7, 8, 9 &10

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Which of these bones is part of the axial skeleton?: rib
A small, flattened articular surface is a: facet
The general term for a depression in a bone is: fossa
What small ridges extend laterally from the external occipital protuberance and serve as points of attachment for several neck muscles?: nuchal lines
The largest foramen in the skull is the: foramen magnum.
The mastoid process and mastoid air cells are part of the: temporal bone.
Which bones articulate with the sphenoid bone?: frontal bone;ethmoid bone; parietal bone and occipital bone
Which part of the mandible articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone?: condylar process
The zygomatic arch consists of processes from the: temporal and zygomatic bones.
Which of these bones form part of the orbit?: frontal ; ethmoid;maxilla and sphenoid
Three bony shelves that project inferiorly in the nasal cavity are called: nasal conchae.
The olfactory foramina are found in the: cribriform plate.
During life, the pituitary gland is located in the: sella turcica.
Sound waves enroute to the eardrum travel through the: external auditory meatus.
Which of these bones is part of the cranial vault?: frontal occipital parietal temporal
Which bones articulate with any other bone?: maxilla mandible vertebra inferior nasal concha
Which vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes and possess articular facets on their lateral surfaces to articulate with ribs?: thoracic
Which statements concerning vertebral column curvatures?: The lumbar curve develops after birth.
Pregnancy is most likely to contribute to which conditions?: lordosis
The openings between vertebrae through which spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord are: intervertebral foramina.
The vertebral arch: consists of two laminae and two pedicles.
The internal gelatinous portion of the intervertebral disk is called the: nucleus pulposus.
The region of the vertebral column that is most susceptible to herniated disks is the: lumbar region.
Normally, there are seven: cervical vertebrae.
On the sacrum, the landmark that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity is the: sacral promontory.
Of the 12 pairs of ribs, ____________ pair(s) is/are vertebrochondral.: 3
The articular facet for the transverse process of a vertebra is found on the __________ of a rib.: tubercle
The clavicle articulates with what two bones?: scapula and sternum
Greater and lesser tubercles are found on the __________ , whereas the greater and lesser trochanters are found on the ___________ .: humerus, femur
The head of the radius is __________ ; the head of the ulna is __________ .: proximal, distal
The wrist consists of eight __________ bones, whereas the ankle consists of seven __________ bones.: carpal, tarsal
Two bones that have prominent epicondyles are the: femur and humerus.
The radial notch is found on the: ulna
The depression on the os coxa where the head of the femur articulates is the: acetabulum.
The bumps that a person sits on are their: ischial tuberosities.
The medial and lateral condyles of the femur articulate with the __________ of the tibia.: medial and lateral condyles
This structure on the fibula forms part of what we commonly call our "ankle bone.": lateral malleolus
The average adult skeleton consists of ____ bones, however this number ____ with age.: 206, decreases
Which bone markings refers to a small, flat articular surface on a bone?: facet
Which bone features is a smooth, rounded knob on a bone?: condyle
Which bone extensions is massive and located on the femur?: trochanter
What is the primary purpose of a bone process or projection?: points of attachment for ligaments or tendons
Of the following depressions in bone, which one is a socket like that for teeth?: fossa
Of the following holes in a bone, which one is a small pit located on the head of the femur?: fovea
Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a tunnel like that of the inner ear?: meatus
Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a hole that allows for the passage of blood vessels and/or nerves?: foramen
Which is a mucous membrane-lined air space within a bone?: sinus
Which portion of the skeleton is the axial skeleton?: skull, vertebral column, hyoid bone and rib cage
Which bone(s) of the skull would be considered to be the most superior?: parietal
Which bones are joined by squamosal suture?: temporal and parietal
Which bones are joined by the lambdoidal suture?: occipital and parietal
Which bones are joined by the coronal suture?: frontal and parietal
Which bones are joined by the saggital suture?: right and left parietal
Of the bones of the head and neck, which one provides an attachment for the tongue and some neck muscles and does NOT directly articulate with another bone?: hyoid
Which bones does the supraorbital foramen pass through?: frontal
The most superior portion of the ethmoid bones rise up into the cranium through which bone?: frontal
The perpendicular plate is part of which bone?: ethmoid
The sella turcica is part of which bone?: sphenoid
The mastoid process is part of which bone?: temporal
What anatomical structure lies within the sella turcica?: pituitary gland
The crista galli is part of which bone?: ethmoid
The external auditory meatus passes through which bone?: temporal
The crista galli, perpendicular plate, and nasal concha are all part of which bone?: ethmoid
Which bones has greater and lesser wings?: sphenoid
Which bones has condyles that articulate with the vertebral column?: occipital
Which bone(s) have/has the following foramina: ovale, rotundum, and spinosum?: sphenoid
The jugular foramen lies between two bones.: temporal and occipital
The foramen lacerum lies between two bones.: sphenoid and temporal
Which bones has the hypoglossal canal?: occipital
Which bones has a cribiform plate?: ethmoid
What bone lies as a connecting bridge between the maxilla and the temporal bone?: zygomatic
which bone lie in the orbit?: frontal maxilla sphenoid
Which bone lies directly inferior to the perpendicular plate?: vomer
Which bones of the orbit houses a foramen for a tear duct?: lacrimal
The mandible articulates, via a highly moveable joint, with which of the following bones?: temporal
pairs of foramina are in the mandible?: mental and mandibular
The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is known as the: petrous portion
The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is part of which of the following bones?: temporal
The optic foramen passes through which of the following bones?: sphenoid
pairs of bones form the roof of the mouth?: palatine and maxilla
correct listing of paranasal sinuses?: ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary
Which bones houses the foramen magnum?: occipital
The head of the humerus articulates with the: glenoid cavity
The superior most portion of the ethmoid bone rises up through which of the following bones?: frontal
The middle and superior nasal conchae are projections of which bone?: ethmoid
The inferior most portion of the sphenoid bone is the: pterygoid processes
Which bones has wings?: sphenoid
The nasal septum is made up of which of the following pairs of bones?: vomer and maxilla
The ramus and the angle are parts of which bone?: mandible
Which groups correctly lists the auditory ossicles?: stapes, malleus, and incus
Which two bones of the skull contribute to both the neurocranium and the viscerocranium?: ethmoid and frontal
Nuchal lines and the mastoid process both provide points of attachment for muscles of: the neck
Temporal lines and the coronoid process provide points of attachment for muscles of: mastication
What is the only bone of the skull that is freely movable relative to the rest of the skull bones?: mandible
How many cervical vertebrae are there?: 7
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?: 12
The first cervical vertebrae is known as the: atlas
The second cervical vertebrae is known as the: axis
The opening in the middle of a vertebra for the spinal cord is known as the: vertebral foramen
Two of the bony ridges that surround the spinal cord are the: pedicle and lamina
Which vertebra is immediately inferior to C-7?: T-1
Which vertebra is immediately inferior to T-12?: L-1
How many pairs of vertebrosternal ribs are there?: 7
The sacrum is composed of how many fused bones?: 5
The most inferior portion of the sternum is the: xiphoid process
The most superior portion of the sternum is the: manubrium
How many pairs of vertebral ribs are there?: 2
How many pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are there?: 3
The openings between vertebrae that allow for the spinal nerves to enter and exit are known as: intervertebral foramen
Which are the cartilages that attach the ribs to the sternum?: costal cartilages
The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae partially fuse to form which structure?: medial sacral crest
The superior articular process of T-1 articulates with which process?: inferior articular process of C-7
Which two parts of a rib articulate with the vertebrae?: head and tubercle
A distinctive feature of the first cervical vertebrae is that it: does not have a body
A distinctive feature of the second cervical vertebrae is that it: has a dens
A distinctive feature of all cervical vertebrae is that they: all have transverse foramina
A distinctive feature of all thoracic vertebrae is that they: all have facets for ribs
What is the most posterior portion of a vertebra?: spinous processes
Which serve as points of articulation between adjacent vertebrae?: articular facets
What attaches to spinous processes and transverse processes?: muscles
What passes through the foramen magnum?: the spinal cord
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as: scoliosis
An abnormal curvature of the lumbar spine that results in an exaggeration of the convex curve of the lumbar region is known as: lordosis
Which of the following is a surgical removal of the posterior arch of a vertebra?: laminectomy
Coronoid processes are found on which pair of bones?: mandible and ulna
Which of the following bone extensions is a rough surface found on the tibia?: tubercle
The pectoral girdle is composed of which bones?: scapula and clavicle
The sternoclavicular joint is between which of the following pairs of bones?: sternum and clavicle
The glenohumeral joint is between, which of the following pairs of bones: scapula and humerus
The two bones most inferior to the humerus are the: radius and ulna
Medially the clavicle articulates with the: sternum
Laterally the clavicle articulates with the: scapula
The two processes on the superior - lateral portion of the scapula are the: coracoid and acromion
Which of the following bones is immediately proximal to the radius?: humerus
How many carpal bones are there in one hand?: 8
How many phalanges are there in one hand?: 14
How many phalanges does one thumb have?: 2
The carpal bones are arranged in which patterns?: two rows of 4
The end of the first finger (the one used for pointing) has a phalanx in it identified as which of the following?: second distal phalanx
On the "pinky", the last digit is referred to as the: 5th distal phalanx
Styloid processes are found on which bones?: temporal, radius, and ulna
What is the structure commonly referred to as the elbow?: olecranon process of the humerus
Which of the bones is found in the proximal row of carpals?: scaphoid; lunate ;triquetrum
Which bones is found in the distal row of carpals?: hamate; trapezoid ;pisiform
The first groove beneath the head of the humerus is the: anatomical head
Of the bony parts, which one has the deltoid muscle attachment?: deltoid tuberosity
Where is the olecranon fossa located?: posterior and distal portion of the humerus
The structure that articulates with the olecranon fossa is the olecranon process of the: ulna
The structure that articulates with the coronoid fossa of the humerus is the coronoid process of the: ulna
When resting our elbows upon the table, the bony projection on the back of our arms, that rests on the table, is the: olecranon process
The distal most bony projections of the radius and the ulna are the __________ processes.: styloid
The ulna rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?: trochlea
The head of the radius rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?: capitulum
An accessory bone often found in the palm of the hand, is known as a(n) _______ bone.: sesamoid
The term "phalanges" is the plural of which of the following?: phalanx
The structure that articulates with the glenoid cavity is the head of the: humerus
Which of the following rotates on the capitulum?: radius
The joint between a coxal bone and the sacrum is known as the: sacroiliac joint
The joint between the pubic bones is known as the: symphysis pubic
Which is a large sesamoid bone in the leg?: patella
The fibula in relation to the tibia is: lateral to the tibia
The upper (superior) most portion of the ilium, where we rest our hands on hips, is the: iliac crest
The visible anterior protrusions of the ilium are which of the following?: anterior superior iliac spine
The head of the femur articulates in which of the following?: acetabulum
Which is the large opening in the bones between the ilium and ischium?: obturator
In general, the female pelvis differs from the male pelvis by which of the following?: Females have a broader and more shallow pelvic outlet.
The tarsal region of the body is which of the following?: ankle to the foot
Which is a long line down the posterior side of the femur for attachment of muscles?: linea aspera
Which is a large bony ridge along the side of the femur?: greater trochanter
The most superior portion of the tibia is the: intercondylar eminence
Which is the large bump on the medial side of the ankle?: malleolus of the tibia
The distal most portion of the tibia lies on which of the following bones?: talus
Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most posterior?: calcaneus
Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most distal and lateral?: cuboid
There are three tarsal bones of the same name. Which of the following are the three?: cuneiforms
What bones are frequently beneath the distal end of the first metatarsal?: sesamoid
How many tarsal bones are there in one foot?: 7
How many phalanges are there in one foot?: 14
How many phalanges does one big toe have?: 2
How many total phalanges are there in the human body?: 56
The last digit of the little toe is known as the: 5th distal phalanx
Of the following anatomical parts, the head of the _________articulates in the acetabulum?: femur
Which structure(s) of the femur articulate(s) with the tibia?: lateral and medial condyles
Which projections of the femur does NOT provide for muscular attachment?: medial condyle
Which articulate with the femur: coxal bone;patella ;tibia
Watch for word clues staments like _______________are usually false.: all, always, exactly, none, and never.
cclavicle is part of the: appendicular skeleton
A knoblike lump on a bone is called a: tuberosity.
The superior and middle nasal conchae are formed by projections of the: ethmoid bone.
The crista galli: is an attachment site for the membranes that surround the brain.
The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____________ form the nasal septum.: vomer
Which bones contain a paranasal sinus?: styloid process; occipital condyle. zygomatic arch. medial pterygoid.
The nerves for the sense of smell pass through the: cribriform plate.
The major blood supply to the brain enters through the: foramen magnum and carotid canals.
The site of the sella turcica is the: sphenoid bone.
Which bones is in contact with the sphenoid bone?: maxilla; ethmoid; parietal; vomer
The thoracic curvature becomes exaggerated in .: kyphosis
The lumbar curvature becomes exaggerated in .: lordosis
The sacral curvature develops before: birth.
The lumbar curvature develops as an: infant learns to sit and walk.
A herniated disk occurs when: the annulus fibrosus ruptures.
The weight-bearing portion of a vertebra is the: body.
Transverse foramina are found only in: cervical vertebrae.
Articular facets on the bodies and transverse processes are found only on: thoracic vertebrae.
Medially facing, superior articular processes and laterally facing, inferior articular processes are found on: lumbar vertebrae.
The true ribs attach directly to: the sternum with costal cartilage.
The point where the scapula and clavicle connect is the: acromion process.
The distal medial process of the humerus to which the ulna joins is the: trochlea.
The depression on the anterior surface of the humerus that receives part of the ulna when the forearm is flexed (bent) is the: coronoid fossa.
which point of muscle attachment on the pectoral girdle or upper limb: epicondyles; radial tuberosity; spine of scapula; greater tubercle
arm parts with the number of bones: 1
foreman parts with the number of bones: 2
palm of hand parts with the number of bones: 5
fingers parts with the number of bones: 14
The bone of the foot that the tibia rests upon is the: talus.
A place where nerves or blood vessels pass from the trunk to the lower limb is the: greater sciatic notch.
A projection on the pelvic girdle that is used as a landmark for finding an injection site is the: anterior superior iliac spine.
When comparing the pectoral girdle to the pelvic girdle,: The pelvic girdle is more firmly attached to the body than the pectoral girdle.
When comparing a male pelvis to a female pelvis,: The ischial spines in males are closer together.
A site of muscle attachment on the proximal end of the femur is the: greater trochanter.
A process that forms the outer ankle is the lateral: malleolus.
diarthrosis: freely moveable joint
synarthrosis: joint that has little or no movement
amphiarthrosis: joint that is slightly moveable
synovial: is a joint that has a cavity filled with fluid enclosed in a capsule
fibrous is held together with: collagenous fibers
cartilaginous is held together with: cartilage
The sutures of the skull and the teeth in their sockets are examples of: synarthrosis
Intervertebral discs, the pubic symphysis, and the tibio-fibular joints are: amphiarthrosis
The shoulder, elbow, and knee are examples of: diarthrosis
sutures: forms the joints between the skull bones
gomphoses: attaches the teeth into their sockets
syndesmoses: holds two bones tightly together with a ligament
syndesmoses joint between: the radius and ulna and also between the tibia and fibula
synchondrosis cartilaginous joints: the pubic bones
Sometimes a joint has become fused and now is one: synostosis
Another term for ellipsoidal joints is _________ joints.: ball-and-socket
articular disks: fluid-filled sac found in a synovial joint
biaxial: a movement that is in two planes
the types of synovial joints that is the most freely moveable?: ball and socket
condyloid is found: between the metacarpal bones and the carpal bones
In which types of synovial joints does one bone have a projection that fits into a ring-like ligament on the other, enabling one bone to revolve on the other?: pivot
saddle is the: trapeziometacarpal joint at the base of the thumb
Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a simple moving of the lower arm up and down?: flexion and extension
Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement away from the midsagital line (as in standing spread legged)?: abduction
of diarthrotic movements, which one is the movement of spreading the fingers?: abduction
Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of a bone anteriorly in a gliding motion?: protraction
Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement in which one limb makes circular movements?: circumduction
Of the diarthrotic movements, which one occurs when one grinds the teeth?: lateral and medial excursion
Of the diarthrotic movements, which ones are movements of the thumb against the fingers and then away from the fingers?: opposition and reposition
Of the diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of rotating the palm up and down?: protraction and retraction
Of the diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of tilting the soles of the feet inward and then outward?: inversion and eversion
Of the diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of raising and lowering the toes?: dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
Which one of diarthrotic movements moves a bone superiorly?: elevation
Which of the diarthrotic movements is shrugging the shoulders?: elevation
Which of the diarthrotic movements is the pitcher's arm in a baseball game?: circumduction
Which of the movements occurs in ballet, when dancers point their toes?: plantar flexion
Which of the movements occurs when turning a doorknob clockwise or driving a screw into a piece of wood?: supination
Where is the talocrural joint?: ankle
The rotator cuff is located in which joints?: shoulder
The collateral and cruciate ligaments are found in which joints?: elbow
The iliofemoral ligament is found in which joint?: hip
sprain is a: torn ligament or tendon
The classic ACL injury that occurs in sports involves which joint?: knee
gout is a: is a hereditary disease in which uric acid crystals build up in the joint space and cause pain
osteoarthritis is the: most common form of arthritis referred to as "wear-and-tear" arthritis
Which conditions is a severe form of arthritis that is an autoimmune attack against the joint tissue?: rheumatoid arthritis
Which is an inflammation of the bursa within a synovial capsule?: bursitis
Severely damaged joints can be replaced with artificial joints. The correct term for this procedure is: arthroplasty
Which is a bacterial disease spread by the bite of a tick that can affect joints?: lyme disease
The term "suppurative arthritis" refers to arthritis that results from: infectious agents
tuberculosis arthritis is an example of: suppurative arthritis"?
In people that wear pointed shoes, the great toe can be deformed and displaced laterally. This condition is known as: hallux valgus
the symphysis pubis is between the: two pubic bones
describes a muscle motor unit?: one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by that nerve
Which types of joints are bones united by fibrous connective tissue, with no joint cavity, and with little or no movement?: syndesmosis
A wide area between sutures in a newborn is called a: fontanel.
The radioulnar joint, or interosseus membrane, is an example of a: syndesmosis
When the epiphyseal plate becomes the epiphyseal line, the synchondrosis joint becomes a: synostosis
The articulations between the teeth and the alveolar processes are: gomphoses
The articulation between the first rib and the sternum is a: synchondrosis.
Which types of joints exhibits the greatest amount of movement?: synovial joints
Most joints that unite the bones of the appendicular skeleton are: synovial joints.
Synovial joints are always enclosed by a: joint capsule.
Articular surfaces of bones within synovial joints are covered with: articular cartilage.
Synovial fluid is secreted by: the synovial membrane.
In synovial joints, blood vessels and nerves do not enter the: articular cartilage and joint cavity
A pocket, or sac, filled with synovial fluid that extends for a distance away from the rest of the joint cavity is called: a bursa.
Which structures is covered with synovial membrane?: bursa; joint cavity; tendon sheath
An example of a plane, or gliding, joint is the: articular processes between vertebrae.
The joint between the dens of the axis and the atlas is a(n): pivot joint.
The joint between the occipital condyles and the atlas (atlantooccipital joint) is a(n): ellipsoid joint.
Raising your arm to point at something straight ahead of you involves: flexion of the arm.
Moving your arm laterally away from your body is: abduction.
Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your thigh?: flexion
Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your leg?: extension
When a suspect is arrested by the police, typ