CDC 2W051A Volume 3

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Who appoints munitions inspectors?: Flight chiefs or equivalent.
What is the minimum skill level required for an active duty person to be a certified munitions inspector?: 5 level.
List three responsibilities of a munitions inspector.: Monitor shelf/service life and coordinate changes/updates with MASO, ensure munitions are properly tagged, marked, packaged, verify accuracy of inspection documentation and sign inspection form.
This type of corrosion affects the form, fit or function of an item.: Major Corrosion.
Any nonconformance with specified requirements.: Defect.
A defect likely to result in hazardous or unsafe conditions.: Critical defect.
A defect that reduced materially the usability of the item.: Major defect.
An item whose explosive material has been removed and never replaced.: Empty munitions item.
The number of items selected at random for inspection.: Sample size.
The length of time an item can remain in storage under prescribed packaging and storage conditions.: Shelf life.
What is the purpose of the munitions surveillance program?: It provides the user with a high degree of confidence that munitions have not been adversely affected by the environment, storage conditions, age or use, and can be expected to perform as designed.
What TO governs the general inspection requirements for all inspections?: TO 11A-1-10
When are inspectors required to open hermetically sealed containers?: 1. When the TO directs it to be opened.
2. The outer appearance indicates signs of damage or corrosion that may have penetrated the container.
List two requirements of the general inspection procedures.: 1. check ammo lot or serial number against CMRS.
2. Check external packaging for obvious defects and that the packaging is adequate to withstand additional handling/storage and/or shipment.
When must an inspector perform a periodic inspection during a shipping inspection?: IF it is due within one year.
Which inspection is the cornerstone of the munitions surveillance inspection program?: Periodic inspection.
What type of inspection is performed at the direction of competent authorities, the MAJCOM, or ALC?: Special inspection.
What must you do if two condition codes apply to the same item?: Apply the most restrictive code.
What condition code applies if an item is issuable with qualification?: Condition code B
Which condition code applies if an item is considered unserviceable until limited restoration has been accomplished?: Condition code E
Which condition code applies if an item is suspended in stock?: Condition code J.
Which condition code applies if an item is suspended for emergency combat use only?: Condition code N.
which condition code tag identifies condition code H and P items?: DD Form 1577/1577-1, unserviceable (condemned) tag with red (margins and text).
Which form is considered the source document for inspections?: AFTO IMT 102.
Name another method that can be used to ensure an accurate history is captured for an inspection?: CAS.
What CAS program displays condition and status of stockpile and custody assets?: Asset balance inquiry.
What CAS program is utilized by local MASOs and Equipment Specialists (ES) at the Ammunition Control Point (ACP) to provide final disposition instructions on ADR actions?: Ammunition Disposition Request Process.
What CAS report is included with shipments to satisfy our lot history record requirement IAW 11A-1-10?: Lot history inspection report.
When you identify an discrepancy, what is the first thing you must determine?: What category it falls into, shipping or packaging.
When reporting a supply discrepancy, which type of discrepancy applies if you receive an item in the wrong condition code?: Shipping.
When reporting a supply discrepancy, which type of discrepancy applies if you receive an item in the wrong container?: Packaging.
What form is used to report shipping or packaging discrepancies and contains replies from the action activity?: SF Form 364.
What forms are used to report transportation discrepancies?: SF Form 361 and the joint message form.
Which discrepancy program identifies and reports problems with a carrier?: Transportation Discrepancy Report.
Which discrepancy program identifies deficiencies attributable to the manufacturer?: Product quality deficiency reports.
Describe a Category I DR.: Identifies a deficiency which may cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness; may cause loss or major damage to a weapon system; critically restricts the combat readiness capabilities of the using organization; or which would result in a p
What TO identifies the proper marking requirements for inert and empty items?: TO 11A-1-53.
What is the definition of an inert item?: A munitions item or component whose explosive material has been replaced by an inert material.
What color identifies an item as practice?: Blue.
What is the definition of an empty item?: Those items whose explosive material has been completely removed or left out at time of manufacture, and not replaced by other materials.
What are the marking requirements for empty items?: Impress and stencil the word "empty" on the item.
Which types of items are required to have holes drilled in the area that contained explosive material?: All components stock-listed as explosive.
What TO describes the procedures used to inspect empty containers?: TO 11A-1-60
In what three areas must a person be knowledgeable before he/she can inspect munitions residue?: Precious metals recovery program, disposal of classified material, demilitarization requirements and procedures.
What is munitions residue?: The material remaining after a munitions item has had its explosives filler removed by either normal functioning or demilitarization.
What must be done to munitions residue items previously inspected if the container's seals show evidence of tampering?: Re-inspection and re-certification.
Where is the certificate of clearance placed for containers that are destined for reuse?: Inside each container.
What is the mode of choice for munitions being shipped overseas?: ISO containers.
What do you inspect first during an initial inspection of an inbound shipment?: The vehicle seals.
What must the in-checker do if the received quantity, lot number or NSN is different than the shipping document?: Circle the error, enter the correct amount, and initial the change.
What action must be taken if any transport vehicle is found or suspected to be in a hazardous condition by other than normal circumstances?: Isolate the suspect transport vehicle consistent with applicable Q-D separation standards.
What is the governing directive of munitions shipments by air?: AFJMAN 24-204, Preparing Hazardous Materials for military air shipments.
What TO provides guidance on how to block and brace munitions for over-the-road travel?: TO 11A-1-61-1
Who regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft?: The FAA (Federal Aviation Administration).
Who regulates the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by water in commercial common carrier vessels?: United States Coast Guard.
What is the container of choice for use with Air Force when shipping munitions by ocean-going vessels?: 20 ft long ISO container.
Where do you find the criteria for inspecting the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) container?: MIL-HDBK-138B Guide to container inspection for commercial and military intermodal containers.
What is the purpose of performance oriented packaging?: To keep hazardous material inside its container and away from people and the environment.
To what itmes does the grandfathered rule apply?: Government-owned goods packaged prior to 01 JAN 90 are exempt for UN specification POP requirements.
What gives you detailed instructions on how an item is packed and marked for transportation?: Special packaging instruction drawing (SPID).
What can you use to ensure you have a container properly marked for transport?: The item TO, TO 11A-1-10, the SPID, MIL STD 129/1, and the directive for the mode of transportation you're using.
Which TO can be used to verify the proper shipping name for a munitions item?: TO 11A-1-46.
What is the main purpose of a shipping inspection?: To ensure the munitions prepared for the shipment are the same as reflected on the shipping documents.
Who issues Competent Approval Authority?: OO-ALC.
When would a Certification of Equivalency be issued?: When packaging doesn't meet CFR 49, but meets or exceeds standards to keep the asset safe.
When you enclose shipping documents in the number one container of the shipment, with what will you mark the container?: DOCUMENTS ENCLOSED.
What is the definition if a munitions storage magazine?: Any building or structure, except an operating building, used for the storage of explosives.
What are the two general types of magazines?: Earth covered (igloo) and above ground (no earth covering).
What are the major differences between standard and non-standard igloos?: Standard igloos have reinforces concrete end walls. Nonstandard igloos are those constructed with other than concrete or steel arches or with other than concrete end walls.
What is the most common type of munitions magazine?: Standard earth covered, arch type igloo.
What device ensures the ventilator flap doors close when temperatures reach a maximum of 155 degrees to 165 degrees?: Fusible link.
A firebreak of how many feet is required around igloo ventilators?: 5 feet.
What is the ideal and most secure way of installing a hasp on a munitions facility?: Welding.
To keep locks operating properly, how often should they be opened and closed?: Once per month.
What is the source document for explosives capacities and controls of your facilities?: The explosive site plan.
What is quantity-distance?: Refers to the protection required from potential explosives sites to different kinds of exposed sites.
What are Q-D principles based on?: Construction and type of PES, explosive content of the PES, the construction of the ES, the distance separating the PES from the ES, orientation of the PES and the ES in the case of igloos and modules.
List two instances when you would apply intraline distance.: 1. any two explosives operating locations
2. Explosives operating buildings from explosives storage locations.
What is inhabited building distance?: The minimum allowable distance between a non-related inhabited building and an explosives location.
List three major types of barricades.: Natural, artificial, earth filled steel bin-type.
Why do we use fire and chemical warning signs and symbols?: To caution and inform anyone who may have a need to enter an area, building, or room with munitions present. Also to inform emergency response forces on the hazards they may encounter upon entering the area.
What actions are required if HC/D 1.2 items are involved in a fire?: 1. Give alarm; attempt to extinguish fire if in early stage.
2. Fire fighting forces should fight fire, if not possible, prevent spread of fire.
3. Detonation could occur. Provide protection from fragments.
If more than one fire symbol applies, which one would you use?: The most hazardous.
What type of symbol indicates fire division 4 is stored in a magazine?: An orange diamond
Name one reason the backing of fire symbols is required to be made of a noncombustible material having the same design as the symbol?: In case the symbol burns off fire departments still know the HC/D.
Which symbol would you use if you have both nuclear and conventional munitions stored in the same magazine?: Do not post symbols.
Where is the basic guidance for creating storage locations identified?: TO 11A-1-61-1.
What identifies the standard location designator for munitions?: An 11 digit alphanumeric designator.
When are items considered compatible?: If they can be stored together without increasing the probability of a mishap.
How many light boxes are allowed in one storage location?: One light box.
What level of command normally sets the minimum requirements for the courtesy storage agreement?: MAJCOM.
For what purpose was buffered storage designed and tested?: To increase the explosive storage capacity of limited NEW igloos without increasing the Q-D separation requirements.
What types of munitions are approved for use as buffers?: Palletized 20MM and 30MM, or CBU-58's packaged 2 per container.
What is the maximum number of special weapons each vault can hold?: Max of 4 special weapons.
Why do WS3's have a delay access time of 30 minutes?: To give security forces time to respond to an unauthorized attempt to access a vault.
What are the four major groups of a WS3?: Console group, monitor-indicator group, code-transfer group, vault control group.
What is the purpose of the vault subsystem of a WS3?: Provides physical storage and security for special weapons and related equipment.

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