulated individual wheel-controlled braking. An anti skid system is combined with the normal system to prevent wheel skid. Located on the main landing gear wheels.

D. Launch Bar: Provides a means of steering the aircraft during carrier deck tracking and engages the catapult, applying catapult tow forces to the aircraft. Located on the forward side of the nose landing gear shock strut.

E. Arresting Hook: Provides a means of stopping the aircraft where normal runway landings are not available. Located on the underside of the Aft Fuselage.
201.1.5 Environmental Control Systems
Discribe the following functions and locations:
A. Bleed Air System:
B. Air Cycle Air Conditioning System:
C. Anti-Gravity System:
D. Oxygen System:
E. On-Board Oxygen Generating Syst
A. Bleed Air System: Engine bleed air is extracted from the last compressor stage of both engines, regulated and routed to the air cycle air conditioning system.

B. Air Cycle Air Conditioning System: Cools and conditions hot bleed air for use in various aircraft systems.

C. Anti-Gravity System: Automatically regulates the air to the pilot's anti-g suit to increase pilot tolerance to high acceleration levels.

D. Oxygen System: In bunos 161353 thru 164068, oxygen is supplied from a 10 liter liquid oxygen system. Oxygen is routed from the left console to the ejection seat, through the survival kit, to the pilot's oxygen regulator connector.

E. On-Board Oxygen Generating System: On bunos 164196 and up OBOGS removes nitrogen and other contaminants from engine bleed air. The resultant product gas is an oxygen rich breathing mixture for pilots use.
201.1.6 Egress Systems
Discribe the following functions and locations:
A. Ejection Seat System:
B. Canopy System:
C. Emergency Oxygen System:
A. Ejection Seat System: Provides support for the crewmember during normal flight conditions and a method of escape from the aircraft during emergency conditions.

B. Canopy System: Provides entry to the cockpit and protects the crewmember from the elements. May be operated electrically or manually and can be jettisoned in an emergency.

C. Emergency Oxygen System: Oxygen is required at altitudes over 10,000 feet. The emergency oxygen bottle, located in the ejection seat survival kit, is actuated automatically upon ejection or manually in the case of an oxygen system failure.
201.1.7 Fire Systems

Discribe the following functions and locations:
A. Fire Detection System:
B. Fire Extinguishing System:
A. Fire Detection System: Provides fire warning for the APU bay, left and right AMAD bays and the left and right engine bays. Warning lights in the cockpit and a voice alert indicate fire conditions.

B. Fire Extinguishing System: A one-shot one-bay system using a single fire extinguisher. During ground operation of the APU the system is automatic. During flight the pilot manually selects the bay and discharges the extinguisher.
201.2.1Electronic Flight Control System:
Discribe the following functions and locations:
The Electronic flight control system is made up of two flight control computers, control surface servo actuators, air data and inertial sensors and control sensors. The system also includes a built-in test to provide failure warning and fault isolation. The flight control computers combine inputs with air data and inertial inputs and provide electrical signals to servo actuators. The servo actuators move control surfaces the direction and amount required to produce desired aircraft motion.
201.2.2 Purpose of the Backup Mechanical System:
Discribe the following functions and locations:
Provides automatic connection of a direct mechanical link from the stick to the differential stabilator servo actuators. This provides limited pitch and roll control after a complete electrical failure or complete failure of both flight control computers.
201.2.3 Emergency Extension of the Landing Gear:
Discribe the following functions and locations:
Emergency extension is primarily free fall aided by stored energy in the MLG shock absorber and hydraulic system no. 2B pressure. Hydraulic system no. 2B pressure is supplied by the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) and emergency brake accumulators and serves to unlock the landing gear up lock mechanisms and aid in landing gear down lock. Emergency extension is controlled by the LDG GEAR control.
201.5.1 Discribe the following functions and safety Precautions:

A. Ejection Seat Safe/Armed Handle:
B. Canopy Jettison Ground Safety Pin:
C. Canopy Normal System:
D. Liquid Oxygen:
a. Ejection Seat

1. Main Firing Handle Safety Pin: Safeties the ejection control handle during all ground parking, servicing and towing. It is inserted through the hole in the base of the ejection control handle.

2. Ejection Seat Safe/Armed Handle: Safeties the ejection control handle, preventing accidental seat ejection. In the safe position it is rotated full up and forward to the locked SAFE position.

b. Canopy Jettison System

1. Canopy Jettison Ground Safety Pin: Safeties the internal CANOPY JETT lever, preventing accidental canopy jettison by movement of internal CANOPY JETT lever. The pin must penetrate internal CANOPY JETT lever mounting plate and initiator lever to prevent accidental canopy jettison.

c. Canopy Normal System

1. Make sure the windshield and canopy static charge is removed.

2. Canopy must be closed and locked in winds over 60 knots.

3. Do not move aircraft until access to cockpit is possible.

4. Snow must be removed prior to opening.

5. Canopy should not be operated when ambient temperature is below 0 degrees F.

6. Inspect canopy sills and dorsal deck for foreign objects prior to closing canopy.

d. Liquid Oxygen

1. Oxygen in its liquid form has a temperature of -297 degrees Fahrenheit. Do not touch implements containing LOX or wear clothing not specified in the NA 13-1-6.4.

2. LOX has an expansion ratio of 862 to 1 and can generate up to 12,000 psi if allowed to evaporate in a sealed container. Do not cap vent ports on liquid oxygen systems.

3. Many materials will burn violently when saturated with liquid oxygen. An enriched-oxygen fire is virtually impossible to extinguish until the oxygen supply is cut off. Hydrocarbons will burn explosively when saturated with oxygen and subjected to mild shock or impact.
Referring to a standard illustration of this system or the actual equipment, identify the following system components and component parts and discuss the designated items for each.

a. What is its function?

b. Where is it located?
a. Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) - to provide pneumatic air for motoring over/starting a main engine or to drive an AMAD, can also be used for ground check out of the ECS. Located in door 52.

b. Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive (AMAD) - each AMAD drives a hydraulic pump, generator and motive flow boost pump. Located in door 53 L/R.

c. Secondary Power Compressed Air - provides pneumatic power for operating the air turbine starter or the environmental control system. An air connection is located in the right well wheel and allows use of an external air source for system operation (huffer starts).
202.2.1 State the components driven by the Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive (AMAD)
Hydraulic pump, generator and motive flow boost pump.
202.4.1 How does the AMAD interface with the APU and engine?
The AMAD is pneumatically connected to APU through the air turbine starter (ATS). The AMAD transmits power from the ATS to the engine for starting and motoring. Power to drive the AMAD accessories is provided by the engine during normal operation and by the APU in the ground maintenance mode of operation.
202.5.1 What safety precautions must be observed during engine ground turn-up?
-Operation of APU or engines to test for fuel leaks in the engine, AMAD or APU areas is not authorized.

-Do not operate engine with TTU-205 test set connected. Engine may go to high power due to N2 lock-up function.

-Do not enter area of 9 foot radius of engine inlets while engines are at idle and 25 foot while at MIL or MAX power.

-On engines equipped with Viton coated outer bypass ducts, combustion can produce toxic fumes of hydrogen floride and carbonyl floride.

-To prevent damage to newly installed engines, service oil system.

-To prevent damage to newly installed engine, motor at 29-35% rpm for 3 minutes and ensure oil pressure gets to 10 psi within 30 seconds and fuel flow is zero.

-If ambient temperature is 45 deg F or below and dew point is within 7 deg F of ambient temperature, the ground run up screen may be used with continual observation for ice build up on the air inlet leading edge and screen. If ice forms shut down.

-To prevent engine damage, if temperature is below 45 deg F engine anti-ice must be turned on.

-If ambient temperature is below 32 deg F or below and precipitation exists, ground run up screens are not recommended.

-To prevent engine damage do not try to start or motor engine after emergency shut down until the malfunction has been corrected.

-To prevent fuel spillage, if two starts are tried on one engine or previous starts/shutdowns since flight or tank draining is unknown, drain fuel dump catch tank before attempting another start.

-If visible tailpipe fire occurs, chop throttle to off. If fire continues, push left or right engine fire warning light. Be sure APU ready light is on or external air or crossbleed air is available to motor engine. When engine speed drops to 20 % N2, move engine crank switch of affected engine. Allow to motor for up to 5 minutes to extinguish fire. Move engine crank switch to off. If fire continues, discharge ground extinguisher into tail pipe.

-Normal brake pressure is not available with out right engine operating. To maintain aircraft control, make sure parking brake is set.

-To prevent damage to fuselage formers if stabilator is to be operated, doors 68 L/R must be closed, top row of fasteners installed and lockset assemblies secured.
202.5.2 What special safety precautions apply to?

a. Fueling

b. Defueling
-Never refuel during aircraft maintenance.

-Aircraft with suspected hot brakes shall not be refueled.

-Make sure aircraft and fuel servicing equipment are grounded.

-Make sure fire fighting equipment is available.

-Inspect refueling nozzle locking device to make sure aircraft ground refuel/defuel receptacle is serviceable.

-Make sure vent outlets on each vertical stabilizer and pressure relief vents on each external tank are not obstructed.

-Make sure refueling is not done within 100 feet of operating airborne type radio or radar equipment or within 300 feet of ground radar equipment.

-Make sure refueling is not done within 50 feet of other aircraft with engines operating.

-Operation of auxiliary power unit (APU) is prohibited during refueling.

-Loose metal objects, such as knifes, keys, or other objects which might produce sparks, should not be carried or worn.

-Never refuel during electrical storms.

-Do not carry matches or cigarette lighters.

-Shoes with exposed nails, metal plates or hobnails shall not be worn.

-All ordnance shall be safetied.

-Fuel pressure from servicing equipment shall not exceed 55 psi. If all foam in a wing tank has been replaced, the first fueling pressure should not exceed 25 psi.

-All persons involved in refueling shall dissipate static potential by touching or gripping an approved static ground often during refueling operation.

-When defueling is done using truck, a person will be stationed on top of truck to observe fuel level in truck and to signal defueling operator to avoid an overflow.
204.1.1 State the purpose of the following components of the Stores Management System (SMS).
a. Armament control processor set- Multiplex data on the armament mux bus allows the armament computer to monitor and control the weapon station and gun system.

b. Command Launch Computer (CLC)- The command launch computer (CLC) controls and monitors the high speed anti-radiation missile (HARM).

c. Electrical fuzing power supply (PP-6419)- On BUNO 163427 THRU 165206 the electrical fuzing power supply provides the electrical fuzing function of the SMS for weapons requiring electrical fuzing. On BUNO 165207 AND UP the armament computer provides the electrical fuzing function to the SMS weapon requiring electrical fuzing.
204.1.2 Describe the following characteristics of the M61 20mm Gun system.
. Rate of fire- High-6000 rounds per minute; Low-4000 rounds per minute.

b. Capacity- The system can accommodate a maximum of 578 rounds of 20mm ammunition.

c. Modes of operation- Depending on the mission objective, the gun can be operated in the Air-to-Ground (A/G) or Air-to-Air (A/A) modes.
204.1.3 State the purpose of the Countermeasures Dispensing system (AN/ALE-39/47).
The system provides protection for the aircraft against enemy radars and missiles by ejecting chaff, flares, or other jammer payloads.
204.1.4 State the basic armament configuration of the F/A-18 aircraft.
The basic armament configuration of the F/A-18 aircraft consists of LAU-116 missile launchers, wing tip mounted LAU-7 missile launchers, SUU-63 pylons, SUU-62 pylons, BRU-32 bomb racks and a M61 Gun.
204.1.5 State the basic characteristics of the following air to air missiles.
a. AIM-7 series (sparrow) guided missile
b. AIM-9 series (sidewinder) guided missile
c. AIM-120 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM)
a. AIM-7 series (sparrow) guided missile- is a supersonic, radar guided, air-to-air weapon. Semi-active CW homing radar and hydraulically operated control surfaces direct and stabilize the missile on course.

b. AIM-9 series (sidewinder) guided missile- is a supersonic, air-to-air weapon, with a passive infrared target detection, proportional-navigation guidance, and torque-balance control system.

c. AIM-120 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM)- is a supersonic, air-to-air weapon, with active radar target detection and on-board inertial navigation guidance.
204.1.6 State the basic characteristics of the following air to ground missiles.
a. AGM-65 (maverick) series missile
b. AGM-84 (series) missile
c. AGM-88 High-speed Anti
Radiation Missile (HARM)
a. AGM-65 (maverick) series missile- is a guided, rocket propelled, air-to-ground missile for use against field fortifications, surface to air missile sites and armored vehicles. The forward section of the missile consists of a hermetically sealed guidance unit and main section.

b. AGM-84 (series) missile

1. Harpoon- is a long range, all weather anti ship missile. It can be launched at various altitudes, airspeeds, and aircraft attitudes and uses a low level cruise trajectory, active radar guidance and terminal maneuvering to destroy the target.

2. Standoff Land Attack Missile (SLAM)- is an air-to-ground guided missile designated for use against both stationary and mobile targets. The SLAM can be loaded with up to three pre-planned (PP) mission and one target of opportunity (TOO) mission.

c. AGM-88 High-speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM)- is a passive supersonic, air-to-ground missile.
205.1.1 State and discuss your command's mission statement.
Reserve Strike Fighter Squadron maintaining crisis response readiness and operational support to active duty units.
205.1.2 Explain the term AAW and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an AAW mission.
a. The detection, tracking, destruction or neutralization of enemy air platforms and airborne weapons, whether launched by the enemy from air, surface, subsurface, or land platforms.

b. The Hornet's specific strengths lie in its ability to detect contacts at medium range (around 40nms) and contacts that are not hot to the fighters (i.e. beaming, dragging or flanking). The Hornet performs AAW in many areas: Pre Strike Sweep (Offensive Counter Air - OCA) as a stand alone sweep into enemy territory to attack enemy aircraft, Close Escort - (Defensive Counter Air - DCA) as an attached or detached shielding fighter element to a strike package, High Value Airborne Asset Protection (HVAAP) which normally escorts the Prowler into enemy territory to protect it from enemy airborne attack.
205.1.3 Explain the term AMW and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an AMW mission.
a. Attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and by landing forces embarked in ships or craft designed to achieve a shore presence in a littoral zone. This includes fire support for troops in contact with enemy forces through the use of close air support or shore bombardment.

b. The Hornet performs AMW primarily through Close Air Support (CAS), and are controlled via a ground based Forward Air Controller (FAC) or a Forward Air Controller - Airborne (FAC-A)an air based controller in an F-14 or A-10. CAS involves our checking in with the FAC or FAC-A and having our eyes talked onto the target area from large features to small until we have the actual target in sight. We then drop ordnance on the target, and may get corrections from the FAC for follow on ordnance delivery.
205.1.4 Explain the term ASU and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an ASU mission.
a. The detection, tracking, and destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.

b. We have little to do with ASU. This became a PMA of ours during the cold war, when it was likely that we would openly engage in hostilities with the Soviet Fleet. Currently, we perform Sledge Hammer events to practice attacking a large combatant, but the most likely use of ASU for the Hornet is our destroying a small, heavily armed boat, inbound to the CVN.
205.1.5 Explain the term ASW and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an ASW mission.
a. The detection, tracking, and destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines.

b. We currently don't do any ASW. S-3's and Helicopter do the bulk of this mission.
205.1.6 Explain the term CCC and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a CCC mission.
. Providing communications and related facilities for coordination and control of external organizations or forces, and control of own unit's capabilities.

b. The Hornet performs CCC on virtually every mission, with the integration of our Ground Control Intercepts (GCI) or Airborne Intercept Control (AIC). If we perform any mission within the battle group, we are normally assigned a controller to alert us to hostile aircraft in the vicinity. Talking to the AIC or GCI controllers exercises this PMA.
205.1.7 Explain the term C2W and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a C2W mission.
a. The integrated use of psychological operations (PSYOP), military deception, operations security (OPSEC), electronic warfare (EW), and physical destruction; mutually supported by intelligence, to deny information to, influence, degrade, or destroy adversary C2 capabilities while protecting friendly C2 capabilities against such actions C2W is a subset of IW (below) that specifically attacks and protects the C2 target set. Formerly Electronic Warfare (ELW) and subsequently Space & Electronic Warfare (SEW).

Information Warfare (IW). Actions taken to achieve information superiority by affecting adversary information, information-based processes, information systems, and computer-based networks while defending one's own information, information-based processes, information systems, and computer-based networks.

b. The E-2 and Air Force Rivet Joint assets are primarily responsible for this, as well as the ES-3's on board.
205.1.8 Explain the term FSO and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a FSO mission.
a. Naval forces and designated shore facilities providing supporting services other than logistics replenishment to fleet units.

b. This is not one of our PMA's. We occasionally run missile profiles against the battle group ships.
205.1.9 Explain the term INT and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an INT mission.
a. The collection, processing, and evaluation of information to determine location, identification, and capability of hostile forces through the employment of reconnaissance, surveillance, and other means.

b. This is not one of our PMA's. Our input to INT involves the pilot's airborne observations as well as any airborne sensor footage (FLIR) that we might be able to collect.
205.1.10 Explain the term MIW and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a MIW mission.
. The use of mines for control/denial of sea or harbor areas, and mine countermeasures over, under, or upon the surface.

b. This is one of our PMA's, and is the only mission area that is strategic in nature. We have few opportunities to practice mining, and they usually occur during workups. We are evaluated during the IDTC by having a CV wide MINEX as well as the Mine Readiness Certification and Inspection (MRCI). Each Hornet can carry 2 mines, and with GPS and the Hornet's precise delivery capability, we are able to place mines with remarkable accuracy.
205.1.11 Explain the term MIW and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a MIW mission.
a. The ability of naval forces to maneuver and maintain themselves in all situations over, under, or upon the surface.

b. Mobility involves our ability to deploy and get around. It is one of our PMA's. We get points for and include our pilot's NATOPS and Instrument checks, CQ simulators, FCLPs, shipboard CQ and Airways Navigation.
205.1.11 Explain the term NCO and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a NCO mission.
a. Selected operations of a noncombatant nature not clearly categorized in any other warfare mission area. Included in this category are the necessary support requirements and/or special missions that are required of a unit but not directly related to the other Warfare Mission Areas.

b. Not one of our PMA's. Our squadron's involvement with Non-Combat Expeditionary Operations (NEO) has become more likely in the last few years. NEO's would normally involve flying protection for a helicopter evacuation of an area that is becoming dangerous for US citizens. Or flying presence ops over a country to establish stability and announce that US forces are in the area.
205.1.11 Explain the term STW and discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a STW mission.
a. The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons. This includes, but is not limited to, strategic targets, building yards, and operating bases from which the enemy is capable of conducting air, surface, or subsurface operations against U.S. or allied forces.

b. This is one of our most important PMA's. The squadron fly's STW missions in all theaters we pull into. Strike planning is a necessary part of the pilot's mission. The Hornet's involvement in STW can include dropping MK-80 series bombs, GBU's, Walleye, Maverick, JSOW and HARM. STW missions include executing pre-planned strikes in country, interdiction bombing campaigns, kill box missions and contingency operations.

Deck Info