Diagnostic Assessment

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1. As a communications theorist and therapist, Haley deals with the concepts of the double-bind, setting conditions, and what else? a. family blueprint b. paradoxical interventions c. i-messages d. prejudicial scapegoating: b.
Jay Haley, a communications theorist, is associated with strategic family therapy and is well known for his use of paradoxical interventions (e.g., instructing a patient to purposefully engage in the symptomatic behavior).
2. According to psychoanalytic theory, the ego defense mechanisms fucntion to: a. keep unacceptable impulses from reaching consciousness. b. ensure socially appropriate behavior c. signal the emergence of anxiety d. reduce confl: a.
The function of ego defense mechanisms is to keep unacceptable impulses from reaching consciousness. Anxiety results when the defense mechanisms fail to control "psychic excitation" (i.e., the entry of unconscious impulses into consciousness).
3. A recent Latino immigrant to the United States would probably have the most difficulty adjusting to a psychotherapist who displays: a. an eclectic orientation b. a focus on individualism. c. an informal personal style. d. a f: b.
As compared to American culture, Latino culture is generally characterized by a greater emphasis on the immediate extended family unit and less emphasis on individualism.
4. Which of the following is least descriptive of the hypnotic state? It involves: a. induction of a "trance state" which, in its deepest form, may be associated with induced visual or auditory experiences. b. a heightened state of co: c.
People under hypnosis report that they never feel as though they are not in control of their actions when they are in a hypnotic trance.

Choices A and B have been used in various contexts as working definitions of hypnosis.
5. Which of the following is the strongest indicator of suicide risk? a. depression b. family history of suicide c. hopelessness d. alcoholism: c.
A number of studies has identified hopelessness as the aspect of depressive symptomatology associated with the greatest suicide risk.
6. From the perspective of Gestalt therapy, the term "introjection" refers to: a. adopting the values and behaviors of others without fully assimilating them into the personality structure. b. directing unacceptable anger and aggressi: 6. A
According to the theory that underlies Gestalt therapy, introjection is a boundary disturbance that involves assimilating information, beliefs, and values without really understanding them.
7. Which of the following clinical tests was developed on the basis of emperical criterion keying? a. Rorschach b. 16PF c. WAIS-III d. MMPI-2: 7. D
Empirical criterion keying is a method of choosing items for a test on the basis of the items' ability to distinguish between groups. Of the choices listed, only the MMPI-2 was developed on the basis of empirical criterion keying.
8. A feminist therapist would: a. focus on innate, biological differences between men and women. b. believe that there are no inherent differences in power between a psychotherapist and a client. c. focus on social and political factors th: 8. C
Feminist therapy approaches assume that sexism and oppressive social roles underlie the reported problems of women who seek therapy.
9. Which of the following statements regarding client-therapist ethnic matching is most consistent with the overall body of research on the issue? a. Clients who receive therapy from racially and ethnically similar therapists are likely to show grea: 9. C
Though this is a controversial issue in the literature, the generally accepted consensus is that ethnic matching per se is not related to therapy outcome. However, variables such as therapist sensitivity to cultural variable and the client's level of identification with their ethnic groups influence the way in which ethnic similarity affects outcome.
10. Which of the following terms is not associated with Minuchin's structural family therapy? a. enmeshment b. disengagement c. boundaries d. congruence: 10. D
The term congruence is associated with Roger's client-centered therapy. It refers to genuineness and consistency between the therapist's words and behaviors.
11. A therapist that focuses on a client's basic needs for power, affiliation, and fun is likely a: a. reality therapist b. Gestalt therapist c. transactional therapist d. person-centered therapist: 11. A
According to the theory underlying reality therapy, psychological problems are due to an inability to responsibly and adequately meet one's basic needs. These needs include those for survival, belonging, power, fun, and freedom.
12. According to psychoanalytic theory, a patiente with an obsessive-compulsive neurosis is likely to strongly rely on which of the following sets of defenses: a. reaction formation, isolation of affect, and undoing b. projection, displacement,: 12. A
Reaction formation involves dealing with unacceptable impulses by substituting their opposite. The OCD personality is often overly rigid in matters of morality and ethics. Isolation of affect involves separation of thoughts from feelings associated with them. The OCD personality, while able to describe affectively charged events, prefers to avoid discussing feelings about them. Undoing involves behaviors designed to symbolically negate unacceptable thoughts or actions. OCD often involves ritualistic compulsions in response to obsessions.
13 Unconscious mental processing is called primary process thinking. This primary process functions according to the: a. pleasure principle b. reality principle c. free association principle d. transference between client and therapis: 13. A
Freud described the primary process thinking as governed by the id and functionoing according to the pleasure principle.
14. Jung believed that people turn from an extroverted process to an introverted one: a. in early adolescence b. toward the end of life c. around age 40 d. depending on the social situation: 14. C
Carl Jung described extroversion as the disposition to find pleasure in external things. Introversion reflected a turning inward of the libido. He believed that we turned from the extroversion of youth to the introversion of adulthood somewhere near the midpoint of life - around 40.
15. Adler termed the concept the "masculine protest" to refer to: a. a child's awareness that he is not female b. the pre-feminist movement c. Neo-Freudians d. inferiority complex: 15. D
The masculine protest came from Adler's idea that every child experiences feelings of inferiority which supply the motivation to grow, dominate, and be supportive.
16. Harry Stack Sullivan believed that neurotic behavior is often caused by: a. syntaxic modes b. prototaxic modes c. parataxic modes d. Neo-Freudians: 16. C
Harry Stack Sullivan believed that parataxic distortions - delaing with current acquaintances as if they were significant persons from early life - caused neuroticism.

He also described syntaxic mode experiences (symbols with shared meanings) and prototaxic mode experiences (involve discrete unconnected momentary states)
17. Existential psychotherapy focuses on: a. the individual and his community b. the individual and the ultimate concerns of existence c. the existence of our species d. congruence: 17. B
Existential psychotherapy holds that personality is an outgrowth of the struggle between the individual and ultimate concerns of existence, such as death, isolation, meaninglessness, and the ultimate responsibility for our own lives.
18. Fritz Perl's Gestalt therapy and theory of personality emphasizes: a. style of life b. boundary disturbances c. an understanding of maladaptive interactions d. psychoanalysis: 18. B
Fritz Perl's theory of personality viewed it as consistency of the self and the self-image. A person's interaction with the environment determines which part of the personality exerts the most control. A "boundary disturbance" such as introjection, deflection, confluence, results in a person who is less controlled by the self and more controlled by the self-image.
19. A feminist therapist would often have as a primary goal for her clients: a. an understanding of sexism b. reducing crossed transactions c. empowerment d. group therapy: 19. C
The emphasis of feminist therapy is to show clients alternative social roles and options. One of the primary goals is empowerment.
20. The primary difference between object relations family therapy, and most system based models is: a. the development of a supportive therapeutic environment. b. active listening c. communication is needed for effective family change.: 20. D
A core tenet of object relations family therapy is that insight is a care requirement for family change. Another major tenet of this form of therapy is that problems in current relationships between family members can be interpretted in terms of transferences resulting from the early mother-child relationship.
21. According to Yalom, if a therapist is criticized by the group for not disclosing personal information, the therapist should: a. interpret the behavior as resistance b. consider it a normal stage in the development of the group and ignore it: 21. C
This question is really asking about transference. Answer B is only partially correct. Transference is a normal stage in group development; however, it should not be ignored. Yalom believes that transference can be beneficial if it is managed effectively. The only answer that allows for further investigation and management of transference is C.
22. A disadvantage of concurrent participation in individual and group therapy is that: a. the patient is likely to rely on group therapy rather than individual therapy for support. b. the patient may save all of his personal self-disclosures f: 22. B
According to Yalom, a disadvantage of concurrent participation in individual and group therapy is that the patient may be more inclined to self-disclosure in individual therapy, where he or she receives more individual attention. As a consequence, self-disclosure in group therapy is reduced or lost.
23. The MMPI-2, the most widely used clinical personality test, contains the following clinical scales: a. Schizophreniform (SF), Gender Identity (GI), Narcissism (N), Social Extroverson (SE) b. Bipolar I (Bi), Personality Disorder (PD), Axis I: 23. C
Choice C are clinical scales from the MMPI-2. Choice D is a list of different scoring categories from Exner's Comprehensive Scoring System for the Rorschach. Choices A and B are made up.
24. Most of the variance in treatment outcome is accounted for by: a. the working alliance b. the specific treatment intervention c. the fee d. the initial impression: 24. A
The working alliance accounts for most of the variance in treatment outcome and it has been found to be more important than the specific treatment intervention.
25. Remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation are descriptions of: a. crisis intervention b. therapy phase outcomes c. stages in alcohol treatment d. stages of life: 25. B
The three Rs describe the three phases of therapy outcome described by Howard's research that found a relationship between the number of therapy sessions and therapy outcome.
According to Howard's research: Remoralization is the first phase encompassing the first few sessions. Remediation is the second phase that requires symptomatic relief and requires about 16 sessions. Rehabilitation is the third phase and involves a gradual improvement in various aspects of functioning.
26. The emic-etic distinction in the study of a culture includes the etic approach of looking at cultures from the outside using universally accepted means of investigation and the emic approach which involves: a. analyzing the culture from the rese: 26. C
The emic approach involves studying the culture from the inside, and attempting to see it as its own members do.
27. A culturally encapsulated therapist: a. is aware of his/her own cultural biases b. defines the world in terms of his own cultural beliefs. c. notices and works with cultural variations among clients. d. is able to work effectively: 27. B
A culturally encapsulated therapist defines the world in terms of this/her own cutltural beliefs, according to Wrenn. Choices A, C, and D are descriptions of a culturally competent counselor according to Sue.
28. Which age range has seen the greates increase in suicide rates in recent years? a. under 15 b. 15-24 c. 40-55 d. 65-80: 28. B
The question focuses specifically on which age group is showing the greatest increase in suicide rate, which is the 15-24 age group.
29. You develop a program for preschool children who are at risk fo rlearning disabilities. This is an example of: a. primary prevention b. secondary prevention c. tertiary prevention d. advocacy consultation: 29. A
Primary prevention is administered before the onset of a problem and is designed to prevent the development of the problem.
30. When they seek psychotherapy, many physically abused women report that they do not want to leave their husbands. A common reason for this is that: a. the woman feels she is physically strong enough to defend herself. b. the woman and her hu: 30. B
According to Lenore Walker's three stage model of domestic violence, a battering incident usually culminates in a "honeymoon" phase, in which the batterer is remorseful, apologetic, and promises never to batter again. Interventions for spouse abuse most commonly occur in this honeymoon phase, shortly after the abuse has occurred.
31. The difference between peroperational and concrete operational thought is that: a. the preoperational child is able to intuit, whereas the concrete operational child is not b. the concrete operational child has mastered conservation of the: 31. B
Piaget divided cognitive development into four stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. In the preoperational stage, the child is unable to conserve, or recognize that a change in an objects appearance does not mean that the object's fundamental properties have changed.
32. A 3-year-old child sees a squirrel "fly" from one tree to another and classifies it as a bird. After getting a closer look at the squirrel, he sees that it can only "fly" short distances and that it has fur instead of feathers. He: 32. A
Assimilation involves incorporating new information from the environment into existing cognitive schemas. Accommodation, by contrast, involves modifying a cognitive scheam to be consistent with new environmental information.
33. According to Erikson, the psychosocial conflict experienced by adolescents is: a. autonomy vs. shame b. ego identity vs. role confusion c. intimacy vs. isolation d. rebellion vs. conformity: 33. B
Erikson's theory of development describes the "Eight Stages of Man" or the psychosocial crises that are associated with development throughout the life span. According to this theory, adolescents face the crisis of ego identity vs. role confusion.
34. Kohlberg's theory of moral development suggests all of the following except the: a. necessity of progressing through the stages of moral development in a set sequence. b. importance of the development of cognitive skill as a basis for chang: 34. D
Kohlberg's theory of moral development holds that our beliefs about what is right and what is wrong progress through a predictable sequence that is a function of our cognitive development. Many individuals never progress to the final stage of development and remain fixed at an earlier stage.
35. A behavior that does not develop unless certain environmental events are present during a limited period of time illustrates the notion of: a. sensitive periods b. critical periods c. canalization d. maturation: 35. B
A critical period is a limited time period during which an organism is biologically prepared to acquire certain behaviors but requires the support of an appropriately stimulating environment.
36. Phenotype refers to: a. genetically determined characteristics b. environmentally determined characteristics c. observable and measureable characteristics d. characteristics with an unknown origin: 36. C
Phenotype refers to characteristics that are observable and measureable and that often reflect a combination of genetic and environmental influences.
37. As defined by Vygotsky, the zone of proximal development: a. refers to the people and resources in the learner's immediate environment b. refers to the child's biologically-determined range of reactions c. is the gap between what a chi: 37. D
Vygotsky believed teaching is most effective when it occurs within the child's zone of proximal development, the gap between what a child can currently do and what the child can do with assistance from an adult or more competent peer.
38. Stranger anxiety is most intense when an infant is: a. 6-7 months b. 10-11 months c. 17-18 months d. 22-24 months: 38. C
Strange anxiety is first evident when the infant is between 8-10 months of age. The intensity of stranger anxiety is at its maximum when the infant is about 18 months of age.
39. Delinquent adolescents are most likely to have parents who are: a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. uninvolved: 39. D
The characteristics of the uninvolved parents (e.g., weak supervision, hostility or indifference) have been linked to delinquency in adolescence.
40. The goodness of fit model developed by Thomas and Chess proposes that healthy development requires a match between: a. temperament and environment b. thoughts, feelings, and actions c. attachment and parents' responsibility d. cog: 40. A
Knowning that Thomas and Chess are most associated with research on temperament would have guided you to the right answer.
41. Which of the following aspects of memory shows the most decline with age? a. sensory memory b. primary memory c. secondary memory d. implicit memory: 41. C
One of the most consistent findings of the research in this area is that recent long-term (i.e., secondary memory) is most adversely affected by normal aging.
42. Patterson and colleagues would most likely agree that highly aggressive children: a. are born that way b. exhibit a high incidence of cognitive distortions c. have unfulfilled needs d. have highly aggressive parents: 42. D
Patterson has focused on family factors that contribute to aggressiveness in children, and he has found that the development of aggression was due largely to imitation of parent's aggressive behaviors and the parent's reinforcement of aggressive behavior by the the child.
43. Anxiety about death is greatest for individuals aged: a. 20-30 b. 30-40 c. 40-50 d. 50-60: 43. C
For most people, anxiety about death is strongest during the midlife years.
44. A school psychologist is interested in studying the interrelationships between a child's home and school environments. From the perspective of Brofenbrenner's ecological model, the psychologist is interested in the: a. mesosystem b. exosyst: 44. A
As defined by Bronfenbrenner, the mesosystem refers to the interconnections between different aspects of the microsystem - the connection between the family and the school.
45. A 15-year-old gets her haircut and feels that the hairdresser trimmed her bangs much too short. She tells her mother that she doesn't want to return to school until her hair grows out because she is sure that everyone will make fun of her until then.: 45. D
According to Elkind, one manifestation of adolescent egocentrism is the belief that one is always "on stage". This is referred to as the imaginary audience.
46. Zajonc's "confluence model" would support the finding that: a. first-born children tend to have greater intellectual ability than later-born. b. later-born children tend to have greater intellectual ability than early-born. c: 46. A
Zajonc proposed a confluence model to support a number of studies that suggest that first born children tend to have greater intellectual abilities than later born children. Zajonc maintains that as the number of children in a family increases, the amount of intellectual stimulation and other important family resources available to each individual declines.
47. The first words infants express are usually: a. Ninja turtles b. action words c. verbs d. nouns: 47. D
Children tend to express names of objects of significance to them, like Da-Da, Ba-ba, MaMa, etc. So nouns is the best answer.
48. Which of the following provides the best predictor of teenage delinquency? a. low SES b. single-parent household c. low self-esteem d. poor supervision and erratic discipline: 48. D
Research appears to indicate that poor adult supervision and erratic discipline are among the most critical factors assocated with teenage delinquency.
49. During the first few days following birth, smiling by an infant is associated with: a. human voices b. REM sleep c. human smiling d. wet diapers: 49. B
During the first few days following birth, smiling by an infant is associated with REM sleep. By the second week, the infant will begin to smile while awake.
50. Comparing children from intact families to children from divorced families, the National Survey of Children has found that as they reach early adulthood: a. children from divorced families are more likely to demonstrate academic and emotional pr: 50. A
Although the evidence is not overwhelming, the evidence suggests that divorce can produce negative consequences by the time the child reaches early adulthood.
51. Which of the following is least characteristic of infants who were exposed to cocaine in utero? a. crawl, stand, and walk early b. low birthweight c. very irritable d. insensitive to visual, auditory, and tactile stimulation: 51. D
Exposure to cocaine during prenatal development often leads to oversensitivity, rather than undersensitivity, to sensory stimulation. The other responses are characteristic of many of these infants who are exposed to cocaine during early development.
52. Organic brain disease would be suggested on the WAIS-III if, ont the subtests (compared to the subject's mean), a. Information and Vocabulary scores were low b. Digit Span and Digit Symbol-Coding scores were very low c. Similarities an: 52. B
The subtests of the WAIS-III vary in terms of their sensitivity to brain impairment. The Digit Span and Digit Symbol-Coding subtests are among the most sensitive. Scores on these subtests are most likely to be adversely affected by organic dysfunction.
53. For a group of 50 gifted children, scores on the WISC-III, as compared to the Standord-Binet, would tend to be a. lower b. the same c. higher d. unpredictably higher or lower: 53. A
The Stanford Binet is a more sensitive measure of intelligence than the WISC-III at the outer extremes (high or low) of intelligence. Thus, gifted children would likely score higher on the SB than on the WISC-III, while profoundly retarded individuals would likely score lower on the SB.
54. Administering only the verbal subtests of the WISC-III as a means of assessing intelligence would be most appropriate for: a. a child from a rural Appalachian community b. a recent immigarnt to this country c. a child from an affluent: 54. C
The WISC-III verbal subtests are influenced more by a variety of extraneous variables than are the performance subtests. Of the choices listed, the verbal subtest scores of a child from the the Burbs are least likely to be adversely affected by extraneous variables.
55. Scores on which of the following WAIS-III subtests would show the least reduction as a result of brain injury? a. Block Design b. Similarities c. Comprehension d. Information: 55. D
Scores on the Information and Vocabulary subtests of the WAIS-III are usually relatively unaffected by brain impairment. For this reason, the Information and Vocabulary subtests are used as measures of premorbid functioning in brain impaired individuals.
56. You are hired by a sheltered workshop program to do assessments of moderately to severely retarded adults. To obtain the most reliable and valid estimates of functioning with these clients, you would use the a. Vineland Social Maturity Inventor: 56. A
The Vineland Scales are used to assess levels of adaptive functioning in mentally retarded individuals. They are useful as part of hte process of arriving at a diagnosis of Mental Retardation since such diagnosis requires evidence of deficits in adaptive functioning.
57. A clinician uses scatter analysis of the WAIS-III to diagnose individuals suffering from organic brain damage. The clinican should be aware that this method is likely to yield a. too many false positives b. too many false negatives c.: 57. A
Individuals with brain damage do tend to show particular patterns of scores on WAIS-III subtests, but similar patterns are also shown by some non-brain damaged individuals. Thus, the strategy described in the question would likely yield too many false positives.
58. Research suggests that the most significant contributors to reading disabilities originating in childhood are a. visual processing deficiencies b. auditory processing deficiencies c. phonological processing deficiencies d. syntact: 58. C
Many studies have confirmed that phonological processing deficiencies are apparent in most children with reading problems. Visual and auditory processing deficiencies have been shown to have a relatively small impact on reading disabilities.
59. In Schizophrenia, the prognosis is most favorable when a. the patient has little or no associated mood disturbances b. the patient is in on-going psychotherapy c. the disorder has an onset in early life d. the patient's family is: 59. D
A number of factors are associated with a relatively favorable prognosis for Schizophrenia. On such factor is availability of social support. Others include: acute onset, later age of onset, being female, precipitating events, presence of associated mood disturbance, good interepisode functioning, minimal residual symptoms, normal neurological functioning, and a family history of Mood Disorder.
60. The best behavioral techniques for Specific Phobia would be a. reciprocal inhibition b. flooding c. modeling d. aversion: 60. B
Research suggestst that Specific Phobia is most effectively treated with exposure to the phobic object. Specific techniques would include flooding and and systematic desensitization.
61. A symptom often noted in severe abusers of amphetamines is a. visual hallucinations b. amotivational syndrome c. increased appetite d. paranoid ideation: 61. D
Typical complications of Amphetamine Dependence include paranoid ideation, as well as aggressive behavior, anxiety, depression, and weight loss.
62. The main disadvantage of abrupt termination of barbiturate addiction is the: a. management of the resultant depression and agitation b. "REM rebound" phenomenon c. probability of seizures leading to death d. general phys: 62. C
Abrupt termination of barbiturate use can sometimes cause a grand mal seizure, which can be fatal. Choices A, B, and D also occur but C is the best answer given that the question asks for the "main disadvantage".
63. During an initial interview with a patient, the patient reports symptoms including loss of appetite, sleep difficulty, and spells of sadness and weeping. It would be important to promptly assess a. for the use of alcohol b. for suicide pote: 63. B
Since the patient is reporting symptoms of severe depression, it is important to promptly assess for the level of suicide risk and, if necessary, intervene immediately to reduce this risk.
64. Anaclitic depression would most often occur in a. an elderly person who recently moved to a senior citizens' home b. a middle age man who has been laid off from his job after 12 years c. a teenaged girl leaving home to go to college: 64. D
Anaclitic depression is a syndrome that occurs in infants who have been deprived of maternal attention between the ages of 6 and 8 months. Symptoms include withdrawal, weepiness, insomnia, and a general decline in health.
65. In dealing with a highly delusional patient, the most inappropriate strategy would be: a. an attempt to dispel the patient's delusions through tenacious logical argumentation b. gently guide the discussion away from the delusional ideas rai: 65. A
Note that you were asked for the most inappropriate intervention. When dealing with a delusional person, it is important to behave respectfully and validate the person's feelings and correct perceptions, without reinforcing or disputing the delusional system. Attempts to dispel the patient's delusions via logic and argumentation will likely just prevent the development of trust and rapport.
66. Which of the following symptoms is the most telling sign that a person who drinks heavily should receive a DSM-IV diagnosis of Substance Dependence? a. morning drinking b. three arrests for drunk driving c. tolerance and withdrawal: 66. C
Tolerance and withdrawal are among the diagnostic criteria for Substance Dependence. The other signs may occur in individuals with this diagnosis, but are not actual diagnostic criteria.
67. You are seeing a client, a 38-year-old man, for the first time. Based on his symptoms, you determine that he should receive a diagnosis of Panic Disorder. Finding out which of the following would most likely lead you to change your opinion? a. H: 67. C
Centeral nervous stimulants, such as caffeine, the diagnosis is Caffeine-Induced Anxiety Disorder, not panic disorder.
68. Which type of Schizophrenia would you diagnose in a patient who displayed inappropriate affect, incoherence, and fragmented, non-systematized delusions? a. Disorganized b. Residual c. Paranoid d. Catatonic: 68. A
The symptoms of Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type include disorganized speech, disorganized behvaior, and flat or inappropriate affect. When delusions are present, they are not systematized and not related to a single theme.
69. In making a differential diagnosis between Schizoaffective Disorder and Bipolar I Disorder, Most Recent Episode Manic, what information would lead you to diagnose the former over the latter? a. The patient experienced a full blown manic episode<: 69. D
Schizoaffective Disorder involves both prominent psychotic symptoms and prominent mood symptoms. Bipolar I Disorder involves mood symptoms and can also include psychotic features. One diagnostic criterion of Schizoaffective Disorder is the presence of a two week or longer period where there are prominent psychotic symptoms in the absence of prominent mood symptoms. Bipolar I does not include a period of time in which psychotic, but not mood, symptoms are present.
70. In order for a diagnosis of Mental Retardation to be made all of the following must be met, except: a. significantly subaverage intellectual functioning. b. deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning. c. onset before age 18: 70. D
The criteria for the diagnosis of mental retardation include significant subaverage intellectual functioning (IQ of 70 or less), concurrent deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning, and onset before age 18.
71. Autism is seen in about: a. 5 cases out of 100 b. 2-5 cases out of 1000 c. 3 cases out of 500 d. 2-5 cases out of 10,000: 71. D
Autism is very rare and is seen in about 2-5 cases out of 10,000. It is also 4-5 times more common in males than females.
72. All of the following are learning disorders except: a. Disorder of Written Expression b. Asperger's Disorder c. Reading Disorder d. Mathematics Disorder: 72. B
Asperger's Disorder is similar to Autism except that there is no significant delay in language. For a diagnosis of any of the learning disorders to be made, the learning disorder must be differentiated from a lack of opportunity, poor teaching, cultural factors, Mental Retardation, PDD, or sensory deficit.
73. The onset of delirium is a. slow and unremitting b. slow but patchy in effect c. relatively rapid with a duration of several months d. relatively rapid with a duration of one month or less: 73. D
The onset of delirium is relatively rapid and the duration is usually brief, rarely for more than a month. If the state last for longer than a month, the diagnosis would probably be changed to something reflecting a more stable disorder, such as Dementia.
74. An elderly psychologist displays a significantly below average IQ score, impaired memory, and no awareness of his impairment. He presents as conscious and alert. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Alzheimer's Disease b.: 74. A
Alzheimer's Disease (or Dementia) involves multifaceted loss of intellectual abilities, such as memory, judgment, and abstract thought. The fact that the psychologist is not aware of his deficits suggests the diagnosis is Dementia rather than pseudodementia, and the fact that he is alert helps rule out delirium
75. Research on smokers who are trying to quit has found that a. cognitive restructuring is the most effective treatment b. flooding is the most effective treatment c. most people quit on their own d. relaxation training is the most e: 75. C
Research on cigarette smoking has found that most people stop smoking on their own or with minimal professional help. Factors most important to smoking cessation are: strong desire to quit, awareness of negative health consequences, and social support.
76. Psychomotor disturbance such as mutism, rigidity, and motoric immobility is characteristic of: a. Catatonic Schizophrenia b. Paranoid Schizophrenia c. Disorganized Schizophrenia d. Residual type Schizophrenia: 76. A
Mutism, rigidity, and motoric immobility are characteristics of catatonia. Residual type includes individuals who have had at least one schizophrenic episode and continue to display negative signs of the illness (flat affect, alogia, avolition).
77. In order to diagnose a Brief Psychotic Disorder, symptoms should not last a. more than one day b. more than one week c. more than one month d. more than six months: 77. C
To diagnose Brief Psychotic Disorder, one would expect at least one psychotic symptom, a very sudden onset, and a duration of several hours to one month - but not to exceed one month.
78. In terms of neurological factors, ADHD has been linked to abnormalities in the a. prefrontal cortex b. temporal cortex c. prestriate cortex d. striate cortex: 78. A
ADHD has been linked to abnormalities in the prefrontal cortex based on research that has shown diminished glucose metabolism and decreased blood flow in the prefrontal regions and pathways connecting these regions to the caudate nucleus.
79. A diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, Most Recent Episode Manic, requires that the patient: a. is currently or most recently in the course of a manic episode. b. is currently or most recently in the course of a manic or mixed episode and has a: 79. A
The diagnosis of Bipolar, Most Recent Episode Manic, is assigned to individuals who currently or recently have experienced a manic episode, with a history of at least one of either Depressive Episodes, Manic Episodes, or Mixed Episodes. In other words, a history of depressive episodes may be present but is not necessary for the diagnosis.
80. A 10-year-old boy has no friends, yells at and annoys his parents, blames others for things he has done, and loses his temper and swears frequently. The most likely diagnosis for this boy would be a. oppositional defiant disorder b. conduct: 80. A
The child in this question is hostile and negative, but there is no evidence that he engages in the serious antisocial behavior that occurs in conduct disorder.
81. According to Salvador Minuchin, which of the following is most likely to be present in a family in which a teenage daughter is suffering from anorexia nervosa? a. Adaptive responses to environmental input into the family system. b. Open exp: 81. C
Minuchin believes that psychosomatic families (i.e., those families where asthma, diabetes, or anorexia results in hospitalization of a child) are more likely to be characterized by enmeshed, or diffuse, highly permeable boundaries. Family members have less autonomy and would be more protective of each other.
82. Certain obsessive and compulsive behaviors have been successfully treated with a behavioral approach. The most success has come from treatment which entailed: a. systematic desensitization only. b. systematic desensitization with mild avers: 82. D
Research suggests the best behavioral treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder is deliberate exposure with response prevention - especially for the compulsive aspect of the disorder.
83. A research psychologist following the principle of informed consent informs subjects that due to the sensitive nature of the study, he wants them to participate only if they feel they can remain in the study to its completion. He asks that, by the en: 83. B
According to the Ethical Standards, researchers are required to permit subjects to withdraw from a study at anytime. Moreover, the research must inform the subjects of their right to withdraw at anytime at the outset of the study.
84. If you, as an independent psychologist, learn during the first interview that the client is currently receiving services from another professional, your most ethical response would be a. consult with the other professional before scheduling any: 84. D
When a client is already being served by another mental health professional, the psychologist must consider relevant issues and the potential client's welfare.
85. The Ethics Committee will review complaints from a. the general public only b. both APA members and non-members c. APA members only d. licensed professionals in the mental health profession: 85. B
The Ethics Committee is responsible for adjudicating ethical complaints against members. Its primary concern is protecting the public against harmful acts by psychologists. Complaints can be made by APA members and non-members.
86. According to the General Guidelines for Psychological Services, doctoral level psychologists wishing to qualify themselves for a change in specialty a. may be considered competent in the new area if they take an internship or acquire experience: 86. B
Though a second Ph.D. is not necessary, complete training (including relevant course work and practicum or internship experience) in the new speciality area is required.
87. The Ethics Committee can act "sua sponte" less than one year after it is discovered that any of the following has become final except: a. a misdemeanor conviction. b. a felony conviction. c. a finding of malpractice. d.: 87. A
The Ethics Committee will not act on anonymous complaints, but will act "sua sponte" (on its own) without a complaint, less than one year after it is discovered that any of the following has become final: a felony conviction, a finding of malpractice, expulsion or suspension from a state association for unethical conduct or delicensure by a state board.
88. The Preamble and General Principles are a. enforceable rules for conduct b. guidelines for the public c. applicable to both the psychologist's personal and professional life. d. aspirational goals.: 88. D
The Preamble and General Principles are aspirational goals to guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of psychology.
89. According to the Ethical Principles, bartering as a method of payment for psychological services is a. ethical if no exploitation is involved and it is not clinically contraindicated b. ethical if the therapist barters for goods of known va: 89. A
Choice A is a direct quote from the APA's Ethical Standards.
90. For 9 months now, your long term client has made no significant progress in therapy, even after you've revised the treatment goals several times. You should probably a. gently state your perception of the situation and encourage the client's res: 90. D
According to APA Ethical Standards, psychologists terminate professional relationships when it becomes reasonable clear that the patient or client no longer needs the service, is not benefitting, or is being harmed by continuing service.
91. The purpose of the state licensing board is to a. protect the public b. set minimum standards of practice. c. oversee the profession. d. educate the public.: 91. A
The primary purpose of state licensing boards is to protect the public.
92. The General Principle of Competence in APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct includes discussion of a. a psychologists recognizing the boundaries of his expertise b. promoting integrity c. consulting with collea: 92. A
The Principle of Competence includes recognizing the boundaries of one's expertise.
93. The private conduct of a psychologist a. is his/her private business b. is also subject to the Ethics Code c. is private, except when it reduces the public's trust d. is only of concern if the psychologist has a private practice.: 93. C
General Principle C states that a psychologist's personal conduct is a private matter EXCEPT as it may compromise his/her professional responsibilities or reduce the public's trust in psychologists.
94. A father brings his son to a psychologist to be evaluated as recommended by the boy's school. In the course of the evaluation, the psychologist discovers that the father is not the custodial parent. The psychologist should a. continue with the e: 94. B
The non-custodial parent has no rights (or limited ones) in dealing with psychologists. Therefore, it is most appropriate not to deal with the father at this time, and wait until you obtain permission from the custodial parent before proceeding with the evaluation.
95. A consulting psychologist prints testimonials from former clients in a brochure advertising her services to corporations. According to the latest revisions of the Ethical Principles, this is: a. ethical and legal b. unethical and illegal: 95. C
Ethical standards prohibit solicitation of testimonials from current clients or persons who are "vulnerable to undue influence" which likely applies to former clients. So use of testimonials would not be ethical unless they were unsolicited.
96. A marriage, family, and child counselor is about to receive a PhD in clinical psychology and meets his own state's requirements for taking the psychology licensing exam. His business card includes information about his hours, his phone number, and th: 96. A
Psychologist are not permitted to make public statements that are false, fraudulent, or misleading. Even if a statement is true, it can be misleading.
97. The phrase "holder of privilege" a. is a legal term signifying that the client (or legal guardian thereof) in a psychotherapeutic relationship has the right, though not absolute, to protect his privacy. b. means that both the ther: 97. A
The term "privilege" refers to a person's right to prevent confidential information from being revealed in a legal proceeding. An adult client is the holder of privilege; this means it is the client's prerogative to claim or waive the privilege.
98. A clinical psychologist announces his services by advertising his name, degree, fee, and APA membership in a boxed section of a local newspaper. According to recent changes in APAs Ethical Principles, this action is: a. permissible b. illeg: 98. A
There is nothing in this ad that appears to be false, fraudulent, misleading, deceptive, or unethical in any way.
99. As a clinical psychologist in private practice, you have been asked aby a single father to perform a standardized test battery and to forward the report to the local school psychologist. You do so, noting the child's unusual responses and suggesting: 99. A
APA guidelines require that assessment results be provided to the person assessed or legally authorized persons in language that is "reasonably understandable".
100. You are seeing a teenager in therapy. The guidance counselor from the teenager's school calls you requesting advice on how to deal with a recent incident at school in which your client was involved. Your best course of action is to: a. politely: 100. A
Permission from the client's parents would be required before you could speak to the school counselor.
101. Assume you are in private practice seeing a client whose fees to you are reimbursed by an insurance company. The insurance company contacts you for information about the client and the client has signed a release of confidentiality. Your most approp: 101. C
In communications with third parties, psychologists include only information that is "germane to the purpose for which the communication is made". You would limit the information released to that which is relevant to the purpose at hand.
102. You receive a subpoena to bring your records regarding a patient to the local courthouse, so that copies can be made for later use as evidence in the patient's pending trial for car theft. The patient has entered a plea of not guilty by reason of in: 102. B
Whenever a person raises his/her mental status or mental condition as an issue in a legal matter, privilege is waived and the client cannot deny the court access to psychotherapy records or the therapist's testimony.
103. You and your husband have recently divorced and you notice yourself "taking the wife's side" when you do couple's counseling. You should: a. seek supervision b. enroll in a treatment center c. see only the female part of the: 103. A
Psychologists have an obligation to be alert to signs of, and to obtain assistance for their personal problems at an early stage, in order to prevent significantly impaired performance."
104. You have a client who is a famous artist. Rather than pay for her sessions, she would like to give you one of her paintings. She knows the commercial selling value and thus you could determine the fee appropriately. You should: a. agree to this: 104. B
The fact that your client wants to "give" you a painting may hint at clinically relevant material to be explored. Until you can be sure that the exchange would not be clinically contraindicated, it is best to err on the side of caution.
105. In regard to psychotherapist-patient sex, which of the following statements is true? a. Although sex with a current patient is prohibited, sex with a former patient is ethical. b. Sex with a former patient is ethical, so long as at least t: 105. C
Even after the two year interval, psychologists cannot have sex with a former client except in very rare instances when the psychologist can demonstrate, in light of all relevant factors, that there has been no exploitation.
106. In most states, the legal criteria used in determining whether or not a person can be involuntarily hospitalized focuses on: a. whether or not the person has a mental disorder b. the person's ability to regulate his or her own life c.: 106. D
According to federal court rulings, a state cannot involuntarily confine an individual merely because he or she is suffering from a mental illness. Instead the mental illness must pose a danger to self or others.
107. Job analysis refers to the process of a. determining the specific skills and behaviors that are required for doing a given job effectively b. determining the job aptitudes of incumbents that distinguish successful from unsuccessful people<: 107. A
A job analysis describes, in specific terms, the precise nature of the component tasks performed by workers on a particular job. As part of the process, the analysis will identify the skills, knowledge, and experience needed to perform the job satisfactorily.
108. According to Herzberg's two-factor theory of job satisfaction, a. hygiene factors are more related to worker dissatisfaction than to worker satisfaction b. motivators and hygiene factors vary from occupation to occupation, with blue collar: 108. A
Herzberg's two-factor theory divides factors influencing job satisfaction and dissatisfaction into two types: hygiene and motivators. Hygiene factors (i.e., lower level needs including pay, safety, and benefits) produce dissatisfaction when they are not present, but have no effect on satisfaction when they are present. Motivators (i.e., meaningful work) produce satisfaction when present, but have no effect on dissatisfaction when absent.
109. In the selection of employees, a company uses a particular test that has moderate predictive validity. The company hires applicants scoring above the mean on the test, but this cutoff score has resulted in an unacceptably high percentage of "fa: 109. A
Raising the predictor cutoff score is a useful way of reducing the proportion of false positives. The people who succeed on the more stringent measure are more likely to succeed on the job.
110. Research carried out by McClelland and Atkinson suggests that people who are high in need for achievement (nAch) prefer tasks of a. moderate difficulty with performance feedback b. high difficulty without performance feedback c. low: 110. A
People with a high need for achievement prefer tasks of moderate difficulty (tasks that are too difficult may frustrate them, tasks to easy may not provide a sense of accomplishment).
111. A mechanical reasoning test has been shown to have very high (.8) validity for male and lower (.4) validity for female applicants for a position as a drill press operator. If the company hs to ensure that the same proportion of individuals from each: 111. A
If a predictor has only a moderate correlation with job performance, it will not be accurate at predicting one's status on the criterion (i.e., job performance). In such a case, choosing only those who score extremely high on the predictor will increase the chance that scores on the criterion (i.e., job performance) will be adequate.
112. An industrial corporation has developed five new rules in an effort to increase worker safety. Probably the most effective method for transmission of the rules would be to a. include the rules with the workers paychecks b. prepare the work: 112. C
Safety experts generally agree that training is the single most effective technique for bringing about safe work behaviors. A discussion of the rules at a regularly scheduled meeting is the best way to ensure that all the workers will be aware of and understand those rules.
113. As a junior college counselor, your first choice of a vocational interest test to administer to a very bright 20-year old woman would be a. Strong Interest Inventory b. General Aptitude Test Battery c. Kuder Occupational Interest Surv: 113. A
The Strong Interest Inventory is the appropriate interest inventory to administer to individuals interested in business and professional occupations.
114. Tests of psychomotor abilities for job selection procedures a. have not been reliably constructed b. can be easily substituted for each other because of a common factor c. are useful as predictors in a wide range of jobs and environme: 114. D
When using a psychomotor test to predict job performance, one must ensure that the abilities assessed by the test are the exact abilities required to perform the job.
115. For personnel hiring programs, a test with low validity (e.g., 30) is considered adequate as long as a. selection ratios are high b. selection ratios are low c. reliability figures are high d. drop-out ratios are low: 115. B
Utility of a job selection test refers to the benefit an organization accrues from using the test as compared to not using the test. A low selection ratio (i.e., ratio of job openings to job applicants) is one factor that increases the utility of a job selection measure. A low selection ratio then can compensate for a low validity coefficient and the test may still be considered adequate.
116. For effective administration of a six scientist laboratory that is oriented toward new product development, which of the following types of communication networks (structures) should the administrator prefer? a. centralized b. decentralize: 116. B
Decentralized communication networks, or those in which communication does not flow through only one person, are more effective than centralized networks for accomplishing complex tasks in an organization.
117. The quality and quantity of work produced by a group tends to be lowest with which of the following styles of leadership? a. democratic b. autocratic c. employee-centered d. laissez-faire: 117. D
Under laissez-faire leadership, subordinates make their own decisions with little or now guidance from the leader. Under this type of leadership, satisfaction and productivity are lower than under autocratic or democratic leadership.
118. Interest inventories are least useful in predicting a. job performance b. job choice c. job satisfaction d. job persistence: 118. A
Interest inventories have moderate validity for predicting variables related to job satisfaction and job choice. They have little to no validity in predicting job performance or job success.
119. Research on applicability of Maslow's hierarchy theory to the workplace suggests that a. the theory seems to apply very well to industrial settings b. the theory seems to apply well only for lower level workers. c. the theory seems to: 119. D
Overall, research suggests that Maslow's hierarchy of needs does not apply all that well to the workplace. For instance, research has refuted Maslow's notion that needs lose motivating value after they have been fulfilled.
120. Which of the following is not true of the force-choice (FC) method of employee evaluation? a. FC inventories are very costly to develop b. FC inventories may increase dissatisfaction among raters because the prevent raters from deciding fo: 120. C
Contrary to choice C, FC is a relatively valid method of evaluation since it prevents raters from injecting their own biases into the process. The other choices are true.
121. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales include ______ as items. a. critical incidents b. negative job behaviors, but not positive ones c. positive job behaviors, but not negative ones d. Likert scale type questions: 121. A
On BARS, each item is a series of critical incidents with each incident tied to a a numerical point on a scale.
122. One advantage of biodata as a selection tool is that it is particularily useful for: a. predicting job satisfaction b. predicting job interest c. predicting job turnover d. predicting job nepotism: 122. C
Biodata is particularly useful in predicting job turnover.
123. Which of the following would be an example of vestibule training? a. interest inventory testing b. giving someone a training manual c. in-basket, out-basket d. having new employees attend a series of informative lectures: 123. C
Vestibule training involves training in a physical replication of simulation of the actual work environment and conditions.
124. Fiedler's Contingency Theorpy or LPC proposes a. that a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation. b. subordinate's motivation is maximized when they perceive that: 124. A
Fiedler believed a leader's effectiveness could be determined by his style and the situation in which he found himself.
125. Which of the following is not one of Holland's personality types? a. Artistic b. Investigative c. Scientific d. Realistic: 125. C
Holland's 6 personality types include:realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (RIASEC).
126. Super's theory of career development is based on the assumption that a. career development can be described in terms of a predictable sequence of stages. b. personality variables and occupational environments are of interest c. vocati: 126. A
Super discussed a series of stages in career development.
127. Adverse impact, a selection procedure that produces a substantially different rate of selection for different groups that are defined on the basis of gender, race, age, etc., can be determined mathematically using the a. 30% rule b. 60% r: 127. C
Adverse impact is determined mathematically using the 30% rule. Adverse impact occurs when the selection rate for a minority group is less than 80% of the selection rate of the majority group.
128. Chin and Benne divide planned change in organizations into three types: a. autocratic, consultative, group decision b. instrumental, supportive, participative c. empirical-rational, normative-reeducative, power-coercive d. decisi: 128. C
Chin and Benn's three types of organizational change are: empirical-rational (people are rational if given pertinent information they will act in their self interest), normative-reeducative (social norms underlie patterns of behavior), and power-coercive (strategies involving the use of rewards)
129. You are hired by a large corporation with many branch offices and are asked to develop a program to help employees in all branches quit smoking. As a psychologist familiar with the literature in this area, you are most likely to a. institute a: 129.A
Choice A includes many empirically supported components: competition (increased motivation), clinical intervention, and extended contact. Contest with specific incentives have generally been found to be more effective than other methods designed to induce employees to reach specific goals.
130. To identify "critical incidents" you would a. have employees identify what they like most about their work b. have supervisors identify work-related behaviors that are associated with outstanding and inferior performance c.: 130. B
Ask supervisors to observe employees and identify specific behaviors associated with particularly effective and ineffective job performance.
131. Which of the following schedules of reinforcement produces a fairly even rate of performance during acquisition and would also be fairly resistant to extinction? a. rewarding every 5th response b. rewarding a response every 5-minutes: 131. C
A variable ratio schedule produces behavior that is more resistant to extinction.
132. One of the distinguishing marks of latent learning is that a. it never affects the organism's overt behavior patterns b. it occurs only in man, being dependent on language c. behavioral consequences appear only at a later time d.: 132. C
Edward Tolman, rats allowed to roam maze, but they did not display the ability to solve the maze until food was placed at the end of the path. Learning was latent in that it did not immediately manifest in behavior until there was incentive to do so.
133. If a well designed and properly executed experiment found that 30-min of exercise made it more difficult to memorize an 8-line poem afterwards, then it could be said that the effects of exercise on memorization demonstrates a. retroactive inhib: 133. C
Proactive inhibition occurs when memory for stimuli (the 8 line poem) is interferred with by a previous task or activity.
134. Regarding the process of modeling and observational learning, which statement is true? a. introducing a positive incentive has little or no effect upon the probability that an observed behavior will be performed b. Models who are consumers: 134. D
According to social learning theory, it is possible to learn a behavior simply by watching a model perform it.
135. The distinction between punishment and negative reinforcement is: a. with punishment, a stimulus presented following a response decreases the response's frequency, while negative reinforcement involves removing a stimuls to decrease the respons: 135. B
Neg Reinf = removing a stimulus (usually aversive) following a behavior in order to increase future freq of the behavior
Punishment = adding a stimulus (usually aversive) following a response to decrease the future freq of the behavior
136. Satiation, as practiced by behavior therapists, is most similar to which of the following techniques practiced by family therapists? a. prescribing the symptom b. reframing c. doubling d. family sculpture: 136. A
Satiation involves having someone engage in the problem behavior until that behavior loses its reinforcing properties.
Prescribing the symptom asks family members to engage in the problem behavior in order to weaken their resistance to treatment.
137. Scalloped responding occurs with which type of reinforcement schedule? a. variable ratio b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. fixed interval: 137. D
The scallop on fixed interval schedules refers to the low rate of responding seen right after delivery of the reinforcement and the escalation of responding near the time of the next reinforcement delivery.
138. A dog is repeatedly exposed to a light paired with food. Then, the dog is exposed to repeated pairings of that light with a tone. Eventually, presentation of the tone alone elicits salivation in the dog. This illustrates the process of: a. stim: 138. D
In higher order conditioning, a stimulus that had previously been a CS is paired with another neutral stimulus (NS) until that NS also comes to elicit the conditioned response.
139. Which of the following techniques involves the lost opportunity for reinforcement? a. response cost b. time-out c. overcorrection d. punishment: 139. B
The purspose of time-out is to deny the person access to an environment that offers the opportunity for reinforcement.
140. The technique of sensate focus is based on the behavioral principle of: a. counterconditioning b. flooding c. extinction d. mutual pleasure-giving: 140. A
Counterconditioning involves pairing a response targetted for elimination with an incompatible, adaptive response, so that the former is eliminated.
141. A group of sales people is told that they will be paid on an irregular basis. In reality, they are paid after every 5th sale. This illustrates which type of reinforcement schedule? a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval: 141. B
Fixed ratio schedules reinforcement an organism after a set number of responses.
142. The paradigm of insight learning is associated with which of the following theorists? a. Wolpe b. Meichenbaum c. Tolman d. Kohler: 142. D
Kohler's experiment: good outside a chimps cage, two short sticks inside cage, chimp has "aha" idea of fitting the two sticks together to reach food.
143. Which of the following statements is true of implosive therapy, but not true of flooding? a. it involves exposing the patient to a feared stimulus b. it is at least partially based on the principles of classical extinction. c. It is b: 143. D
Implosive therapy, but not flooding, involves exposure to the aspects of the feared stimulus that are believed to be related to unconscious conflicts.
144. Theoretically, in order for counterconditioning treatment to be successful, which statement is true? a. The anxiety-provoking stimulus should be sufficiently strong to overcome the subject's reaction to the anxiety-neutralizing stimulus. b: 144. C
Counterconditioning involves pairing a maladaptive response (usually anxiety) with an adaptive response (usually relaxation) that is incompatible with the maladaptive response. Important to expose the person gradually to the anxiety-evoking stimuli so that the anxiety will not overwhelm the emerging relaxation response.
145. Primary memory is equivalent to: a. secondary memory b. long-term memory c. short-term memory d. autobiographical memory: 145. C
Primary memory is most often referred to as short-term memory (remembered less than a few minutes).
146. An event that increases a behavior in either a positive or negative fashion is a(n): a. reinforcer b. punisher c. enforcer d. operant: 146. A
Reinforcers increase the probability of a behavior occurring again in the future.
147. An example of the Premack Principle is: a. "Go to your room. That is an order." b. "Let me explain the rules." c. Physically guiding a child to pick up toys. d. "First, pick up your room, then you can go: 147. D
Premack = using a high probability behavior to reinforce a low probability behavior.
148. "Thinking about thinking" is the definition of: a. a cognitive map b. feature integration c. selective attention d. metacognition: 148. D
Metacognition, thinking about thinking, refers to an individual's awareness about her own cognitive state and process.
149. Four groups of subjects study the same list of nonsense syllables. Afterwards, group 1 study a list of similar syllables. Group 2 studies a list of dissimilar syllables. Group 3 reads a novel. Group 4 goes to sleep. On a subsequent test of recall, s: 149. D
Interference theory would suggest that individuals who sleep would forget fewer syllables than those who remain awake since there would be less retroactive interference or subsequent learning to interfere with the learning of the syllables.
150. Declarative memory is to procedural memory as: a. fact is to skill b. short-term is to long-term memory c. implicit is to explicit memory d. echoic is to iconic: 150. A
Choice A correctly associates declaritive memory to facts and procedural memory to skills. In choice C, the terms are reversed.
151. After a tachistoscopic presentation of a number sequence, the person reports she is still able to "see" the image. This is an example of: a. retroactive memory b. retroactive inhibition c. iconic memory d. short-term vi: 151. C
Iconic memory consists of an image in the visual receptors for a very short period of time.
152. Inability to convert short-term into long-term memory is associated with damage to the: a. RAS b. hippocampus c. septum d. raphe nucleus: 152. B
The hippocampus is believed to be responsible for transferring information from short-term to long-term memory.
153. Following a stroke, a patient appears to understand spoken speech, but has great difficulty speaking or writing. He is especially troubled by prepositions and finds it difficult to order his words. He has probably sustained a lesion in the: a.: 153. B
Broca's area, located in the frontal cortex of the left hemisphere, is the area of the brain responsible for expressive speech.
154. Which of the following brain structures serves as a relay station for sensory information from all sensory modalities except olfaction? a. hypothalamus b. corpus callosum c. thalamus d. hippocampus: 154. C
Sensory information (except smell) is sent to the thalamus and then projected to the cerebral cortex. Olfactory information is sent directly to the cortex.
155. In the depressed patient, which of the central nervous system neurotransmitters listed below is most likely to be at a below average level? a. GABA b. acetylcholine c. endorphin d. serotonin: 155. D
Low levels of serotonin (as well as norepinephrine) have been associated with depression. Newer antidepressants (e.g., Zoloft, Prozac) exert their effects on brain serotonin levels.
156. Which of the following is true of the laws governing a nerve cell or neuron? a. The intensity of the neuron's activity varies directly with the electrical activity inside the neuron. b. When a certain level of electrical activity is reache: 156. B
Neuron's function on a "all or nothing" law. When electrical activity reaches a certain threshold (action potential) the neuron fires at maximum strength. Increasing the electrical charge above the AP does not increase the magnitude of the neuron's signal.
157. Which of the following is concerned chiefly with the preparation of smooth muscles and glands for emergency situations? a. autonomic nervous system b. central nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. parasympathetic nervou: 157. C
The autonomic nervous system consists of two branches: sympathetic and parasympathetic. Sympathetic mobilizes the body's resources for "fight or flight". Parasympathetic deactivates the organ systems activated in the fight of flight response.
158. The neurotransmitter most associated with voluntary muscle movements is: a. norepinephrine b. serotonin c. acetylcholine d. dopamine: 158. C
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter involved in neural signals to voluntary muscles.
159. The ARAS (Ascending Reticular Activating System) produces its effects on motivation by: a. channeling sensory input to the proper region of the cortex b. providing diffuse facilitation to the entire cortex c. inhibiting irrelevant inp: 159. B
The ARAS is involved in behavioral arousal. It screens input to the brain and provides diffuse stimulation to the entire cortex when important information must be processed.
160. If elderly patients are given chlorpromazine for an extended period of time, the most likely side effect would be: a. tardive dyskinesia b. Parkinson's Disease c. Huntington's Chorea d. difficulties sleeping: 160. A
Tardive dyskinesia (involuntary rhythmic movements) is a side effect of neuroleptics (antipsychotic medications). Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a neuroleptic.

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