Pathology final new material
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- Undescended testes increasing the rate of malignancy and sterility.
- cryptorchidism
- Inflamation of the testes due to viral/bacterial infections (mumps/TB,syphilis) -->infertility.
- Orchitis
- _________ is the most common STD, male and female, causing ________ urethritis.
- Chlamydia, non-purulent
- Purulent urethritis is caused by ______.
- Neisseria gonorrhea
- Abnormal opening of the urethra on the lower shaft of the .
- hypospadia
- ________ is caused by benign hyperplasia of the prostate usually post-op, leading to constriciton of the urinary tract --> infection.
- Prostatitis
- This STD causes vessicles --> ulcers and has no cure.
- Herpes
- Treponema pallidum is a spirochete causing this STD.
- Syphilis
- Macular-papular rash, condyloma lata and mucous patch are signs of what stage of syphilis?
- secondary
- What stage of syphilis is charcterized by a chancre at the site of innoculation which usually heals in 4-6 weeks.
- primary
- Gummas (granulomas), tabes dorsalis (CNS - unsteady gate), dissecting arotic aneurysms, perivasculitis, dementia are signs of this NON curable stage of syphilis.
- tertiary
- Embryonal cell cracinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma and teratoma are _________ germ cell tumors.
- non-seminomatous (NSGCT's)
- Most aggressive, 1/3 metastisize, NSGCT causing increased hCG.
- embryonal cell
- _____ tumor has a peak age of 3 w/ elevated alpha fetal protein.
- Yolk sac
- Which NSGCT is most malignant?
- Choriocarcinoma
- _______ are comprised of emdryonic layers which can be malignant.
- Teratomas
- T/F Benign prostate hyperplasia is related to prostate cancer.
- False - may co-exist
- Urinary obstruction, increased urinary frequency, hesitancy (stage fright), increased infections are symptoms of ______.
- benign prostate hyperplasia
- _________ carcinoma is the most common cancer in men and frequently metastisizes to ______.
- Prostate, bone
- List the risk factors of prostate carcinoma.
- none
- Which is not a predisposing factor for pelvic inflammatory disease: early ual activity, multiple partners, recurrent STD's, infertitlity, IUD use.
- infertitlity is a complication of PID
- Which is not a complication of PID: pain, infertitlity, l discharge, pelvic abscess, ectopic pregnancy.
- all are complications
- ________ is the most common malignancy of the female genitalia.
- Endometrial carcinoma
- Endometrial carcinoma risk factors include the following except: obesity, hypoestrogenism, nulliparous, early menarche or late menopause.
- hypoestrogen, HYPER is correct
- Cervical cancer commonly occurs in the "______" zone betweeen the endo and ecto-cervix.
- transition
- ________ is the most common uterine tumor, often multiple, and is estrogen sensitive.
- Leiomyoma (benign), increased incidence with inc estrogen
- T/F Leiomyomas are pre-malignant.
- False
- Endometriosis is manifested by severe menstrual pain; it is related to cancer.
- True; false it is not related to cancer
- Endometriosis is characterized by functional, hormonally responding endometrial tissue tumors forming ______ the uterus. This leads to menstrual bleeding "chocolate cysts" leading to pain, adhesions and _______.
- outside, infertility - due to close proximity to uterine tubes
- T/F Ovarian cancers cause more s than all other tumors of the female repro tract.
- TRUE
- Gastric carcinoma metastatic to overies featuring signet ring cells.
- Kruckenburg tumors - signet ring cells
- Preeclampsia causes all the following except: hypertension, albuminemia, edema, convulsions.
- convulsions = eclampsia
- Coma and convulsions during or immediately after pregnancy, characterized by edema, hypertension, DIC and proteinuria.
- eclampsia
- Sheehan syndrome is caused by _______ anterior pituitary necrosis.
- postpartum
- ________ results from abnormal fertilization (46XX paternal) causing grape-like placental villi in loose stroma.
- Hydatiform mole
- Edema of the eustachian tube causing fluid accumulation of the middle ear usually in children is _______.
- otitis media --> bulging tympanic membrane --> hearing loss
- Particle size:__-__ microns do not reach distal airways, __-__ microns impact at bifurcation on distal airways, __ microns act as a gas
- 5-10, 1-5, .5
- Particle concentration:__-__ppm overcomes scrubbing action
- 1-5 ppm
- Non neoplastic lung reaction to mineral dust like silica & coal, macrophage phagocytosis & release of mediators --> fibrosis
- Pneumoconiosis
- Slowly progressive nodular fibrosis mostly in upper lobes, quartz smaller that a micron is retained & causes fibrosis (sandblasters & miner workers)
- Silicosis
- Diffuse parenchymal interstitial fibrosis, bronchiogenic carcinoma, localized fibrous plaques on pleural surface, mesiothelioma, lower lobes of lungs
- Asbestosis
- which is the more pathological form of asbestosis, Amphibole or Serpentine?
- Amphibole
- most common cause of preventable mortality, slows healing, contains carcinogens, toxins, CO, & nicotine
- smoking
- Then best indicator nicotine intake is _________ blood/urine levels
- Continine
- Cancer of the lung, Chronic bronchitis, emphysema, MI, Systemic atherosclerosis, oral cancer are all effects of _________
- Smoking
- Causes decreased O2 to heart (lung disease), contaction of coronary arteries, ventricular fibrillation & increased risk of MI
- Smoking
- Can cause anaplastic anemia
- Chloramphenicol
- Can cause hemolytic anemia & anaphylaxis
- Penicillin
- Can cause acute tubular necrosis
- Aminoglycosides
- Can cause asthma & tinnitus
- Salicylate (asprin)
- Can cause Hepatic change
- Tetracycline, Tylenol
- Can cause Lupus
- Hydralazine
- Can cause respiratory depression
- sedatives
- Which is NOT an effect of exogenous estrogen: Enometrial carcinoma, breast carcinoma, thrombo-embolism, & cardiovascular disease.
- Cardio disease is actually reduced by estrogen, endometrial c. increase when used alone, breast c. worse in combination w/ progestin
- Breast carcinoma (after 45) and cervical carcinoma (risk based on lifestyle) are effects of oral contraceptives. OC is protective against endometrial carcinoma and ovarian carcinoma (T/F)
- True; True
- Oral antibiotics increase the effect of oral contraceptives
- FALSE
- Acetaminophen over dose (15-25g) can lead to _____ _____
- liver failure
- An overdose (10-30g) of what leads to gastric ulcers, bleeding (by stoping formation of thromboxane 2), fluid electrolyte imbalance, respiratory alkalosis, & metabolic acidosis
- Asprin
- _____________ is responsible for the damage in ethanol overdose (a metabolite)
- Acetaldehyde
- Most addictive of all drugs (intense euphoria), no physical dependance, psychological withdrawal difficult (years)
- Cocaine (yes, Nic you crack head)
- Can cause life threatening situation in dental chair due to epi in local anesthesia --> arrhythmias (it blocks epi reuptake)
- cocaine
- Cocaine cause all of the following except: arrhythmias, open pupils, talkativeness, normal anxiety, jitteriness, tremor
- normal anxiety, it resembles it but must be differentiated from
- Acute effects of cocaine cause all of the following except: dialated pupils, vasoconstriction, rise in BP, tachycardia, arrhythmia, platelet aggregation, hyperpyrexia (high body temp), & rhabdomylosis (degeneration of muscle)
- all of the above are effects
- Chronic effects of cocaine cause all of the following except: perforation of nasal septum, increased lung capacity, dilated cardiomyopathy
- increased lung capacity (should be decreased)
- Heroin cause all of the following except: pupil constriction, xerostomia, slurred speech, pain reaction threshold decreased
- pain reaction threshold decreased--it is actually INCREASED
- T or F: cocaine is more hazardous than heroin.
- FALSE
- You can die from heroin overdose from all of the following except: respiratory arrest, severe hemmorrhage, arrythmia, cardiac arrest.
- severe hemmorrage
- What is the initial "rush" of heroin due to?
- histamine release
- What stage of heroin use includes the following symptoms: vasoconstriction, sweating, pupillary dilation
- cold turkey stage
- Which heart valves can become infected due to side effects of heroin use?
- right sided heart valves
- All of the following are side effects of heroin use except: pulmonary edema, viral hepatitis, hypopigmentation, amyloidosis, constipation.
- hypopigmentation (should be HYPERpigmentation)
- T or F: Heroin addicts should be prescribed opiate analgesics.
- False, Biatch!!!!
- T or F: NSAIDS should be prescribed for heroin addicts
- TRUE
- Vicodin, Vicoprofen, and Lortab are all_______.
- Hydrocodones
- What do the effects of Hydrocodones mimic?
- Morphine
- What definition? Compulsive, obsessive pattern of abuse. Abuser feels life is impossible w/out the
- Psychological abuse
- What definition? Manifestation of withdrawal syndrome. Body goes through unpleasant experiences if user suddenly stops .
- physiological abuse
- What is the most widely used illegal ?
- mary jane baby, light it up
- delta-9 tertrahydro cannabinol is the psychoactive substance in what ?
- marijuana
- In california where the reefer is legal for medicinal purposes, what treatement is it effective for?
- glaucoma and radiation sickness
- T or F: marijuana can cause birth defects
- true, through chromosomal damage
- all of the following are effects of methamphetamine except: temporary mood elevation, exhilaration (high), Increased mental alertness, sleepiness
- sleepiness
- T or F: you can become addicted to meth from just one use.
- TRUE
- All of the following are side effects of meth use except: heart irregularities, Low pressure, depression, restlessness, tremors, severe fatigue.
- Low pressure
- what level of caffeine increases performance?
- 30-200 mg
- what level of caffeine makes you a wired, crazed lunatic?
- >500 mg
- the acceptable limit for lead intake is ____ ug/dl; __________lead is more hazardous; ___% of ingested is absorbed; ____% ingested by kids is absorbed; ____% is taken up by bone; and lead binds to _________.
- 25; volatized; 10; 50; 80; disulfides
- Formation of zinc protoporphyrin, gum line effect, anemia, and lines in your bones, a "wrist drop" (sort of like eric's) are all characteristic of what?
- lead poisoning
- what causes basophilic stippling of RBC's?
- lead
- Hemoglobin has 200 times more affinity for ___ than _______.
- CO; Oxygen
- In regards to CO poisoning, ________ ________ occurs at 20-30% saturation, and _____________ occurs at 60-70% saturation.
- systemic hypoxia; unconsciousness
- How quickly can you die if you leave your car running in your garage?
- five minutes
- What disease? Slight headache, nausea, vomiting, fatigue
- mild exposure to CO
- what disease? Throbbing headache, drowsiness, fast heart rate
- medium exposure to CO
- what disease? Convusions, uncosciousness, heart & lung failure, brain damage and possibly
- severe exposure to CO
- What people are are most affected by CO poisoning?
- unborn babies, infants, ppl w/ heart disease
- Hemifacial microsomia results in a maldeveloped external ear along with aplasia of the ________ bone and _______.
- zygomatic, mandible --> TMJ problems
- Why are children more prone to otitis media?
- shallow inclination of eustachian tube (10 vs. 40 degrees)
- Glue ear is a bacterial chronic otitis media. T/F
- False = non-bacterial
- ________ is an in tion of squamous epidermis --> tympanic membrane into middle ear causing an inclusion cyst.
- Chlolesteatoma
- The most common cause of conductive hearing loss in middle aged individuals.
- Otosclerosis = deposition of bone around oval window
- Vertigo, hearing loss and tinnitis, due to hydrops (dialated membranous labyrinth), are part of the clinical triad of this disease found in 40-60 year olds.
- Meniere's
- List three types of hearing loss.
- conductive, sensory and neural
- Which is not a form of sensory hearing loss: noise trauma, presbycusis, otosclerosis, ototoxic .
- otosclerosis = conductive along
- Which is the least common type of deafness caused by MS, neuromas and lesions to CN VIII?
- neural
- Impacted cerumen, tympanic membrane trama, effusions of the middle ear, cholestetoma, hematoma and otosclerosis are forms of ______ deafness.
- conductive
- T/F Continuity exists between the sphenomandibular ligament and the malleolar ligament of the middle ear.
- TRUE
- The chorda tympani provides special sensory to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and is in close proximity to the inner and middle ear. T/F
- TRUE
- Type I fibers are ________ used for ___________.
- aerobic; endurance
- These fibers make up 1/3 of muscle fibers, rich in mitochondria and myoglobulin, stain very lightly w/ mhyosin atpase
- type I (aerobic) fibers
- These fibers make up 2/3 of all muscle fibers, glycogen rich, fast-contracting myosin, dark fibers on staining, susceptible to metabolic insult during prolonged periods of disuse.
- anaerobic (type II) fibers
- A given motor neuron will innervate ______ fiber type(s), and the fiber type is determined by the ________.
- one; neuron
- What muscle disease? Progressive, genetically determined; degeneration of skeletal muscle, wasting, weakness, increaesd serum creatine kinase
- Muscular dystrophy
- What ist the most common form of muscular dystrophy?
- Duchenne's
- What muscle disease? Def. Of dystrophin, X linked, weakness initially in proximal extremity muscles and pelvic girdle, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, GOWER's sign, die in early 20's or teens.
- Duchenne's
- What is the sign called that is hard to get to a standing position from squatting?
- Gower's sign
- What is the milder form of Duchenn'es muscular dystrophy called?
- Becker's (appears later in life--this is how you tell because Duchenn'es usually appears in children)
- What muscle disease? Autosomal nt, triple nucleotide repeat, symptoms begin as , weakness of hands and foot muscles initially, Hatchet Face, inc frequency of cardiomyopathy, cataracts, and diabetes
- myotonic dystrophy
- What is the second most common muscular dystrophy?
- myotonic dystrophy
- T or F: myotonic dystrophy can worsen in subsequent generations.
- true, the triple nuclotide repeat mutation is amplified
- What are the autoimmune muscle disorders?
- Myasthenia gravis, polymyosiitis/dermatomyositis
- Myasthenia gravis has all the following characteristics except: autoantibodies to acetylcholine receptors, men(20-35 yrs old) and women (50-60 yrs old), muscle weakness intensified by muscle use, associated with tumors of the thymus, thymic hyperplasia,
- The men and women ages should be switched
- What muscle disease? Chronic degenerative autoimmune process involving proximal muscles of extremities--weakness and pain walking up stairs, necrotic muscle surrounded by lymphocytes and plasma cells in biopsy
- Polymyositis
- What is polymyositis called when it involves the skin also?
- dermatomyositis
- what is the major symptom associated with dermatomyositis?
- heliotrope (iliac rash) discoloration around the eyes
- T or F: myotonic dystrophy involves only type I fibers
- TRUE
- What percent of tumors associated with myasthenia gravis are thymomas?
- 15%
- What percent of thyus associated problems due to myasthenia gravis is thymic hyperplasia?
- 65%
- What rare disorder is associated with small oat cell lung cancer?
- Eaton Lambert syndrome
- What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children (malignant)
- Rhabdomyosarcoma
- What is the most common cause of peripheral nueropathy?
- Diabetes
- In infectious myositis, _________ causes tetanus, __________causes gas gangrene, parasites cause __________, and the virus involved is ____________.
- clostridium tetani, clostridium perfringens, trichinosis, coxsackie virus
- All of the following cause peripheral neuropathy except: diabetes, immune disorders, alcohol excess, Vitamin C deficiency, toxins, infection (AIDS), congenital
- Vitamin C def. (Vitamin B DOES)
- What are the supporting cells of the nervous system and form part of brain barrieer?
- astrocytes
- What forms the myelin around nerves in the CNS analagous to a schwann man cell?
- oligodendrocytes
- what cells line the cerebral ventricles?
- ependymal cells
- what nervous cells are scavenger cells?
- microglia
- What is the infectious agent in spongiform encephalopathies?
- prions
- T or F: prions have DNA
- FALSE
- T or F: prions have a short incubation period
- FALSE
- What is the prion caused disease in cow's?
- bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease)
- What is the human form of mad cow disease?
- creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
- This disease is found in new guinea and is transmitted by eating infected brains
- Kuru
- Is MS Autoimmune or infectious?
- It has been associated with both
- ____% of MS cases in US are caucasian
- 95%
- T or F: MS is more common in tropical climates.
- false; more common in moderate to cold climates
- In MS, visual disturbances occur _____% of the time and limb weakness occurs______% of the time.
- 20; 40
- What cells are destroyed in multiple sclerosis?
- oligodendrocytes
- MS affects the _______ matter of the brain
- white
- What disorder of the brain can thiamine deficiency cause?
- beriberi (also Wernicke's encephalopathy and Wernicke's Korsakoff syndrome
- Thiame def. Is most often seen in what population.
- Piss drunks
- What disease? Paralysis of extraocular muscles, ataxia, mental confusion
- Wernicke's encephalopathy
- What disease? Loss of recent memory, confabulation (making up stories)
- Korsakoff's psychosis (repeated bouts of Wernicke's)
- Vit B12 deficiency can cause all of the following except: high pressure, uncoordinated movements, abnormal gait, psychiatric symptoms
- High pressure (doesn't mention anything about pressure)
- Nicotinic acid is AKA ______
- Vitamin B3
- Nicotinic acid def. Causes the 3 D's: Dermatitis (photosensitivity), Diarrhea and __________.
- Delirium
- What is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly?
- Alzheimer's disease
- What disease? Slow progressive memory loss, genetic in small #'s, Neurofibrillary tangles and plaques, atrophy of cerebral cortex
- Alzheimer's disease
- A telltale sign of Alzheimer's Disease is __________ sulci and ________ gyri.
- widened; narrowed
- A patient with down syndrome survives past age 40. What neurological disorder are the patient's symptoms most likely to mimic?
- Alzheimer's disease
- What over-the-counter medicine is supposed to inhibit the effects of Alzheimer's?
- NSAIDS (like ibuprofen)
- What disease? Movement disorder, changes in extrapyramidal (involuntary) motor system, depigmented substantia nigra, Lewy bodies.
- Parkinson's
- The symptoms of Parkinson's include all of the following except: Pill rolling tremor, bradykinesia, dementia, instability while walking, flacidity, expresionless face.
- Flacidity (should be rigidity)
- T or F: there is a cure for parkinson's
- FALSE
- This cell is stained pink (eosinophilic) and is seen in Parkinson's disease
- Lewy Body
- Alzheimer's, Parkinson's, Huntington's corea, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are all ____________ diseases
- degenerative
- What disease? Abnormality in chromsome 4, increased CAG trinucleotide repeats
- Huntington's (chorea)
- What disease? Involuntary gyrating movements, progressive dementia, brain atrophy, caudate nucleus, clinical abnormalities present in 30's to 40's
- Huntington's (chorea)
- What is the "layman" name for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
- Lou Gehrig's disease
- Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) presents w/ wasting and weakness of small muscles in hands, and is the loss of ________ cerebrospinal pathways in spinal cord.
- Lateral
- ALS is a progressive disorder of upper or lower motor neurons?
- both
- All of the following are characteristic of CNS neoplasms except: only 2% of cancer s, High mortality rate, Prominent in older age groups, 50% are primary, 50% metastasis
- Prominent in older age groups (they are more prominent in younger age groups)
- T or F: Primary malignant tumors of the CNS never metastasize
- True dat, hippie
- The four types of CNS tumors to remember are: Gliomas, Meningiomas, Medulloblastomas, and ___________.
- retinoblastoma
- What 2 subgroups of gliomas are there?
- Astrocytoma, glioblastoma multiforme
- What is the most common primary CNS tumor?
- Glioblastoma multiforme (stage four astrocytoma)
- An astrocytoma becomes a glioblastoma multiforme when it reaches grade ___.
- Four
- Astrocytomas occur in which part of the brain?
- Cerebellum
- What is the second most common CNS neoplasm?
- Meningioma
- All are characteristic of meningioma except: arise from the dura, rapid growth, compresses the brain
- rapid growth
- Meningiomas are characteristic of which of the following? Lewy bodies, caudate nucleus, pill-rolling tremor, psammoma bodies, depigmented substantia nigra?
- Psammomma bodies (calcifications)
- Meningiomas are benign or malignant?
- benign
- T or F: Benign meningiomas don't affect brain function.
- False, because they compress the brain
- Retinoblastoma is more common in kids or s?
- kids
- What area of the brain does medulloblastoma occur?
- Cerebellum
- All are characteristic of medulloblastoma except: more common in children, rapid growth, poor prognosis, psammoma bodies
- Psammomma bodies (calcifications)
- A ______ (hordeolum) is and acute supporative ______ infection of the hair folicle and associated glands of the eye.
- Sty, staph
- _______ is chronic inflammation of an obstructed meibomian gland often mistaken for a neoplasm.
- Chalazion
- __________, occuring in diabetics and other hyperlipidemic conditions, are small lipid plaques of foamy macrophages.
- Xanthelasmas
- ________ aka "pink eye" is contagious and caused by a virus or bacteria.
- Conjunctivitis
- Viral conjuctivitis = _____ discharge and _____ vision.
- watery, blurred
- _______ conjunctivitis = purulent discharge and no blurring
- bacterial
- ______ caused by chlamydia, are associated with ulcers and scarring leading to blindness.
- Trachomas
- Inflammation of the cornea is called ______.
- keratitis
- Hypertensive retinopathy leads to the formation of microaneurysms and hemorrhages into the retinal nerve fibers called ___________.
- dot and flame hemorrhages
- Edema of the optical disc is called _________ causing irreversible damage.
- papiledema
- Narrowing of retinal arterioles leads to a "copper wire effect" due to ____.
- hypertensive retinopathy
- Diabetic retinopathy promotes the formation of ______ and microaneurysms.
- cataracts
- Diabetic vessels are more permeable leading to edema and hemorrhage into the eye. This is known as ________ retinopathy and characterized by "________" and may lead to retinal detachment in severe cases.
- background, "cotton-wool spots"
- Due to progressive damage or atrophy to the optic nerve _______ causes peripheral loss of eyesight.
- glaucoma
- Which is not a risk factor of glaucoma: over 60, familial history of glaucoma, diabetes, farsightedness, smoking, black pt over 40.
- farsighted, NEARsighted is correct.
- Priamary glaucoma is idiopathic; secondary is related to a preexisting eye disease.
- True; True
- Secondary glaucoma is the most common form. T/F
- FALSE
- Priamary glaucoma can be classified as open or closed angle. Open angle is caused by _________.
- INTERNAL blockage of eye's drainage canals = increased P
- "Steamy cornea," rainbow halos around lights at night, acute onset intraocular pain and blurred vision are all due to ____ angle glaucoma caused by _______ drainage canal blockage.
- closed, ENTERING
- The most common cause of decreased vision in the US is _______, causing clouding of the lens due to the natural aging process.
- Cataracts
- The most common eye tumor of infants and young s.
- Retinoblastoma - deletion of Rb gene
- Oral contraceptives do NOT cause which one of the following: Thrombo embolism, Hypertension, Cardiovascular disease, Coronary artery disease
- Coronary artery disease
- P-450 is an enzyme that helps detoxify ethanol & medications (T/F)
- True
- What is the most common cause of liver injury/cirrhosis (from environmental factors)?
- Alcohol (chronic alcoholism)
- Which is a positive effect of alcohol: cerebral atrophy, cerebellar degeneration, optic neuropathy, inc HDL in , oral cancer.
- inc in HDL