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Self Test: 1 - 250


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401. What are the two primary purposes to modulate a signal?
Ease of radiation and channel allocation.
401. What first must be done to radiate a signal over long distances?
The signal must first be converted to analog format.
402. Name the part of the AM carrier that varies according to the modulation signal?
The amplitude.
402. What frequencies are present at the output of an AM modulator?
Carrier frequency, carrier plus the modulating frequency, and carrier minus the modulating frequency.
402. What would be the fx's at the output of the modulator when you modulate a 500 khz carrier with a 2 khz tone
500 kHz, 498kHz, and 502kHz.
402. In conventional am (DSBEC), what is the relation between the bandwidth required to tx the signal and the bandwidth of the modulation signal?
The bandwidth required is twice the modulating signal.
402. What part of the bandwidth of a dsbec signal carries the information signals?
The sidebands.
402. State the main disadvantage of dsbec AM?
It wastes power.
403. Briefly describe the DSBSC process.
An AM process that transmits both sidebands minus the carrier.
403. In DSBSC operation, what parts of the transmitted signal carries info?
Both the amplitude and phase of the output signal carry information.
403. In DSBSC, what must we do to recover the original intelligence signal?
Reinsert the carrier.
404. Briefly describe the SSBSC process.
An AM process that transmits one sideband without a carrier.
404. Why is SSBSC far more efficient than DSBEC and DSBSC?
It mkes better use of power and bandwidth.
405. What determines the amount of deviation of a FM carrier?
The amplitude of the modulating signal.
405. How does the rate of deviation relate to the fx of the modulating signal?
They are directly proportional.
405. Who determines the amount of deviation in FM?
The FCC establishes the maximum amount of deviation.
405. How do you determine the amount of modulation index in FM?
By dividing the amount of frequency deviation by the frequency of the modulating signal.
405. What is a significant sideband?
A sideband that contains at least 1 percent of the total transmitted power.
405. Where do FM sidebands get their power?
From the unmodulated carrier.
405. What is the relationship between modulation index and sidband power?
A higher modulation index means more power in the sidebands. It is even possible to have all the power in the sidebands and none in the carrier. At this point, any futher increase in modulation would start taking power from the sidebands and placing it back in the carrier resulting in a redistribution of power.
406. What effect does the change in carrier frequency have in PM?
None. The frequency change in PM is incedental.
406. Describe the effect the positive and negative alteration of a modulating siganal has on the phase of the carrier in PM
During the positive alternation of the modulating signal, the phase of the carrier lags behind the unmodulated carrier. During the negative alternation it leads the unmodulated carrier.
406. When is the carrier at its rest frequency in PM?
During the constant amplitude part of the modulating frequency.
406. What part of the modulating signal controls the amount of phase shift in PM?
406. What part of the modulating signal controls the rate of phase shift?
406. How can yo increase effiency in digital modulation?
By using multilevel encoding.
406. Describe the QPSK process?
The input NRZ signal is split into two directions (I-rail and Q-rail), each at half the data rate. The Q-rail signal is phase shifted 90 degrees and both are modulated in biphase modulators. The signa;s are recombined to form the QPSK signal.
406. what are the two reasons for using higher levels of PSK?
To increase capacity or decrease moduation rate.
406. How many bits are grouped in 8 PSK and 16 PSK?
3 bit combination; 4 bit combination.
406. What is the main disadvantage of higher level PSK?
You need a higher signal to noise ratio.
407. Define digitization.
The process of converting analog signals into digital signals.
407. Name four steps of PCM.
Band limiting, sampling, quantizing, and encoding.
407. State the main purpose of the band-limiting filter.
It ensures the input to the sampler never exceeds a maximum frequency.
407. Define sampling.
Converting a continous time signal into a discrete time signal.
407. What part of the pulse train is varied using PAM, PWM, PPM?
PAM = amplitude; PWM = width or duration; PPM = position.
407. What is the Nyquist sampling rate?
Sampling the input at twice its highest frequency.
407. Which step of PCM assigns discrete amplitude values to the sampled amplitude values?
407. Name the two methods of quantization.
Uniform quantizing, non-uniform quantizing.
407. Which method assigns amplitude values bases on an equal amplitude range?
Uniform quantizing.
408. At what speed does ATM operate?
600 Mbps or higher.
408. With ATM, what is the length of each transmission unit?
One character in length.
408. What part of an ATM transission tells the receiving device that a character is coming and that the character has been sent?
The start and stop bits.
408. How does the receive device determine whether it has received a correct character?
By summing the 1 bits.
408. What is the advantage synchronous has over asynchronous?
To reduce the overhead costs of data transmission.
408. How does synchronous transmission differ from asynchronous?
Synchronous blocks many characters together for transmission.
409. What capabilities does the RS-232C standard provide?
A standard for compatibility between communication devices.
409. What is data communications equipment?
The modem.
409. What is data terminal equipment?
The terminal or computer.
409. What is the maximum length of the RS-232C cable at 56kbps?
50 feet.
409. What voltages represent the logic levels for data in the RS-232C standard?
Logic 0 = +5 to +15 volts. Logic 1 = -5 to -15 volts.
409. What indicates the start of serial data transission?
The start bit.
409. How many stop bits are allowed by the RS-232C standard?
1, 1.5, 2 or stop bits.
409. Which RS232 pins carry data?
Pin 2 (transmits data) and pin 3(receives data).
409. What is the purpose of the Clear to Send signal on pin 5?
To indicate the modem is ready to receive data from the computer.
409. What does the Data Terminal Ready signal on pin 20 indicate?
The data terminal is powered up and operational.
409. Which lines are used for handshaking between the computer and peripheral equipment and are connected by a null modem?
DTE, DCE, Data Terminal Ready, Data Set Ready.
410. What are the two ways to connect equipment to tx serial data signals?
By single-ended and differential transmissions.
410. What are the distance and data rates for the RS-422 digital interface circuits?
For data rates up to 10 Mbps, up to 40 feet; for data rates between 100 Kbps and 10 Mbps, up to 4,000 feet.
410. What components make up the RS-422 digital interface circuits?
Line drivers (also called generators) and line receivers interconnected by a balanced cable.
410. What peak to peak voltage does the RS-422 driver produce?
4.0 to 12.0 volts peak-to-peak.
410. What are the distance and data rates for the RS-423 standard?
100 Kbps for up to 300 feet; if the data rate is less than 1 Kbps, up to 4,000 feet.
410. What are the peak to peak voltage and the impedance for the RS-423 line driver?
4.0 to 12.0 volts peak-to-peak (maximum operating range); impedance is 100 ohms or less.
410. What is the RS-530 physical specification?
A 25-pin D-type connector.
410. Why was the RS-530 standard developed?
In response to the disadvantages of the RS-449 standard.
410. With which electrical interfaces was the RS-530 standard designed to be used?
With the electrical interfaces RS-422 and RS-423 for synchronous and asynchronous transmission.
410. What are the data rates for the RS-530 standard with balanced circuits?
20Kbps to 2Mbps, with balanced circuits.
410. For what applications is V.35 most used currently?
Internodal trunks between X.25 exchanges.
411. According to the National Association of Communications Contractors, what percentage of network problems can be traced to cabling problems?
70 percent.
411. In what year did the EIA develop the first building telecommunications cabling systems standard?
411. What is the useful life of a building distribution system using TIA/EIA 563 standards?
10 years.
411. How often are TIA/EIA standards reviewed for currency?
Five years.
411. How many levels are contained in the TIA/EIA category system?
412. What does VRC check each incoming character for?
Odd or even parity.
412. What is even parity?
There is an even number of ones in the bit pattern for each character.
412. What is the difference between VRC and LRC?
VRC checks each character for odd parity; LRC checks an entire horizontal line within a block for odd or even parity.
412. What transmitted character does the receiver use to determine if a transmission was error free?
Block Check Character.
412. When using the checksum method of error dtection, what binary number is used to divide the sum of all the character in order to derive the checksum?
412. How does the CRC method of error detection determine the dividend when computing the BCC?
CRC treats the binary ones and zeros in the frame address, control, and information fields as a single long binary number.
412. How effective is CRC at detecting errors in most applications?
99 percent in most applications.
413. How does ARQ work?
The receiver automatically sends a retransmittal request to sender if error is found in a received frame.
413. What is the most common method of error correction?
Automatic Retransmit on Request (ARQ).
413. On what type of circuits is forward error control most useful?
On circuits with extremely high error rates or on 1-way broadcast circuits.
413. Using forward error control, at which end of the transmission link are errors corrected?
Recieving end.
413. Using forward error control, what is the transmitters function in error correction?
To transmit multiple copies of same message to the distant end.
413. Using forward error control, what is the receiver's function in error correction?
To compare all copies of transmitted message, then reconstruct the message using the good portions of the message copies received.
415. Photon particles are a part of what spectrum?
Electromagnetic spectrum.
415. What characterisstic of the carreir wave does the energy possessed by the photon determin?
The frequency.
415. What is the frequency range of infared light?
750 to 1500 nm.
415. As light penetrates a prism, what two considerations must be studied in the theory of light propagation?
The refractive index and the angle at which the light strikes the junction of the materials.
415. Describe refractive index.
It's the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in a given medium.
415. What are the three basic facts to consider in understanding refraction?
The normal (imaginary line perpendicular to the interface of the two materials), the angle of incidence (between the normal and incident ray), and the angle of refraction (between the refracted ray and the normal in the second material).
415. What happens to light when it passes from a higher index material to a lower one?
It is bent away from the normal.
415. What does snells law state?
If a ray of light impedes a junction of two media of different refractive indices beyond critical angle, the light will be totally internally reflected.
415. Describe numerical aperture?
It's a fibers light gathering capability.
415. How is light affected in a cable that has a large numerical aperture?
Dispersion is increased.
415. How does a fiber reach equilibrium-mode distribution?
Over distance.
415. How is power expressed in a fiber optic link?
Microwatts and milliwatts.
415. What contributes to fiber to fiber connection power losses?
Acceptance cone/ejection cone mismatches, fiber core diameter mismatches, connection insertion loss, intrinsic fiber loss.
415. What unit of measurement is used for fiber optic attenuation?
Decibels per kilometer (dB/km).
415. What are the two main causes of attenuation in fiber optics?
Absorbsion and Rayleigh scattering.
415. What is spectral attenuation?
It is related to light wavelengths and requres careful balancing of light sources and fibers.
415. How can you reduce Fresnel losses in a fiber?
Use index-matching fluids.
415. What does nuclear radiation cause in fiber optic cables?
Attenuation is increased by absorption and scattering.
415. What happens when fiber's bending radius is exceeded?
Macrobends and microbends.
415. What is dispersion in a fiber optic cable?
The spreading out of the light in a fiber.
415. How does dispersion affect the bandwidth?
It limits the bandwidth.
415. What causes each of the two main types of dispersion?
Modal dispertion is caused by the different paths of light in various modes, and material dispersion results from different velocities of different wavelengths.
415. How is dispersion measured?
Nanoseconds per kilometers (ns/km).
416. Of what type of materials are optical fibers normally made?
All glass or silica, plastic-clad silica (PCS), and all plastic.
416. How are optical fibers generally classified?
By refractive index profiles and the number of modes.
416. What is a mode?
It's a mathmatical and physical concept describing the propogation of elecromagnetic waves: the path light travels down a fiber.
416. Between what elements of a fiber is the refractive index profile a relationship?
The Core and Cladding.
416. Briefly describe the three fiber classifications?
Multimode step-index: The fiber is 50 to over 400 um of constant index of refraction, and with a step change in index at the cladding boundary. Least efficient due to dispersion. Used for high-speed applications, but it's hard to work with. Multimode graded-index: Has a core diameter of 50 to 100 um. The core has numerous concentric layers of glass that enable the fiber to have the same refractive index throughtout. The core's center has the highest refractive index, and light rays are refracted continuously so that each ray reaches the distant end at the same time. It has a large bandwidth and a low attenuation.
416. Which fiber classification has the highest dispersion factor?
Multimode step-index.
416. Which fiber type is very efficient for long-distance and very high speed?
Single mode step-index.
416. Which fiber type has a large bandwidth and lower attenuation losses that the other two?
Multimode graded-index.
417. What are the components of a typical fiber optic cable?
outer jacket, strength member, inner jacket, moisture resistant compound, fiber core, cladding
417. Name the elements of a fiber guide?
Core, Cladding, and buffer.
417. Name the three major types of buffers?
Tight buffer tube, loose-tube, ribbon buffers.
417. How is loose tube buffer formed?
Fiber is placed loosely within a hard plastic tube. This tube has an inside diameter several times larger than the fiber diameter.
417. Why are strength members used in fiber optic cables?
To increase the cable's tensile strength.
417. What type of outer jacket has low resistance to sunlight?
Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
417. How water affect optical fibers in a cable?
Causes attenuation, robs mechanical strength, and (when it's frozen) causes micro bending.
417. What is a ribbon cable?
Fiber cables whose jackets are fused together to form a flat appearing cable configuration. May have up to 12 fibers per ribbon and 12 ribbons per cable.
417. What material is used for the strength member in a breakout cable?
Aramid yarn.
417. How are break out cables used in the optical system?
The breakout cable is spliced to the feeder cable and the other end connects to the modem.
418. What are the minimum components in an optical transmitter?
Optical source and associated driver.
418. Name the three main types of light sources for optic waveguides?
Light-emitting diode; semiconductor laser; non-semiconducter laser.
418. Give the three main requirements of a light source.
(1) Operating speed or rise time must be fast enough to meet the application's bandwidth requirements.
(2) Must provide enough optical power through the fiber to operate the detector.
(3) It must produce a wavelength that takes advantage of the fiber's long-loss propagation characteristics.
418. What is the wavelength band range for LED'S?
700-900 nm.
418. What are the advantages of LED's over lasers?
Small size, ruggedness, capability of single and direct modulation, less expensive, and spectral match with fiber waveguide and detectors.
418. What are the two basic designs of LED's?
Surface and edge emitters.
418. How do LED's produce photons?
LEDs have an area of N-material with negatively charged electrons and P-material with positively charged holes. When a bias current is passed in the right direction, the depletion region or PN junction breaks down. The free electrons and holes move toward the PN junction, meet, and recombine, and the free electrons move from the conduction band to the valence band. This giving up of energy is the photon of light.
418. What type of light is emitted from LED's
418. How are lasers different from LED's?
Lasers operate at higher data rates, provide a higher optical power output, require slightly more complex drive and temperature control circuits, have a shorter life span, have a resonant optical cavity, and are costly.
418. What are lasers sensitive to?
418. How are lasers output power measured?
418. In what area of a laser diode does the laser action occur?
Center P-area.
418. What must be present for a laser to emit light?
A strong current.
419. What factors limit a detector's performance?
Dispertion and attenuation.
419. What two factors control the light signal that's received by the detector?
Noise floor or noise equivalent power and the signal-to-noise ratio.
419. What is Dark Current?
The small amount of current that's produced by a photodetector even though no light is evident.
419. What terms refer to the relationship between the signal and noise?
Signal-to-noise ratio and bit error rate.
419. What primary material is used to make semiconductor photodiodes?
419. Upon what does a detectors responsivity depend?
Wavelength of light
419. What are the two main types of photodetectors?
Positive intrinsic negative (PIN) diode and avalanche photodiode (APD).
419. What are the three regions in a PIN diode?
P-region, N-region, and a lightly doped intrinsic I-region.
419. What are the major differences between and APD and a PIN photodetector
The number of electrons emitted from each differs when they're activated by a similar light source.
419. For what type of application are APD's ideally suited?
High speed, long distance applications.
420.3 What are tunable fiber optic cables?
It means the keying slot in the connector can be rotated to find the optimal alignment
421.1 What are the four circumstances that could justify the deployment of a combat communications unit?
Any four of these: declaration of war, national emergency, natural disaster readiness inspection, practice exercise
421.2 Who prepares the frag order?
It is prepared for each tactical operation by the unit concerned and/or parent unit.
421.3 What are four areas covered during the predeparture briefing?
purpose and estimated duration, pertinent local conditions, reporting instructions, arrival and departure times
422.1 When does the employment phase begin and end?
The employment Begins when the first convoy departs and ends when you recieve end ex order
422.2 What determines the size of the RADHAZ area?
Equipment Configuration
422.3 How do wideband and SATCOM terminals establish a communications link?
Any three of these: completeness of plans and tasking directives, accuracy of site survey reports and path predictions for all radio links, compliance with published technical data, availability of properly calibrated test equipment, adherence to reporting procedures and proper training of all deployed personnel
423.1 What shoudl you be prepared to discuss at post deployement conferences?
All post deployment inspection are complet. Maintenance actions are documented and reported Necessary supply actions are documented and required items have been requisitioned.
423.3 What are three link assessment deficiencies noted during the exercise that requires special attention by the work center?
Any three of these: completeness of plans and tasking directives, accuracy of site survey reports and path predictions for all radio links, compliance with published technical data, availability of prooperly calibrated test equipment, adherence to reporting procedures and proper training of all deployed personnel.
424.1 Describe the force makeup of the Expeditionary Air Force.
10 Aerospace Expeditionary Forces.
424.2 How are AEF forces sized?
To meet the day-to-day rotational requirements for forward deployed forces. The two AEWs provide a rotating crises response force.
424.3 Who has direct command of the ASETF?
Commander, Air Force Forces.
424.4 When assigned to an AEF, how often can you expect to be on-call deployment eligible?
For one 90-day period every 15 months.
424. Describe the AEF life-cycle.
The AEF life cycle consists of a 10-month normal training period, a two-month pre-deployment preparation period, and a 90-day on-call deployment and vulnerability period.
424. When does a surge condition occure?
The Air Force reaches a trigger point when it begins using up its resources faster than they can be replenished.
424. When does reconsitution planning begin?
Reconstitution planning begins at the onset of a surge condition.
424. As a C-E maintenance technician, what role do you support in the AEF?
As a C-E maintenance technician, your role in EAF is agile combat support.
425. What are CONOPS and supporting plans?
CONOPS and supporting plans identify how cummunication resources will enhance and support AEF operations.
425. What is a UTC?
An UTC is a five-digit identifier that establishes and identifies C-E maintenance requirements for systematic planning of forces packages.
425. How are force packages used in the EAF planning process?
Force packages are groupings of combat and combat support force packages that can be extracted or adjusted as an entity in the TPFDD file. They allow planners to expedite development of a TPFDD or OPLAN.
425. Name the Air Forces system for UTC package managment.
The Air Force manages force packages through the MEFPAK system.
426. Which AEF function is considered to be the nerve center for all deployment activity for the Air Force?
The Air Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is considered to be the nerve center for all deployment activity throughout the Air Force.
426. What chain-of-command authority does the AEFC hold over other AEF foces?
426. Which all-important AEFC function is critical to constant imporvement of the EAF concept?
AEFCs lesson learned function is critical to constant improvement of the EAF process.
426. How does the AEFC ensure AEFs are maintained at peak readiness?
AEFC provides oversight for development and managment of AEF/AEW reporting systems.
437. Define requiring activity.
A unit or activity having operating and maintenance (O&M) responsibilities for the equipment/systems outlined in the project package.
437. What is a support activity?
A support activity involves base support activities (civil engineering, transportation, supply, etc.) having specific support responsibilities outlined in the program support letter (PSL).
437. Who performs the intitial project review?
An initial project review performed by engineering and maintenace staff, as well as the program manager at the requiring activity.
437. What contains a list of equipment items and their descriptions for an installation project?
A standard facility equipment list (SFEL).
437. What is used for engineering changes to an original installation?
Broadcast facility record.
438. What is LOM?
The LOM is a list of major and minor items needed for the project.
438. In order, list the four steps that ensure that all aspects of a project are covered.
Inventory, familiarization, review, and documentation of review findings.
438. What provides the systematic approach to ensure that all elements of a project are reviewed?
A project review.
438. If a relocation project is being done and no serviceability inspection has been accomplished, what do you do?
If a serviceability inspection has not been accomplished, conduct a special inspection.
438. Who prepares the AF Form 1146 fo on-site engineering changes?
The on-site engineer.
439. Describe the star topology.
Each node communicates with the central node. The traffic goes from the node to the central host and back.
439. Describe ring topology.
As the term indicates, the ring represents a closed circle of nodes.
439. Describe bus topology.
Sometimes refferred to as "a daisy chain." Each node connects to the next node on the chain.
440. Who is normally responsible for designing LAN's?
Communications engineers.
440. What effect does neglecting the prper documentation of LAN installations have on maintenance actions?
It can hinder troubleshooting capabilities.
440. Give five examples of equipment supported by horizontal and backbone media.
Your answer may include any five of these: amplifiers, hubs, bridges, repreaters, transceivers, concentrators, modems, gateways, router, PCs, and multiplexers.
440. Define the physical areas of a facility where the backbone medium is located.
The interconnecting cables between the main cross-connect, intermediate cross-connects, and telecommunications closets.
440. How is the backbone medium interfaced with the horizontal medium?
By cross-connecting the backbone cabling to horizontal piping in the TC using patch panels, patch cords, and jumpers.
440. Name two advantages of dividing media into the horizontal and backbone structures.
Fault isolation and maintenance planning.
441. Why are UTP cable pairs constructed with defferent pair twists?
To reduce crosstalk
441. (a) How are performance levels of UTP and STP media classified; and (b) which levels are rated for use in the LAN distribution systems?
a. Category 1 = minumum bandwidth
Category 5 = maximum bandwidth

b. Category 2,3, and 5 are rated for LAN's
441. Describe the composition of a 100-ohm UTP cable.
24 AWG/22 AWG conductors arranged with standard color code, maybe wrapped with dielectric material, have a plastic cover
441. What topology is used to distribut the UTP and STP backbone media?
441. How many cross-connects are allowed for UTP and STP backbone media?
441. When using UTP cables to support LAN data transmissions, what is the maximum length of cable you can install and still provide reliable service?
90 Meters
441. What is the allowable pulling tension when installing UTP nonshielded and UTP sheilded media?
No shield = 25 pounds; shielded = 450 pounds.
441. Where are cable shims necessary when installing UTP and STP media?
Around sharp corners.
441. You're installing UTP cabling in a suspended ceiling and must pass near fluorescent light fixtures. What problem do the fluorescent lights cause, and how can you correct the problem?
They cause electromagnetic interference

Don't place wire within 12 inches of light
441. Describe the composition of a 150 ohm STP cable
Two individually twisted 22 or 24 awg pair of solid copper conductors with plastic insulation. The shield for the pairs can be a solid strip of plastic/aluminum or tinned copper braiding. Pair 1 is red-green; pair 2 is orange-black
441. Give the bending radius for STP plenum sheath and STP nonplenum sheath cable.
The bending radius for UTP backbone cabling is 10 time the cable's outside diameter. STP ;plenum cablin - 6 inches; STP nonplenum--3 inches
441. Which twisted-pair medium used for LAN distribution systems must be grounded?
442. What locations can the UTP and STP horizontal media extend from when providing service to the customer?
The main cross-connect, intermediate cross-connect, or telecommunications closet
442. What topology is used to distibut the UTP and STP horizontal media?
442. Describe the composition of the UTP horizontal medium.
Four 100 ohm UTP, 24 AWG (or 22 AWG) copper conductors with the following color code:
pair 1-tip, whit-blu; ring, blue
pair 2-tip, white orange; ring orange
pair 3-tip, white-green; ring, green
pair 4-tip, white-brown; ring, brown
442. What is the bending radius for the UTP horizontal medium?
UTP-1 inch
443. What are RG-58-series coaxial cables sometimes reffered to as?
443. In what structure and support are the RG-58-series cables used?
443. What is the maximum placement distance for RG-58 cables?
185 meters
443. If a section of RG-58 cable is used to service DTE from the main bus or ring, what is the maximum length the segment can be?
15 meters
443. What is the maximum bending radius for RG-58-series cables?
5 cm
443. When installing RG-58 cables, to what value is the pulling tension limited?
25 pounds
444. What topology is used to distribut horizontal and backbone FO cables?
444. How many cross-connects are allowed between the MC and TC on backbone FO cables?
444. When placing multimode graded-index fibers for backbone distribution, what is the maximum placement distance from MC to the TC?
2,000 meters
444. Describe the composition of the FO cable used in the horizontal structure.
Two-fiber, 62.5/125 micrometer multimode graded index cable
444. Besides the two-fiber, 62.5/125 um multimode graded-index FO cables, what other type of FO cable can be used in the horizontal and backbone structures?
444. What is the maximum placement distance for horizontal FO cables?
90 meters
444. How do you determine the minimum bending radius when installing FO cables?
By determining the cable's outside diameter and multiplying it by 10
444. When would you need to ground a FO cable used for LAN distribution systems?
If the cable has an outer metallic shield
445. You've installed a catogory 3 medium for your LAN. What classification must your termination and cross-connection hardware have?
Category 3 or higher
445. On UTP and STP cables, the pair twist is maintained to within what distance from the terminal connection point?
1/2 inch
445. What instructions do you use when you are installing termination hardware?
The manufactur's instructions and applicable local building and fire codes
445. On new installations of LANs, how many termination ports does the wall outlet have?
A minimum of two
445. How many jacks can the wall outlet faceplate have?
Two, but up to as many as eight
445. How can you tell the cutting side of the impact tool?
The yellow side of the handle is labeled CUT.
445. What kind of terminal blocks is the impact tool used on?
The 66 type
445. How can you run a jumper from one terminal to another on the same block?
Use the blunt side of the blade
445. What six basic requirements does a wire wrap meet?
Metal to metal contact, high pressure contact, gas tight area, large contact area, mechanical stability, and no local stress concentrations (sharp bends)
445. What advantages do you have with wire wrappin over soldering?
Less chance of personal injury, savings in resources, easy to disconnect as needed, connections more compact, uniformity of connections, stronger and more reliable, can be done with any one of the wire wrap tools
445. What are the three types of wire-wrapping tools?
Manual had wrap, mechanically hand operated, and electrical wire wrapping
445. What is the rule when you have to solder one wire wrap on a terminal?
If you solder one wire wrap on a terminal, you have to solder all wire wraps on that terminal
445. What are the ways to remove a wire wrap?
By hand, with longnose pliers, or with an unwrap tool.
445. When making a patch cord, hw far from the jacket do you cut the conductors before you insert them into the connector?
1/2 inch
445. How do you know the outlet connector is installed properly?
The topside of the outlet connector is identified with the word "up", andthe tab adapter faces downward.
445. What do you use to terminate the connectors on the 110 conductor slots?
D-814 impact tool
445. What is the recommended method of cross-connecting media in the MC, IC, or TC?
Use modular patch panels and patch cords
446. What color plastic tag is used to mark feeder cables from the central office?
446. What color is the plastic tag used to mark first-level backbone cables?
446. What color is the plastic tag used to mark second-level backbone cables?
446. At a minimum, what do you use to identify the LAN cables?
A permanent tag or label at each end

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