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How do you change drill bits?: As a standard safety precaution, always disconnect the drill from the power source when installing or changing drill bits. Insert the shank of the twist drill into the chuck jaws, and secure it firmly by inserting the drill chuck key into the holes of the chuck body and tightening the chuck jaws. With the power disconnected, you reduce your chance of being injured.
What do you do prior to drilling in metal or other hard surfaces?: Use a center punch to mark the exact center of the hole to be drilled.
What are some of the operations a grinder may help you do?: Sharpen chisels or screwdrivers, grind drills, remove excess metal from work, your smooth metal surfaces
What safety precaution is mandatory when using a bench grander or wire wheel?: Always use eye or face protections
State the purpose of the spring guard on a circular saw.: This guard is usually designed to snap back automatically when the cut is finished to protect both the blade and the saw operator
How fast should the blade be spinning when it contacts the material being cut?: At full speed
List three precautions when dealing with pneumatic tools: Any three of the following: Inspect the air hose for cracks or other defects. Before connecting the air hose to the air outlet fitting, open the control valve momentarily Connect the hose to the fitting and open the valve again momentarily-this ensures that the hose is clear of water and other foreign material Stop the flow of air to a pneumatic tool by closing the control valve at the compressed air outlet before connecting, disconnecting, adjusting, replacing, or repairing a pneumatic tool
How do you determine when to lubricate a pneumatic tool?: Refer to the specifice tool TO or instruction book
What psi is used to safe effcient operation of a pneumatic tool?: 90psi
What does the torque regulator do?: Reduces the possibility of shearing or damaging thread when installing nuts and bolts to the required tension.
What ensures the socket or attachment will not fly off?: Spring-loaded ball bearing or socket lock
What is the prerequisite of a safe operation when using lifting devices?: Familiarity
What publication covers general guidance and safe lifting procedures for lifting devices?: AFOSH Standard 91-46, Materials Handling and Storage Equipement, or the specific manual for the lifting devices
Explain the function of the AN/PSM-37: Troubleshoot electrical and electronic circuits
What are the maximum indications that an AN/PSM-37 can read for voltage?: 1,000 volts (5,000 volts with the test prod)
What are the maximum indications that an AN/PSM-37 can read for current?: 1 ampere (10 amperes with the shunt)
What are the maximum indications that an AN/PSM-37 can read for resistance?: 100 megohms
Which tester is currently used to test circuits on the AIM-9, AIM-7, and AIM-120 missile systems?: AMTEC 620
What position must the power switch be in during recharging?: The charger must be in the OFF position prior to recharging.
Which controls are included in the operating controls of the 101-5BFG?: Operating controls include a center-scale galvanomtere, a rotary three-position OHMS ADD switch (calibration from 0 to 20 ohms in 10-ohm increments,) an operating KEY, and an OHMS knob controlling a variable resistor, the setting of which is show on a digital OHMS indicator
List some uses of the lift truck: Load/unload munitions and suspend equipment onto or into fighter and bomber aircraft
State the maximum load capacity of the MHU-141/M trailer: 5,500 lbs
Which technical order contains information on the MHU-141/M munitions trailer?: TO 35D3-2-27-1
What is the turning radius of the MHU-11/M trailer?: 200 inches, 40 degrees
Explain the purpose of the breakaway cable on the MHU-110/M trailer: 15,000 lbs
Which technical order contains information on the MHU-110/M trailer?: 35D3-2-26-1
What allows you to stow the tow bar of an MHU-110/M trailer in a vertical position?: a spring loaded latch device
State the maximum capacity of a PAIR of rail extenders: 3,000 lbs per pair
State the maximum load capacity of the MHU-226 trailer: 12,000 lbs
How many openings are on the deck of teh MHU-226 trailer?: Three
How many storage boxes are on the MHU-226 trailer?: Five- 2 in front, 3 in rear
Name the three types of trailers you may encounter: Vans, flatbed, and rollerized 25-and 40-foot trailers
What is the actual length of a 40-foot trailer?: 51 feet when you include the gooseneck
The rollerized trailer is designed for what specific purpose?: To handled cargo loaded on HCU-6/E aluminum aircraft cargo pallets
Which technical order provides guidance on the loading of conventional and/or nuclear weapons on HCU-6/E aircraft pallets?: TO 11N-45-51B
The adjustable ramp of a rollerized trailer serves what purpose?: It ensures the smooth movement ofpallets from the trailer to the aircraft
Who has the responsibility to detect deficiencies on trailers?: Vehicle operator
Which wheels on the lift truck are steerable?: the two rear wheels
What is the lifting capacity of the MJ-1 lift truck with the bomb rollers attached?: 3,000 lbs
What is the top speed on the MJ-1 lift truck?: 18 mph
Explain the major difference between the hydrostatic drive system and the automatic: The automatic transmission can roll in gear, whereas the hydrostatic drive system won't move unless the operator actuates the neccessary controls
Name the two ways you may lift the booms on the MHU-83 lift truck: Hydrostatic fluid pressure actuated by the engine or hand pump
What adjustments can you make on the cradle or boom of the MHU-83?: tilt, lateral, longitudinal
What is the maximum capacity of an MHU-83 lift truck using the fork adapter assembly?: 6,000 lbs
How do you protect the starter of the bomb-lift truck during cold-weather starting?: Do not depress the starter switch for more than 20 seconds; if the engine doesn't start, allow the starter to cool for 80 seconds
When loading or unloading with a bomb-lift truck, the directional control lever should be in what position? Why?: Neutral with the parking brake set to ensure against inadvertent lift truck movement
List three uses of the MC-7 air compressor: To power pneumatic tools To provide compressed air used in cleaning + drying equipment components to provide compressed air to run vacu-blast operations
Why should the diesel-powered MC-7 only be operated with the cover doors closed?: Operation with the doors open can cause damage to the hearing of operating personnel
Compressed air has caused injuries at what minimum amount of air pressure?: 10-15 psi
What publication governs the use of protective equipment for an air compressor opperator?: AFOSH standard 91-50
How is accidental interconnection of high- and low-pressure air systems or equipment prevented?: non-interchangeable chucks and connections
How does the bobtail get its name?: Backend is half the normal size
Explain the unique feature of the pintle hook: it can be unpinned and moved in, out, or sideways to make coupling up to a trailer easier
What is the turning radius of the bobtail?: 22 feet
What does paying attentiont to local weather conditions provide?: Maximizes the use of time and minimizes downtime
Explain the term 'operator maintenance': The systematic care of a vehicle to incude daily cleaning servicing and inspecting for discrepancies
What alerts you that the air pressure in the brake system is too low?: Warning buzzer, light, or both
For what type of driving are the high-range gears of the transmission used?: normal
Why would you never race a cold engine?: The oil needs a chance to circulate through the entire motor
Who is responsible for the secure tie down of a load on a cargo truck?: The operator of the vehicle
What is th first step in mating a tractor and trailer?: Be sure to place chocks between trailer wheels
What is the major concern while driving a tractor and trailer?: Be aware of the length of your trailer and make wide turns
List some concerns while backing a tractor and trailer: Ensure only one person is spotting. The trailer will turn the opposite direction from which you turn the wheel
What is the primary purpose of the 'Johnson bar'?: To slow the trailer to prevent jackknifing
Where are nontactical forklifts most effective?: On the pavement
What are the two types of tactical forklifts?: Rough-terrain and adverse-terrain
Explain the shutdown procedures of a rough-terrain forklift: Release the load, at the same time release the einge speed allow the engine to run at half speed or slower with no load for 4-5 mins before closing the throttle and stopping the engine. When the engine stops put the ignition in the OFF position
What are the forklift tine height requirements while traveling with a load?: tilted back and far enough from ground to clear the road
Why should you drive backwards with bulky loads?: Better vision
How far from combustible material must a forklift be parked?: 10 feet
What is the most common type of container for general purpose, dry cargo?: ISO container
What is the weight capacity of the superstacker forklift?: 50,000 lbs
What must you do before using the sideloader to lift or drop off an ISO container?: Make sure the trailers stabilizing legs are deployed
Name the two special-purpose forklifts: variable reach forklift and the swingmast forklift
Name the four types of tracking energy used in modern missiles: Electro-optical, light energy, radar, GAINS
Which guidance system is nothing more than very high frequency radio waves?: Radar
Nam ethe three sources that produce the tracking energy used int he guidance systems of precision-guided munitions.: Active, semi-active, passive
What guidance system allows for a "fire and foreget" capability of that particular weapon?: Active
In what guidance system does the target produce the tracking energy?: Passive
Which type of guidance system homes in on energy reflected off the target by another outsie source?: Semi-active
What is the control system designed to do: Do the actual steering of the PGM
What section of a guided bomb do we refer to as the AFG?: Control section
Name the two types of control surfaces on a guided munition and their purpose.: Fixed (stabilize) and Movable (steer)
Name the three different mechanical forces that PGMs utilize to move control surfaces.: Hydraulic, pneumatic, servo-actuators.
What is the science or art of directing PGMs from one place to another?: Navigation
Impact and proximity describe the functioning of what part of an air-to-air missile?: fuzes
What must take place for an air-to-ground missile to arm?: Sudden accelleration associated with R/M ignition
The fragmenting missile case is one way missiles score a kill. What is the other?: Continuous rod construction
What is the prpose of the S&A device?: Keep it safe during handling/transport
What are the minimum component requirements of a propulsion system?: Rocket motor and R/M igniter
Air Force PGM R/Ms are constructed with what type of propellant?: Single-stage, solid
What are the three types of R/M used in Air Force PGMs?: medium, dual thrust, and high thrust
What alows the AGM-130 to incorporate the best features of a guided missile and guided bomb?: The separation system
Name the three major component groups of a LGB: CCG, GP bomb, AFG
What is the difference between the GBU-10 and the GBU-12?: The warhead and AFG
Which CCG is used by the GBU-10 and -12?: Either the MAU-169 series or the MAU-209 series CCG
What does the CCG do?: The CCG detects laser energy relfected from the target, processes the signals, and guides the weapon to the target
What warhead is used by the GBU-12?: MK82
Which warheads are used by the GBU-10?: MK84 and BLU109
Describe the functions of the WGU-12/WGU-39 series GCU: It provides autopilot control, target detection and weapon guidance
What fuzes are used in the GBU-24 series bombs?: FMU-81/B, FMU-139A/B, FMU-143/B, B/B, or J/B FMU-152A/B
What does the BSU-84 AFG provide for the LLLGB?: Aerodynamic lift and stability during flight
State the purpose of the ADU-548/B and the ADG-769 adapter group.: provides more distance between the bomb and bombrack
Which tester is used for field testing all laser guided CCGs and LGB GCUs?: Digital test set TTU-373
What does the TTU-373 tester do?: It performs the functional check of the CCG or the GCU
How many modes of operation does the TTU-373 have and what do they do?: 13: 6 test + troubleshoot the CCG or GCU 2 T/T the DTS 1 isolates GCU/DTS problems 2 input and display CCG or GCU parameters 1 program a PRP code plug 1 mode to determine GCU mission configuration
What are the major components of a GBU-15?: A bomb body, A TDD or guidance section, a Control section an AFG, Guidance adapter
Which warheads does the GBU-15 use?: MK84, BLU109, BLU118
Which fuze is authorized for use with the GBU-15?: FMU-124A/B FMU-143/B
Name the three AFGs utilized by the GBU-15: MXU-724 /B MXU-724 A/B MXU-787 /B
What are the warheads for the AGM-130?: MK84 2000 lb GP bomb BlU-109 2000 lb penetrator bomb
For what purpose is the AGM-130 designed?: It is designed for indirected attack standoff missions using the remove control capability provided by the data link system
Name the two types of guidance systems used by the AGM-130: TV, IR
Name the five major sections of the AGM-130.: TDD (AGM-130A-a) and AGM-130C-1 only) or guidance sections, adapter group, warhead, control section, propulsion section
What types of tests can the AN/GJM-64 perform?: A functional test and the go/nogo test on the GBU-15/AGM-130
What tests does the AN/GJM-64 perform during a functional test of a GBU-15?: A complete electrical/functional checkout of the weapon. Also supplies pneumatic pressure through the control unit excercise port to activate/test the actuator system
How many portable units does the AN-GJM-65 test set consist of?: Six
In what type of condition was the JDAM designed to fly?: In adverse weather conditions and from very high to very low altitudes
What type of guidance system does the JDAM use?: GAINS
Where can you find the three moveable control surfaces on the JDAM?: On the tail assembly
What role do the aerosurfaces ('strakes') perform for the JDAM?: The aerosurfaces provide lift, maneuverability, and other flight characteristics
What warheads can be used on the JDAM?: MK-82, MK-83, MK-84, BLU-109
What does the GPS for the CBU-39/B provide?: Accurate conventional strike capability from very low to very high altitudes
From where is all targeting data automatically downloaded?: From the cockpit by the aircrew
What type of warhead does the GBU-39 use?: Advanced penetrator
For what are the CNU-659/E and CNU-660/E containers designed?: All transportation envirronments including rail, truck, and military air and ship.
How many different JSOW variants are there and what are there differences?: Two, the AGM-154A and AGM-154B (A for personel, B for hardened targets)
Against what type of target is the BLU-108 submunition designed to be used?: Hardened-armor targets
Where is the GPS antenna located on the AGM-154?: on the nose cone
What happens once the JSOW reaches its predetermined target height?: The weapon hull cover is blown off allowin the munitions payload to disperse
How many AGM-154s is the CNU-575/E container capable of storing?: One
Which munitions is the AN/GYQ-79 capable of testing?: AGM 154 JSOW AGM 158 JASSM GBU-31 GBU-32 AIM 9x Sidewinder JDAM
Which test set component do we use to initiate BIT and get systems and munitions status, to reprogram munitions OFPs and to load mission planning and GPS crypto keys?: the TAU
What are the standard contents in the accessory kit (BOX 3): power extension cable assembly w4 Power adapter cable assembly w5 An AC/DC converter Dummy connector plug Computer Hood A diskdrive unit and interface cable assembly 3.5 inch calibration diskette
What explosive do we use as the comparison by which we measure explosive power: tnt
what initiation source do we primarily use to detonate high explosives: blasting caps
name the two types of blasting caps: electric and non electric
what is the purpose of the yellow painted bands on military safety/time fuses: its used to estimate the length of burn during tactical situation where a test burn is not feasible
what is the rate of detonation for detonating cord: 20,000-21,000 ft per second
what is the purpose of the M60 igniter: used to light a safety/time fuse
for what do we use a flash vented squib: used to ignite pyrotechnic or incendiary compositions or black powder
what is the purpose of the initiator well on the tnt demo-block: receiving the initiating explosive/charge
what is the advantage of military dynamite over commercial dynamite: safer to store, transport and handle
what is the purpose of the M14A priming adapter: it is used to secure electric or non electric blasting caps in a threaded activator well of a demolition charge
what is the M1 clip used to hold together: two strands of detonating cord
what type of mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying: the medium mortar (81mm)
what is the special feature that makes the M14 almost non detectable by magnetic mine detectors: practically all plastic construction
with what do you treat the floors of magazines used to store chemical grenades: sodium silicate
why must M34 grenades be stored fuse end up: to avoid possible leakage of the filler
which grenades are used with the M2A1 grenade projection adapter: chemical munitions
what are the uses of the M25 series grenades: riot and disturbance control
why is the base of the M34 grenade tapered: so the grenade can be mounted on a M1A2 projection adapter
what is the filler agent for the M34 grenade: 15 ounces of white phosphorous
what does the M26 series fragmentation grenade use for a metal body in place of the old cast-iron grenade body: a thin metal body lined with a wire-round coil
to what part of the cartridge case is the bullet crimped: cannelure
what is the purpose of the meplat: reduce the possibility of ricochet
what causes a bullet to spin: the riffling in the gun barrel biting into the jacket of the bullet
where are the primer pocket and extracting groove located: in the head of the cartridge
for what do we use wadcutter ammunition: medium range practice and competitive shooting
which cartridge is the exception to shotgun gauging: the .410 shotgun cartridge
when may you remove shunts clips and other shorting devices from a PAD: for continuity testing or for installation of the device
what is a major hazard of PADs: electromagnetic radiation(EMR), static electricity, or RF energy
what precaution must to take before handling impulse cartridges: ground yourself
when does a service life of an impulse cartridge start: when the hermetically sealed container is opened
what do thrusters do: position ejection seats, stow control columns, and open the canopy or escape hatch locks
what are catapults designed to do: eject the pilots seat and the pilot from the aircraft under emergency
what do removers do: jettison the canopy forcibly from the aircraft
what is the most noticeable difference between the SUU25E and the SUU25F: the SUU25E has a 5ohm toggle switch located in the center manifold of the forward bulkhead
what is the M8A1 parachute flare primarily used for: emergency night landings
how many pounds of pull pressure on the parachute shroud lines are required to fire the LUU4 flare: 52lbs
what are the main components of the LUU4 parachute flare: the igniter pyrotechnic candle, parachute and cable, and cover
what is the candle power range for aircraft parachute flares: 60,000 to 2 million
what firing devices are used with the RR-170/180 series chaff cartridges: BBU-35B squib
which flare utilizes the BBU-36/B squib for ignition: MJU-7, and MJU-10
what flare magazine holds 6 MJU-10 flare cartridges on the F15 aircraft: MJU-17 flare magazine
what flare magazine can hold a maximum of 15 MJU-7 flares: MJU-12 chaff flare magazine
which countermeasure ejector is used to dispense MJU-23 flares from the B1 bomber: AN/ALE-49 flare dispenser
how is the 105mm projectile marked: stenciled with the caliber type of weapon type of explosive filler and model of projectile
how many pounds of WP are used in a WP projectile: 4lbs of WP
what is the WP round used for: screening and spotting
what makes up a complete 105mm HE round: M1 projectile, M14 brass cartridge case containing M67 propelling charge, 6 increments of duel granulation propellant M1, and the M-28B2 percussion primer
against what targets is the 105mm HE round used: personal and material targets
what are the classifications of 105mm that the Air Force currently uses: HE and white phosphorous
name at least three types of 40mm cartridge ammo: HE M406 the practice M407A1 and the parachute white star M583
what is the difference between the two configurations of 40mm ammo: the 40mm AAA round is fired from the M2A1 gun system aboard the AC130 gunship
how far from the muzzle of the barrel is the M505A3 fuse armed: 30-65ft
how does the M505A3 fuse arm: centrifugal force
what is the 20mm cartridge case made of: brass
how much does the BDU-48 weigh: 10lbs
against what type of targets do we use the AGM-65: armored vehicles air defenses ships transportation equipment and fuel storage facilities
what launcher do we use to launch the AGM-65G: LAU-117 single missile launcher
what type of warhead does the AGM have: a 125 penetrator (cone shaped) or three hundred lb delayed fuse penetrator heavy warhead
which test set do we use to test all configurations of the AGM-88: AN/GSM-396 GM-LTS
what type of seeker does the AGM-114 use: semi-active laser or active MMW radar
name the 6 unique components of the AIM-9X: guidance unit, AOTD, ESAD, armament section, propulsion section
when does ESAD arming occur: only after the ESAD receives an irreversible commit to launch signal, experiences the appropriate launch environment, and reaches a minimum separation distance
what is the FAU: a thrust vector control system consisting of four movable aerodynamic tail fins each moving independently through electro servo actuators
explain what a blinking DMA-8 status lamp on the AIM-120 MBTS indicates: a commit to launch

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Number of cards 198

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