Aircraft Armament Apprentice Journeyman B Set

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What drives the rear wheels on the MJ-1B? A. Hand throttle B. Hydrostatic drive C. Cantilever drive system D. Dual Ackerman drive system: B: HYDROSTATIC DRIVE
Changing the position of the MJ-1B accelerator pedal A. Changes the engine throttle position B. Increases/decreases the engine rpms C. Adjusts clutch force in the Ackerman drive D. Varies the flow rate of the pump in the hydrostatic drive <: D: VARIES THE FLOW RATE OF THE PUMO IN THE HYDROSTATIC DRIVE
What is supported by the lift arms and used to hold the munition or store to be loaded? A. Cradle Assembly B. Hydraulic pump C. Hydraulic motor D. Cantilever lift arms: A: CRADLE ASSEMBLY
What aircraft loading missions are supported by the MJ-40? A: B-1, B-2 B: B-1, B-2, B-52 C: All fighter aircraft D: All combat aircraft: A: B-1, B-2
What ensures the boom cannot fall if a hydraulic line on the MJ-40 ruptures? A: Stop crew B: Hydraulic Cylinder C: Remote control unit D: Hydraulic locking valve: D: HYDRAULIC LOCKING VALVE
Which loading controls are found only on the MJ-40 remote? A: Boom up/down B: Yaw right/ left C: Ram up/down D: Tilt right/ left: C: RAM UP/ DOWN
What type of fuel is the MHU-83 capable of using A: Diesel B: Mogas C: Diesel or JP-8 D: Diesel, JP-8, or Mogas: C: DIESEL OR JP-8
What device controls the engine speed of an MHU-83? A: Hand throttle B: Engine regulator C: Hydrostatic drive D: Accelerator pedal: A: HAND THROTTLE
What devices ensure the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power is loss or a component fails or a line breaks on the MHU-83 series lift trucks? A: Cantilever valve B: Counterbalance valve C: Hydraulic system safety interlocks D: Mechanic: B: COUNTERBALANCE VALVE
The MHU-83 component used to lift the frtont wheels off the ground to allow side frame width adjustment is the A: lift boom B: Outriggers C: jack assemblies D: fork assemblies: A: lift boom
What is the primary purpose of the hydraulic hand pump located on the right hand side of the MHU-83 lift truck? A:Operating the hydraulic system should the engine quit during loading operations B: Acting as a back up starting mechanism if the engine: A: Operating the hydraulic system should the engine quit during loading operations
What is the lift capacity of an MHU-83 with aluminum rollers installed? A: 5000 B: 6000 C: 7000 D:10000: C: 7000
Which bomb support rollers may be used with roller extensions? A: Aluminum rollers B: Rubber rollers C: Steel rollers D: All rollers: D: ALL ROLLERS
How many load binders do you need when loading with an MHU-83? A:1 B:2 C:3 D:4: A:1
What type of stand is used to support tripple ejector racks(TER) when loading them and storing them for future use? A: Y-Stand B: Hoist stand C: Gantry stand D: Roll-around stand: C: Gantry stand
Before operating bomb bay door systems for check out you must make sure A. the system has been safed or disabled B. the proper strut supports have been installed C. the system safety pins and rigging stops have been installed D. all personnel: D: ALL PERSONNEL AND EQUIPMENT HAVE BEEN CLEARED FROM THE AREA OF OPERATION
What condition permits helicopters rotor blades to droop to within five feet of the ground? A. Droop stop malfunction B. Tail swing malfunction C. Rotor dip malfunction D. Helicopter take-off: A: DROOP STOP MALFUNCTION
The noise intensity of jet aircraft is greatest A. Anywhere within a 25 foot radius around the aircraft B. anywhere within a 100 foot radius around the aircraft C. In the rear of the engines at an angle of 45 on either side D. In the rear of t: C: IN THE REAR OF THE ENGINES AT AN ANGLE OF 45 ON EITHER SIDE
When electromagnetic radiation is absorbed in the tissues of the body A. Heat is produced B. genetic damage can result C. Static charges can build up D. radiation sickness can be induced: A: HEAT IS PRODUCED.
Which form has an entry identifying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft? A. 781A, maintenance discrepancy and work document B. 781F, aerospace vehicle flight report and maintenance document C. 781H, aerospace vehicle fligh: C: AFTO FORM 781H, AEROSPACE VEHICLE FLIGHT STATUS AND WORK DOCUMENT
What is the first step in making sure an aircraft is safe for maintenance? A. Installing safety pins in all stations B. making sure fire fighting equipment is available C. making sure the aircraft is position chocked and grounded D. Checking t: C: MAKING SURE THE AIRCRAFT IS POSITION CHOCKED AND GROUNDED
When are aircraft most susceptible to fire? A. During refueling B. During munitions loading C. While the engines are running D. During servicing of liquid oxygen: C: WHILE THE ENGINES ARE RUNNING
What hazard is of special concern during aircraft brake fires? A. Excessive smoke from burning tires. B. Flying debris resulting from tire blowout C. Flying debris resulting from strut collapse. D. Intense light from burning brake components t: B: FLYING DEBRIS RESULTING FROM TIRE BLOWOUT
Bombs can be expected to detonate within how long after being enveloped in flames? A. Instantaneously B. 45 seconds to one minute. C. two to four minutes D. five to ten minutes: C: TWO TO FOUR MINUTES
When missiles are involved in an aircraft fire, approach the fire, if possible, from A. the side of the aircraft B. the rear of the aircraft C. the front of the aircraft D. whichever way best facilitates fire fighting efforts: A: THE SIDE OF THE AIRCRAFT
On a four person load crew, which member is deemed the primary firefighter? A. crew chief B. Number two person C. Number three person D. Number four person, if applicable: C. NUMBER THREE PERSON
Personnel line badges are classified as what type of FOD? A. Metals B. Papers C. Plastics D. Miscellaneous: A. METALS
Hailstones are classified as what type FOD? A. Stones B. Pebbles C. Plastics D. Miscellaneous: D: MISCELLANEOUS
What is the FOD walk? A. Any walkway for storing debris temporarily B. an inventory of tools before and after each job C. an organized inspection and physical pickup of foreign objects D. A place to store personal effect while working on the f: C. AN ORGANIZED INSPECTION AND PHYSICAL PICKUP OF FOREGIN OBJECTS
Aluminum's formation of a tightly adhering oxide film A. prevents it from being primed and top coated B. offers reduced resistance under all corrosive conditions C. provides increased resistance under mild corrosive conditions D. Requires heav: C. PROVIDES INCREASED RESISTANCE UNDER MILD CORROSIVE CONDITIONS
If unprotected, ferrous metal surfaces are A. Highly resistant to corrosion B. easily corroded if moisture is absent C. Easily corroded if moisture is present D. Easily corroded in the presence of high temperature exhaust: C. EASILY CORRODED IF MOISTURE IS PRESENT
Piano hinges are prime spots for corrosion because they are natural traps for dirt, salt, and moisture and A. dissimilar metal contact between the steel pin and the aluminum hinge tangs B. residual oil quite often masks small quantities of water th: A. DISSIMILAR METAL CONTACT BETWEEN THE STEEL PIN AND THE ALUMINUM HINGE TANGS.
An important part of corrosion control is detecting and correcting when the corrosion is on its what stage? A. Final B. Severe C. Earliest D. Endothermic: C. EARLIEST
What corrosion accelerant agent does dust, dirt, acid spills, or waste materials provide? A. Anode B. Cathode C. Exfoliant D. Electrolyte: D. ELECTROLYTE
Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout the entire aircraft electrical system? A. Aircraft power panels B. Main armament control panels C. Emergency jettison control panels D. Ground operations power override p: A: AIRCRAFT POWER PANELS
The energizing and deenergizing of bomb rack solenoids at selected weapon stations normally is performed through the A. Special weapons control panels B. Main armament control panels C. Subsystem control panels D. Jettison control panels: B: MAIN ARMAMENT CONTROL PANELS
What panel has circuitry used to activate an aircraft's radar set functions to their fully operational status so ground checkout of certain missile systems may be done?: B: MISSILE CONTROL
What panel works in conjunction with the special weapons control panels to facilitate all of the functions needed to release a special weapon?: D: MAIN ARMAMENT CONTROL PANEL
What two basic armament system controls are normally found on the pilot's stick grip? A. Trigger and chaff flare switch B. Trigger and armament release switch C. Armament release switch and missile mode switch D. Armament release switch and c: B: TRIGGER AND ARMAMENT RELEASE SWITCH
Which aircraft use integrated keyboards? A. F-22, B-52, and B1 B. AC130, F22, and B52 C. B52, F15E, and B1 D. B52, B1, B2: D: B52, B1, B2
The functions of a digital system are initiated by the A. Operator B. Interface unit C. Main computer D. back up computer: A: OPERATOR
Which aircraft employs all three stores management systems? A. B1B B. B52 C. A10 D. F15: B: B52
What aircraft system monitors an aircrafts system and indicates or reports its status to the aircrew or ground maintenance tech? A. Controls and displays B. Radar navigation C. Communications D. Fault Isolation: D: FAULT ISOLATION
In a fault isolation system using built in test (BIT) checks, the results of the test should narrow a fault down to a A. subsystem or system B. circuit card or component C. subsystem or line replaceable unit D. circuit card or line replaceabl: B: CIRCUIT CARD OR COMPONENT
Normally, the advanced computer fault isolation system narrows malfunctions down to a single line replaceable unit (LRU) A. 60 percent of the time B. 80 percent of the time C. 85 percent of the time D. 95 percent of the time: D: 95 PERCENT OF THE TIME
Before release firing pulses are allowed access to an installed nuclear weapon, an aircraft's weapons system must be properly A. monitored B. prearmed C. enabled D. safed: C: ENABLED
Radar navigation system associated with the weapon systems normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard A. rockets B. missiles C. nuclear bombs D. Conventional bombs: B: MISSILES
Which item is the only mechanically operated bomb rack presently in use? A. b11 B. MB3A C. BRU 44 D. MAU 12: A:B11
During release, what component of the B11 bomb shackle retains the arming wire? A. Arming hook B. retention lever C. Arming solenoid D. A6 release unit: A: ARMING HOOK
Which bomb racks are nuclear capable? A. MAU12 BRU 44, AND BRU47 B. MAU12 BRU 56, AND BRU61 C. MAU40 MAU 50, AND BRU47 D. MAU40 BRU 46, AND BRU47: A: MAU12, BRU44, AND BRU47
Nuclear capable bomb racks are equiped with A. an inflight safety lock B. center arming solenoids only C. umbilical connectors for the installed weapon D. separate electrical and mechincal safety pins: A: AN INFLIGHT SAFETY LOCK
What component of a cluster rack actuates the B11 bomb shack to release munitions? A. A6 release unit B. BRU6 release unit C. A11 release unit D. BRU11 release unit: A: A6 RELEASE UNIT
Rotating of the bomb module swing arms is enabled by A. electrical actuators B. hydraulic actuators C. pneumatic actuators D. cartridge-powered actuators: D: CARTRIDGE-POWERED ACTUATORS
How many munitions can be loaded on to the MIL STD 1760 enhance conventional bomb module (SECBM) A. 8 B. 10 C. 20 D. 28: B: 10
How many MK82 500 pound bombs can be carried by the bomb rack assembly? A. 8 B. 10 C. 20 D. 28: C: 20
Which columns are capable of holding cluster bombs units (CBU) on the smart bomb rack assembly (SBRA)? A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 1, 3, 4 C 2, 3 D. 1, 4: A: 1, 2, 3, 4
The multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled A. pneumatically B. mechanically C. hydraulically D. Electrically: D: ELECTRICALLY
During ground rotation of the multipurpose rotary launcher rotation, speed is A. 1/8 normal rotation speed B. 1/4 normal rotation speed C. 1/2 normal rotation speed D. the same as normal rotation speed: A: 1/8 NORMAL ROTATION SPEED
Which bomb rack is used on the rotary launch assembly (RLA)? A. MAU12 B. BRU56A C. BRU44B/A D. BRU61A: C: BRU44B/A
When MASTER ARM power is initially applied, a loaded TER will step to the A. last station of the unit B. first station of the unit C. last loaded station position of the unit D. first loaded station position of the unit: D: FIRST LOADED STATION POSITION OF THE UNIT
When BDU-33s are carried on a TER, to provide alignment of the bomb, you must install a A. short piston B. Yoke Adapter C. Tension spring D. set of rear swaybraces: B: YOKE ADAPTER
What bomb racks are used by the BRU57 smart rack to carry stores weighing up to 1000 pounds? A. B11 B. MAU12 C. BRU46 D. BRU47: C: BRU46
Which munition is the BRU61A capable of carrying? A. BDU33 B. GBU39 C. CBU 87/89 D. any munition or dispenser with 14 inch lug spacing: B: GBU-39
How many munitions is the BRU61A capable of carrying? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6: C: 4
The interchangeable pylons are A. installed differently B. loaded differently C. installed at one station only D. installed at any station: D: INSTALLED AT ANY STATION
How does the safety clutch safe the F-22 pylons? A. Electrically B. Mechanically C. Pneumatically D. Electrically and mechanically: A: ELECTRICALLY
What is the only gas operated missile launcher? A. LAU88 B. LAU106 C. LAU117 D. LAU142: B: LAU106
What is the only pneudraulicly operated missile launcher? A. LAU88 B. LAU106 C. LAU117 D. LAU142: D: LAU142
If the LAU142's ground safety lever is not in the GND position what will happen if the launcher fully extends? A. the impulse cart will fire B. the missile launcher will detach from the aircraft C. the launcher will automatically release the mis: C: THE LAUNCHER WILL AUTOMATICALLY RELEASE THE MISSILE HANGERS
Normally, what do you use and coat launcher rail surfaces? A. spray paint B. silicone spray oil C. VVL-800 (dry lube) D. molybdenum disulfide (dry lube): D: MOLYBDENUM DISULFIDE (DRY LUBE)
On the LAU88 missile launcher, what keeps the shear pin from backing out during flight? A. Lock nut B. Spring Pin C. Cotter pin D. Lock Washer: A: LOCK NUT
What rail missile launcher carries the AGM114? A. LAU88 B. LAU117 C. LAU118 D. modified M299: D: MODIFIED M299
On AIM9 and AIM120 capable rail launchers, what prevents the missile from leaving the rail if the rocket motor fires inadvertently? A. Dampners B. An in flight lock (IFL) C. Detent spring pressure D. Electrically operated snubbers: B: AN INFLIGHT LOCK (IFL)
What is the only rail launcher that automatically engages the missile umbilical during loading? A. LAU88 B. LAU117 C. LAU118 D. MODIFIED M299: D: MODIFIED M299
What is the rocket capacity of the LAU131 rocket launcher? A. 5 B. 7 C. 13 D. 19: B: 7
What mechanism within the LAU131s tubes restrains the rockets against normal flying loads? A. detents B. snubbers C. In flight locks D. Rocket retainer assemblies: A: DETENTS
How is the rocket LAU131 rocket pod safed? A. electrically with a shorting pin B. electrically with a safing clutch C. mechanically with a safing cover D. The pod has no safing mech.: A: ELECTRICALLY WITH A SHORTING PIN
What adapter was developed to allow the B1m to carry and drop BDU33's? A. single station unit B. rotary rack adapter C. Station adapter unit D. practice bomb adapter rack: D: PRACTICE BOMB ADAPTER RACK
How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12: A: 4
What bombing system release option is equated to a single selected weapon release? A. manual computed B. automatic C. computed D. Manaul: D: MANUAL
What aircraft generated computer signal allows the AIM120 missile to begin its launch cycle? A. umbilical retract B. Infrared lock on C. Release consent D. Radar Lock on: C: RELEASE CONSENT
What armament system circuits are normally disabled during selective jettison? A. Mechanical fuzing B. armament buss C. electrical fuzing D. essential buss: A: MECHANICAL FUZZING
Which aircraft does not have pylon jettison capability? A. B52 B. F15 C. F16 D. F22: C: F16
Who has the authority to change time constraints of operational/functional checks? A. flight chief B. Division chief C. shop supervisor D. Local commander: D: LOCAL COMMANDER
which of the following is a detrimental effect of barrel heating? A. Reduced barrel pressure B. Exceessive barrel pressure C. Increased barrel wear and warping D. Increased susceptibility to corrosion: C: INCREASED BARREL WEAR AND WARPING
To complete the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to the A. detent B. face of the bolt C. breech housing D. recuperator spring: B: FACE OF THE BOLT
What is the maximum firing rate of the GAU-2? A. 1500 shots per minute (SPM) B. 2000 SPM C. 4000 SPM D. 6000 SPM: C: 4000 SPM
What ammunition feed system is used to supply the GAU-2? A. Stripper clip B. linked C. linkless D. Linear linkless: B: LINKED
What component of the M61A1 breech bolt locks it in the firing position? A. Firing Pin B. firing tang C. locking block D. locking buttress: C: LOCKING BLOCK
What component of the M61A1 breech bolt makes electrical contact with the primer of the round? A. firing pin B. firing tang C. firing contact D. Electrical contact: A: FIRING PIN
What M61A1 gun component locks the barrels into position? A. Muzzle Clamp B. Diverter clamp C. Midbarrel support D. Center Clamp: D: CENTER CLAMP
What caliber pf ammunition is fired by the GAU-12/U? A. 7.62mm B. 20mm C. 25mm D. 30mm: C: 25MM
What is the firing rate of the 25mm gun? A. 1100 SPM B. 1200 SPM C. 1800 SPM D. 2100 SPM: C: 1800 SPM
Into how many parts is the GAU-8/A 30mm gun rotor assembly divided? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. Its one complete assembly: A: 2
What GAU-8/A 30mm gun component locks the barrel in the rotor? A. stub rotor B. muzzle clamp C. interrupted locking lugs D. Midbarrel support: D: MIDBARREL SUPPORT
The M240 operates under the A. gatling principle B. open bolt concept C. closed bolt concept D. recoil operated concept: B: OPEN BOLT CONCEPT
The GAU-18 machine gun is operated A. by gas B. by recoil C. electrically D. pneudrailically: B: BY RECOIL
When does the recoiling step of the GAU-18 firing cycle begin? A. Afrter counter recoil B. The instant of firing C. after the cokcing step D. during manual charging: B: THE INSTANT OF FIRING
What ammunition feed system is used to supply the M2A1 40mm gun? A. clip B. linked C. linkless D. linear linkless: A: CLIP
What two 40mm gun components absorb the rearward thrust caused by firing the gun? A. cradle assembly and recuperator cylinder B. Recuperator Spring and recoil cylinder C. Recuperator cylinder and recoil spring D. Cradle assembly and recoil cyl: B: RECUPERATOR SPRING AND RECOIL CYLINDER
What M2A1 40mm gun component is responsible for holding the barrel assembly in the gun, and acts as a safety device to prevent the gun from firing whenever the barrel assembly is removed or inproperly installed.: B: BREECH RING ASSEMBLY
What component of the 105mm gun is copmposed of the sleigh, recuperator assemblies? A. recoil mechanism B. cannon assembly C. cradle assmebly D. Housing assembly: A: RECOIL MECHANISM
What unit of the linless system is attached to the aft end of a drum assembly? A. exit B. access C. transfer D. entrance: D: ENTRANCE
The function of the transfer unit on the linkless system is to remove rounds from the A. drum and places them in feed chute elements B. conveyor elements and feed them into the gun C. conveyor elements and place them in the drum D. return chut: B: CONVEYOR ELEMENTS AND FEED THEM INTO THE GUN
Pm gun gas scavenge systems, after the trigger is released, purge doors stay open for approximately A. 10 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 40 seconds D. 120 seconds: B: 30 SECONDS
What aircraft makes use of a moveable door covering the firing port for the projectiles to exit the aircraft? A. F-15E B. F-16 C. F-22 D. AC-130: C: F-22
What are the two types of operational/functional checks for gun systems? A. Mechanical and hydraulic B. Pneumatic and hydraulic C. Pneumatic and electrical D. Mechancial and electrical: D: MECHANICAL AND ELECTRICAL
When using the boresight method of harmonization, the boresight target normally is placed A. 1000 inches from the nose wheel axle B. 1000 feet from the nose wheel axle C. 2250 inches from the nose wheel axle D. 2250 feet fromn the nose wheel a: A: 1000 INCHES FROM THE ENOSE WHEEL AXLE
Where is the adjustment made on the gun when boresighting? A. Gun mounts B. barrels C. nose mount D. heads up display: A: GUN MOUNTS
Before handling any electrically primed munitions, you must A. bond yourself B. ground yourself C. verify the munitions serial number D. verify the munitions service life date: B: GROUND YOURSELF
If burning particles of white phosphorus (WP) strike the skin, you must keep the phosphorus covered with A. a dry cloth B. a wet cloth C. flameproof material D. foam from a fire extinguisher: B: A WET CLOTH
The first thing you do in munitions prep. is make sure that the munition A. is reliable B. is serviceable C. matches fuzing requirements D. matches mission requirements: D: MATCHES MISSION REQUIREMENTS
During what loading step do you insert arming wire loops into the bomb rack solenoids? A. fuzing B. loading C. munitions preperation D. accessory preparation: B: LOADING
During a concurrent servicing operation what servicing action cannot be performed while refueling? A. loading B. oil C. oxygen D. nitrogen: C: OXYGEN
During a concurrent servicing operation a concurrent servicing supervisor is not required when A. engines are not running B. no loading is taking place C. fueling is not being performed D. no oxygen servicing is taking place: C: FUELING IS NOT BEING PERFORMED
What type of load binder is attached to bomb support beams? A. Teflon B. Nylon C. rayon D. Dacron: B: NYLON
Extension lift arms installed on the MJ-1 lift truck limits lifting capacity to A. 2000 pounds B. 2200 pounds C. 2400 pounds D. 2600 pounds: B: 2200 POUNDS
You install the extension lift arms on the MJ-1A/B lift truck by A. inserting the ends of the arms into slots in the table assembly B. inserting the ends of the arms into slots on the main frame C. inserting the ends of the arms into slots in the: C: INSERTING THE ENDS OF THE ARMS INTO SLOTS IN THE LIFT ARMS.
What is the MJ-40 and MHU-83 series lift truck weight limit reduced to when using the fork adapter assembly? A. 7500 pounds B. 7000 pounds C. 6000 pounds D. 5000 pounds: C: 6000 POUNDS
Wehat accessory is used in conjunction with the MHU-83 series lift truck to load external heavyt stores on a B-52? A. Extension lift arms B. Fork adapter assembly C. MAU114 and pylon loading Adapter D. Load binder adapter and two tie down stra: B: FORK ADAPTER ASSEMBLY
What attaches the fork adapters to the MHU-83 series lift rrucks table assembly? A. 2 quick release pins B. 4 quick release pins C. 2 bolts with self locking nuts D. 4 bolts with castle nuts and cotter pins: A: 2 QUICK RELEASE PINS
What is the maximum lifting height when the adapter assembly is inverted on the MHU-83 series lift truck? A. 90 inches B. 107.5 inches C. 113 inches D. 140.5 inches: B: 107.5 INCHES
Pylons are attached to pylon handling adapters for mounting or removing from aricraft with A. load binders B. ratcheting tie down straps C. the pylons bomb rack hooks D. pylon mounting blocks and spacer bars: C: THE PYLONS BOMB RACK HOOKS
What bomb loading adapter is used in loading internal and external stores on the B-52? A. fork adapter assembly B. ADU314/E, preload adapter C. F310707-500 bomb loading adapter D. ADU328/E, aerial stores lift truck loading adapter: C:F310707-500 BOMB LOADING ADAPTER
Which lift truck supports the use of the mechanical ram assembly (MRA)? A. MJ40 only B. MJ1B only C. MHU83D/E only D. HUU83D/E or MJ40: D: HUU83D/E OR MJ40
Where does the mechanical ram assembly receive its power from? A. 25.2 hp diesel engine B. through an electrical cable attached to the lift truck C. from an A/M32A-86 or A/M32A-95 generator set D. Through two hydraulic service lines attached t: D: THROUGH TWO HYDRAULIC SERVICE LINES ATTACHED TO THE LIFT TRUCKS LIFT BOOM
How is the mechanical ram assembly primarily controlled/operated? A. The lift trucks operators controls B. the lift trucks remote control unit C. The controls located on the units control panel D. On the lift trucks boom mounted control panel<: B: THE LIFT TRUCKS REMOTE CONTROL UNIT
What is th efully exted height of the mechanical ram assmebly? A. 73 inches B. 83 inches C. 97 inches D. 107.5 inches: B: 83 INCHES
What accessory do you normally see attached to a MHU141/M trailer with a mixed load of missiles? A. rail extenders B. M9 adapter C. steak racks D. trolleys: B: M9 ADAPTER
What is the maximum load capacity of an MHU110M trailer? A. 10000 pounds B. 15000 pounds C. 15500 pounds D. 20000 pounds: B: 15000 POUNDS
How many main rail assemblies can be installed on the deck of the MHU110/M trailer? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6: C:4
How many trolleys and chocks can the MHU110/M trailer be configured with for roundshaped stores? A. 12 trolleys/24 chocks B. 20 trolleys/40 chocks C. 24 trolleys/48 chocks D. 48 trolleys/24 chocks: C: 24 TROLLEYS AND 48 CHOCKS
What is the maximum conventional munitions load capacity of an MHU226/M trailer? A. 8000 pounds B. 10000 pounds C. 12000 pounds D. 15000 pounds: C: 12000 POUNDS
How many hinged deck panels are incorporated in the MHU226/M munitions handling trailer design? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3: D: 3
How many hinged deck panels are incorporated in the MHU141/M munitions handling trailer design A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3: B: 1
What component of the munitions handling trailer breaking system is connected to the tow vehicle to activate the trailers braking system if the trailer becomes disconnected from the tow vehicle?: D: THE BREAKAWAY CABLE
How many hand brake levers are located on the MHU226/M munitions handling trailer A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4: C: 2
What is the lift capacity of the MHU204/M and MHU196/M trailers? A. 27000 pounds B. 27500 pounds C. 40000 pounds D. 50000 pounds: C: 40000 POUNDS
How many different operational modes are available on the portable control unit that controls the MHU204/M and the MHU196/M trailers? A. 12 B. 13 C. 15 D. 23: C: 15
How many people are required to remove the tow bar of the MHU204/M and MHU196/M trailers? A. None, it cannot be removed B. 1 C. 2 D. 4: B: 1
What MHU204/M and MHU196/M trailer component allow for precise lateral and longitudinal positioning corrections to the lift trailers and load during lifting operations?: A. X-Y PADS
Independent operation of either lift arm mechanism on the MHU196/M trailer results in A. tilting the load B. rolling the load C. moving the load laterally D. moving the load longitudinally: B: ROLLING THE LOAD
What MHU196/M trailer component supports the lift arms under transport conditions? A. Cable reel assemblies and chocks B. Interlocked chain load binders C. Retractable travel locks D. Retractable trolleys: C: RETRACTABLE TRAVEL LOCKS
What component of the MHU196/M trailer accommodates various load adapters? A. 4 fixed lift beam extensions B. 2 fixed load beam extensions C. A removable lift beam extension D. A removable transverse load beam extension assembly: C: A REMOVABLE LIFT BEAM EXTENSION
How much air pressure must be in the compressor tank before loading with the MHU196/M trailer? A. 45 psi B. 80 psi C. 90 psi D. 115 psi: C: 90 PSI
What is the ammunition capacity of the 20mm linkless ammunition loading system (LALS)? A. 1250 rounds B. 1533 rounds C. 1800 rounds D. 2100 rounds: D: 2100 rounds
Which component of the linkless ammunition loading system (LALS) transfers rounds into the gun system loading adapter? A. Access unit B. Loader head C. Interface unit D. Ammunition loader assembly: C: Interface unit
What position must the shift lever handle on the interface unit be in before mating the LALS to the aircraft? A. connect/Disconnect B. load/download C. passthrough D. bypass: D: BYPASS
What is the ammunition capacity of the 20mm universal ammunition loading system UALS? A. 1250 rounds B. 1533 rounds C. 1800 rounds D. 2100 rounds: D: 2100 ROUNDS
What component of the A-10 ammunition loading system (ALS) interfaces with the aircraft during ammunition loads? A. CNU039/E B. MHU309/E C. GFU-7E ALA D. MHU7E ALA: C: GFU-7E ALA
How many different outputs can an A/M32A-60 provide? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5: B: 3
Which item is the only auxilary power unit (APU) to provide both electrical and pneumatic power? A. A/M 32A-60 B. A/M 32A-86 C. A/M 32A-95 D. MC-2A: A: A/M 32A-60
Which A/M32A-60 control panel has the switches and controls necessary to operate the DC generator and to monitor the DC voltage output of the generator set? A. Power output B. DC instrument C. Generator Control D. APU output: B: DC INSTRUMENT
The brake on the A/M32A-60 is released by A. lowering the tow bar B. releasing the hand brake C. disconnecting the brake cable D. releasing the manual brake lever: A: LOWERING THE TOW BAR
Due to the expansion properties of fuel, an unmodified A/M32A-95 fuel tank should not be filled more than approx A. 1/3 full B. 1/2 full C. 3/4 full D. 5/8 full: B: 1/2 FULL
What electrical output is supplied by the A/M32A-86 generator set? A. 110/120 VAC or 208/230 VAC B. 115/200 VAC or 230/400 VAC C. 120/208 VAC D. 28 VDC: B: 115/200 VAC OR 230/400 VAC
How many instrument/control panels must the operator make use of during operation of the A/M32A-86 generator set? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4: C: 3
Which panel of the A/M 32A-86 generator set has the circuit breaker to shut off current flow in case of an overload? A. Generator control B. Engine control C. External AC D. External DC: C: EXTERNAL AC
What type of power is provided to the MA-1 and MQ-9 aircraft by the starter cart assembly (SCA) for use in the avionics system? A. 18 VAC B. 24 VDC C. 28 VDC D. 28 VAC: C: 28 VDC
Where is the control panel of the starter cart assembly (SCA) located? B. Underneath a cover located at the top of the unit C. On the starter cart assembly electronics tray D. On the engine monitoring panel: B: UNDERNEATH A COVER LOCATED AT THE TOP OF THE UNIT
Fighter aircraft may be exempted from 50 foot distance placement requirements of an APU during A. combat operations only B. simulated combat operations only C. combat or simulater combat operations D. combat, simulated combat, or adverse weath: C: COMBAT OR SIMULATED COMBAT OPERATIONS
What are must you avoid when operating units powered by turbine engines? A. The engine air intake B. The engine air exhaust C. The engine plane of rotation D. The power unit bleed air service hose: C: THE ENGINE PLANE OF ROTATION
How much air pressure is produced by the MC-2A? A. 5 cfm at 200 psi B. 15 cfm at 200 psi C. 5 cfm at 3200 psi D. 15 cfm at 3500 psi: B: 15 CFM AT 200 PSI
Wehnat is the maximum air pressure you may use for cleaning? A. 15 psi B. 20 psi C. 25 psi D. 30 psi: D: 30 PSI
What air force occupational safety and health standard identifies the protective equipment used with compressed air? A. 91-63 B. 91-501 C. 127-22 D. 127-33: B: 91-501
Before you connect or disconnect a high pressure service hose, you must make sure the system is A. not pressurized with more than 100 psi B. not pressurized with more than 15 psi C. not pressurized D. pressurized: C: NOT PRESSURIZED
What power output of the portable floodlight sets is used for powering common electrically powered hand tools? A. 28 VDC B. 115-120 VAC C. 220-240 VAC D. 225-300 CAC: B: 115-120 VAC
The FL-ID can serve as a ground power source for MQ-1 and MQ-9 aircraft whnen used in conjunction with a/an A. MC-2A air compressor B. A/M32A-60 generator set C. A/M 32C-10A air conditioner D. DCs40-75 Sorensen power supply unit: D: DCS40-75 SORENSEN POWER SUPPLY UNIT
In what position must the FL-IDs floodlight platform be during towing? A. any position B. lowered halfway C. Lowered completely D. lowered just enough to clear overhead obstacles: C: LOWERED COMPLETELY
What additional piece of AGE is required during operation of the A/M32C-20 air conditioner? A. A/M32A-60 generator set B. A/M32A-86 generator set C. MC-2A generator set D. MD-3 generator set: A: A/M32A-60 GENERATOR SET
Where are the A/M32C-10 duct hoses stored? A. On the units roof housing B. In the rear storage compartment C. In the front storage compartment D. in the chassis storage compartment: B: IN THE REAR STORAGE COMPARTMENT
What is the maximum amount of bleed air pressure that may be applied to the -10 air conditioner? A. 25 PSI B. 30 PSI C. 35 PSI D. 45 PSI: D: 45 PSI
What additional piece of AGE is required during operation of the polyalphaolefin (PAO) air cooling cart? A. A/M 32A-60 generator set B. A/M 32A-86 generator set C. A/M 32A-95 generator set D. None, it is a self contained system <: D: NONE, IT IS A SELF CONTAINED SYSTEM
How many fluid temperature modes are available on the Polyalphaolefin (PAO) air cooling cart? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6: B: 2
What must be done before making or breaking a connection between the PAO air cooling cart and the the aircraft? A. ensure cart power is off B. ensure the system is depressurized C. ensure the servicing lines are bled D. ensure the servicing l: B: ENSURE THE SYSTEM IS DEPRESSURIZED
Where is the cool air hatch on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand? A. rear of the unit B. front of the unit C. side of the unit D. Top of the unit: D: TOP OF THE UNIT
What is the primary reason for making sure aircraft fittings are clean before attaching hydraulic servicing hoses?: C: DIRTY FITTINGS CAN INTRODUCE CONTAMINANTS TO THE HYDRAULIC SYSTEMS CAUSING DAMAGE TO VALVES AND LINES
Which aircraft require aircraft armament system personnel to use the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) A. F15, F16, and F22 B. B1, B2, and B52 C. F15 and F15E D. F22 only: D: F-22 ONLY
What precaution must be taken to attempting to loosen fittings, or remove tubes or hoses when using the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC)??: C: YOU MUST VENT THE PRESSURE FROM THE PART OF THE SYSTEM THROUGH THE APPROPRIATE VALVE
What is the height range of the B-1 Maintenance stand? A. 1 to 7 feet B. 1 to 12 feet C. 3 to 10 feet D. 3 to 15 feet: C: 3 TO 10 FEET
What is the maximum static load the B-1 maintenance stand can sustain? A. 300 pounds B. 500 pounds C. 650 pounds D. 750 pounds: B: 500 POUNDS
What is the platform height range of the B-4 maintenance stand? A. 3-7 feet B. 1-10 feet C. 3-12 feet D. 1-15 feet: A: 3-7 FEET
The hand pump for raising the B-4 maintenance stand is located on the A. platform near the ladder B. remote control unit (RCU) C. base of the stand near the aft castors D. base of the stand near the forward castors: A: PLATFORM NEAR THE LADDER
What is the platform height range of the B-5 maintenance stand? A. 1-7 feet B. 1-10 feet C. 7-12 feet D. 7-15 feet: C: 7-12 FEET
What maintenance stand is a nonadjustable 4-foot platform with wheels on the back legs? A. B-1 B. B-4 C. B-5 D. C-1: D: C-1
If the split deck maintenance platforms tape switched detect an obstruction during operation, they stop the units A. forward drive capability only B. platform extension cap. only C. platform extension and lowering cap only D. forward drive, pl: D: FORWARD DRIVE, PLATFORM EXTENSION, AND LOWERING CAPABILITIES
what is the total lift capacity of the split deck maintenance platform? A. 2000 pounds B. 2200 pounds C. 2500 pounds D. 3000 pounds: A: 2000 POUNDS
During an operator's preuse inspection or AGE what is required to ensure proper unit operation? A. Check AFTO 781K forms for any defects B. Check with AGE personnel as to the status of the unit C. Cycle the unit only through the capabilities that: D: CYCLE THE UNIT COMPLETELY THROUGH ITS RANGE OF CAPABILITIES
Where must you annotate any defect you find on AGE? A. AFTO form 244 and 245 B. AFTO form 349 C. AFTO form 350 D. AFTO form 781: A: AFTO FORM 244 AND 245

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Number of cards 189

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