***usmle 2609-2809 micro 3
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- Babesia: How is it transmitted?
- Ixodes tick
- Babesia: How is it diagnosed?
- Blood smear, no RBC pigment, apears as "maltese cross"
- Babesia: How it is treated?
- Quinine, clindamycin
- Naegleria: What disease(s) does it cause?
- Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis
- Naegleria: How is it transmitted?
- Swimming in fresh water lakes
- Naegleria: How is it diagnosed?
- Amebas in spinal fluid
- Naegleria: How it is treated?
- Naegleria: AUTHOR
- Nomi Levy
- Medically important helminths: Which Cestode (tapeworm) can cause brain cysts and seizures?
- Taenia solium
- Medically important helminths: Echinococcus granulosus (a cestode) can cause cysts in the ____when ingested in dog feces; and _____ if antigens are released from cysts
- liver, anaphylaxis
- Medically important helminths: What is the standard treatment for trematodes (flukes)?
- Praziquantel
- Medically important helminths: Which fluke penetrates human skin, forming granulomas, fibrosis, and inflammation of the spleen & liver?
- Schistosoma
- Medically important helminths: Larvae of the nematode (roundworm) ___ are known to penetrate skin of feet & cause anemia if infect intestine.
- Ancylostoma duodenale (hookworm)
- Medically important helminths: Echinococcus granulosus (a cestode) can cause cysts in the ____when ingested in dog feces; and _____ if antigens are released from cysts.
- liver, anaphylaxis
- Medically important helminths: Which nematode causes anal pruritis?
- Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)
- Medically important helminths: Lavae of the nematode ___ are found in the soil, penetrate the skin, and cause intestinal infection.
- Strongyloides stercoralis
- Medically important helminths: Trichinella spiralis (a nematode) is usually found in what food?
- undercooked meat, usually pork
- Medically important helminths: Which nematode can be seen crawling in the conjunctiva?
- Loa loa
- Medically important helminths: Treatment for river blindness, caused by onchocerca volvulus, is ___
- Ivermectin
- Medically important helminths: Wuchereria bancrofti cause blockage of lymphatic vessels in a condition known as:
- elephantiasis
- Medically important helminths: Three nematodes treated with Diethylcarbamazine:
- Loa loa, Toxocara canis, and Wucheria bancrofti
- Parasite hints: Perianal pruritis caused by:
- Enterobius
- Parasite hints: Microcytic anemia a result of infection with
- Ancylostoma, Necator
- Parasite hints: Schistosoma mansoni is known to result in
- portal hypertension
- Parasite hints: Schistosoma haematobium can cause ___ cancer and hematuria
- bladder
- Parasite hints: A trematode that causes hemoptysis is:
- Paragonimus westernani
- Parasite hints: Clonorchis sinensis causes disease in the:
- biliary tract
- Virology: All DNA viruses are dsDNA except:
- parvoviridae
- Virology: All DNA viruses are linear except these two:
- papoviruses, hepadnavirus (circular)
- Virology: All RNA viruses are ssRNA except
- Reoviridae ("repeato-virus" (reovirus) is dsRNA)
- Virology: Do hepadnavirus, herpesviruses, and poxvirus have an envelope?
- Yes
- Virology: Which virus is often responsible for "pink eye" (conjunctivitis)?
- adenovirus
- Virology: Which SS-linear(-) DNA virus is responsible for "slapped cheeks" rash?
- Parvovirus
- Virology: Which is the smallest DNA virus?
- Parvovirus
- Virology: Which DNA virus can cause aplastic crises in sickle cell disease?
- Parvovirus (B19 virus)
- Virology: Name 3 "naked" DNA virsuses (no envelope)
- Parvo, Adeno, and Papovirus (you have to be naked for a PAP smear⬦)
- Virology: The largest DNA virus, one which can cause "milkmaid's blisters" or molluscum contagiosum (and could be used in germ warfare), is:
- poxvirus
- DNA virus characteristics: Papovirus is not linear, but rather ____
- circular, supercoiled
- DNA virus characteristics: The only DNA virus that is not icosahedral is
- Pox (complex)
- DNA virus characteristics: All DNA viruses replicate in the nuclear except
- Pox (carries own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase)
- RNA viruses: Poliovirus, Echovirus,Rhinovirus, Coxsackievirus, and HAV are all members of which viral family?
- Picornaviruses ("PERCH")
- RNA viruses: Picorna-, Calci-, Flavi-, Toga-, Retro-, and Coronaviruses all share which RNA structure?
- SS + linear
- RNA viruses: Which SS-linear, nonsegmented RNA virus family is responsible for measles, mumps, and croup?
- PaRaMyxovirus (Parainfluenza-croups; RSV-bronchiolitis in babies; Measles, Mumps)
- RNA viruses: Hantavirus, Sanfly/Rift Valley fevers, and California encephalitis are all part of this SS-circular RNA viral family.
- Bunyaviruses
- RNA viruses: Orthomyxoviruses include which ubiquitous virus?
- Influenza virus
- RNA viruses: HIV and HTLV are both ____ with ____capsid symmetry.
- retroviruses; icosahedral
- RNA viruses: What is the #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children?
- Rotavirus (a reovirus)
- RNA viruses: Rabies is caused by this viral family.
- Rhabdoviruses
- RNA viruses: Virus family credited with the "common cold"
- Coronaviruses
- RNA viruses: Ebola/Marburg hemorrhagic fever are caused by which viral family?
- Filoviruses
- More virology: Three naked (nonenveloped) RNA viruses are:
- Calcivirus, Picornavirus, Reovirus (Naked CPR)
- More virology: From where to herpesviruses aquire their envelopes?
- nuclear membrane
- More virology: From where do enveloped viruses usually acquire their envelopes?
- plasma membranes
- More virology: This is the only virus that is not haploid:
- retrovirus (which has 2 identical ssRNA molecules, so considered diploid)
- More virology: The only DNA viruses that does not replicate in the nucleus is:
- poxvirus
- More virology: The two RNA viruses which do not replicate in the cytoplasm are:
- Influenza virus and retroviruses
- Viral Vaccines: Live attenuated vaccines induce humoral and cell-mediated immunity, while killed viruses induce only ____ immunity.
- humoral
- Viral Vaccines: Are MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccines live or killed?
- Live attenuated
- Viral Vaccines: Rabies, influenza, HAV, and Salk polio vaccines are of which type (live or killed)?
- Killed (SalK=killed)
- Viral Vaccines: A recombinant viral vaccine exists for which virus?
- HBV (antigen=HBsAg)
- Viral Vaccines: Worldwide pandemics of influenza virus are in part attributable to which type of viral genetics?
- Reassortment (viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments)
- Viral Pathogens: What structural similarity is shared by herpesviruses, HBV, and smallpox virus?
- They are DNA enveloped viruses.
- Viral Pathogens: RNA nucleocapsid enteroviruses include which pathogens?
- poliovirus, coxsackievirus, echovirus, HAV
- Viral Pathogens: The viral pathogens adenovirus, papillomaviruses, and parvoviruses are all what type of viral pathogens?
- DNA nucleocapsid viruses
- Viral Pathogens: Bunyaviruses, Orthomyxoviruses (influenza viruses), Arenaviruses, and Reoviruses are all what type of RNA virus?
- segmented (BOAR)
- Viral Pathogens: Aseptic (viral) meningitis can be caused by which small RNA viruses?
- poliovirus, coxsackievirus, echovirus (and not by two other picoRNAviruses, rhinovirus and HIV)
- Viral Pathogens: Reovirus considered the most important global cause of infantile gastroenteritis
- Rotavirus (ROTA=Right Out The Anus)
- Viral Pathogens: All paramyxoviruses have 1 serotype with this exception:
- parainfluenza virus (4 serotypes)
- Viral Pathogens: Parotitis can be caused by this paramyxovirus:
- mumps virus ("mumps gives you bumps")
- Viral Pathogens: Triad of mumps symptoms are:
- asceptic Meningitis, Orchitis, and Parotitis (MOP)
- Viral Pathogens: AUTHOR
- Connie Chang
- Measles virus: What virus type causes measles?
- paramyxovirus
- Measles virus: What bluish-gray spots on the buccal mucosa are diagnostic of measles
- Koplik spots
- Measles virus: 3 Cs of measles
- Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis
- Measles virus: 3 possible sequellae
- SSPE, encephalitis, giant cell pneumonia. SSPE = subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
- Influenza viruses: Five facts about Influenza: enveloped/nonenveloped, nuclear material, antigens, infection --> what risk?, protection.
- 1. Enveloped 2. ssRNA with segmented genome 3. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase antigens 4. Risk of fatal bacterial superinfection 5. Protection = killed viral vaccine
- Influenza viruses: Treatment for influenza A?
- Amantadine, rimantadine, zanamivir, and oseltamivir
- Influenza viruses: Treatment for influenza B?
- Zanavir and oseltamivir (neuraminidase inhibitors)
- Rabies virus: Rabies -- _______ (cytoplasmic inclusion) in _______(cell type)
- Negri bodies in neurons
- Rabies virus: Rabies -- incubation period
- weeks to 3 months
- Rabies virus: Rabies -- most common sources in US
- bat, raccoon, skunk (>dog)
- Rabies virus: Rabies travels to the CNS by⬦
- retrograde migration up nerve axons
- Rabies virus: Rabies - Si/Sx
- hydrophobia and fatal encephalitis with seizures
- Arboviruses: Arbovirus -- mode of transmission
- Transmitted by arthropods (mosquitoes, ticks)
- Arboviruses: Arbovirus -- classic illnesses
- Dengue fever (in SE Asia = hemorrhagic shock syndrome) and yellow fever
- Arboviruses: Arbovirus -- members of the family
- flavivirus, togavirus, bunyavirus
- Yellow fever: Yellow fever is transmitted by ____________
- the Aedes mosquito (flavivirus)
- Yellow fever: Symptoms of yellow fever
- high fever, black vomitus, and jaundice.
- Yellow fever: Yellow fever -- histology
- Liver: councilman bodies (acidophilic inclusions)
- Name the diseases caused by the following Herpesviridae:: HSV-1
- Gingivostomatitis, keratoconjunctivitis, temporal lobe encephalitis, herpes labialitis
- Name the diseases caused by the following Herpesviridae:: HSV-2
- Herpes genitalis, neonatal herpes
- Name the diseases caused by the following Herpesviridae:: VSV
- Varicella-zoster (shingles), encephalitis, pneumonia
- Name the diseases caused by the following Herpesviridae:: EBV
- Infecious mononuelosis, Burkitt's lymphoma
- Name the diseases caused by the following Herpesviridae:: CMV
- Cogenital infection, mononucleosis, pneumonia
- Name the diseases caused by the following Herpesviridae:: HHV-8
- Karposi's sarcoma
- Name the routes of transmission for the following Herpesviridae:: HSV-1
- respiratory secretions and saliva
- Name the routes of transmission for the following Herpesviridae:: HSV-2
- sexual contact, perinatal
- Name the routes of transmission for the following Herpesviridae:: VSV
- respiratory secretions
- Name the routes of transmission for the following Herpesviridae:: EBV
- respiratory secretions, saliva
- Name the routes of transmission for the following Herpesviridae:: CMV
- congenital, transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, urine, transplant
- Name the routes of transmission for the following Herpesviridae:: HHV-8
- sexual contact
- Mononucleosis: Mononucleosis is caused by _______
- EBV
- Mononucleosis: symptoms of mono
- fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy (esp posterior auricular nodes)
- Mononucleosis: how do you test for mono?
- heterophil antibody test
- Mononucleosis: what do you see in the peripheral blood (mono)?
- atypical lymphocytes (cytotoxic T cells)
- Tzank test: What's a Tzanck test?
- A smear of an opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells (seen in HSV-1, HSV-2, VSV)
- Hepatitis transmission: Name the type of nucleic acid and the virus type for the following hepatitis viruses:
- 0
- Hepatitis transmission: Name the type of nucleic acid and the virus type for the following hepatitis viruses: Hepatitis A
- RNA picornavirus
- Hepatitis transmission: Name the type of nucleic acid and the virus type for the following hepatitis viruses: Hepatitis B
- DNA hepadnavirus
- Hepatitis transmission: Name the type of nucleic acid and the virus type for the following hepatitis viruses: Hepatitis C
- RNA flavivirus
- Hepatitis transmission: Name the type of nucleic acid and the virus type for the following hepatitis viruses: Hepatitis D
- deta agent -- requires HBsAG as its envelope (coinfection only)
- Hepatitis transmission: Name the type of nucleic acid and the virus type for the following hepatitis viruses: Hepatitis E
- RNA calcivirus
- Hepatitis transmission: Name the mode of transmission for the following hepatitis viruses
- 0
- Hepatitis transmission: Mode of transmission: Hepatitis A
- fecal-oral
- Hepatitis transmission: Mode of transmission: Hepatitis B
- parenteral, sexual, maternal-fetal
- Hepatitis transmission: Mode of transmission: Hepatitis C
- blood (IV drug users)
- Hepatitis transmission: Mode of transmission: Hepatitis D
- coinfection with HBV!
- Hepatitis transmission: Mode of transmission: Hepatitis E
- enterically; water-borne epidemics
- Hepatitis transmission: which Hepatitis virus causes a high mortality rate in pregnant women?
- E
- Hepatitis transmission: which hepatitis virus has a short incubation period?
- A (3 weeks)
- Hepatitis transmission: which Hep virus has a long incubation period?
- B (3 months)
- Hepatitis transmission: which Hep virus has a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase?
- B; reverse transcription also occurs
- Hepatitis transmission: which pairs of viruses are similar in course, severity, and incubation?
- HAV & HEV; HBV & HCV
- Hepatitis transmission: Which virus type infection leads to chronic-carrier-status?
- B, C, and D
- Hepatitis serologic markers: If I got a Hepatitis B vaccine (no infection), for what Ab would I have a positive serology?
- HBsAb
- Hepatitis serologic markers: If I recently had a Hepatitis B infection, for what Ab would I have a positive serology
- HBsAb and HBcAb (positive during window period)
- Hepatitis serologic markers: What test tells you either that I have a current infection or that I am a chronic Hep B carrier?
- HBsAg
- Hepatitis serologic markers: What test demands that you(the doctor) to tell me to stop having sex with my spouse lest I give them Hep B?
- HBeAg
- Hepatitis serologic markers: What test tells you(the doctor) that I can resume sex with my spouse because I'm not likely to give them Hep B?
- HBeAb (indicates low transmissibility)
- Hepatitis serologic markers: What is the "window period"?
- after the actue infection is cleared and before the humoral response produces lots and lots of Ab (HBsAg AND anti-HBs negative; HBcAb positive)
- Hepatitis serologic markers: How big is the Hep B virus
- 42 nm
- Hepatitis serologic markers: When can I detect HBV particles by DNA polymerase?
- during the incubation period and the acute disease period
- Hepatitis serologic markers: How can I distniguish between complete recovery from Hep B infection and the chronic carrier state?
- Complete recovery: HBsAg-neg, HBsAb-pos; Chronic carrier: HBsAb-neg. HBsAb-pos; HBcAb is positive in BOTH states
- HIV: HIV has a ________ genome with __<#>__ molecules of __<nucleic acid>____
- HIV has a diploid genome with 2 molecules of RNA
- HIV: name the "rectangular nucleocapsid protein": HIV: name the envelope proteins
- gp41 and gp 120
- HIV: name the matrix protein: HIV: what other important protein hangs out inside the nucleocapsid?
- reverse transcriptase
- HIV: name the matrix protein: Does HIV integrate into the host genome?
- YES. HIV syntehsizes dsDNA from RNA and integrates the dsDNA into the host genome
- HIV diagnosis: How do I make a diagnosis of HIV?
- ELISA --> confirmed by Western blot
- HIV diagnosis: T or F: HIV testing is always positive 1-2 weeks after infection
- FALSE. ELISA/Western blot look for viral PROTEINS and can be falsely negative for the first 1-2 months of HIV infection
- HIV diagnosis: How can I monitor the effect of HIV drug therapy?
- HIV PCR/viral load
- HIV immunity: Who is immune to HIV?
- homozygous for CCR5 mutation
- HIV immunity: What % of US caucasians have a slower course of HIV infection because of heterozygosity for the above allele?
- 0.2
- HIV immunity: Persons with ______________ have a rapid progression to AIDS
- CXCR1 mutation
- Time course of HIV infection: HIV become symptomatic _____ after infection
- 3-10 years
- Time course of HIV infection: Anti-p 24 and anti-gp120 increase between _______ after initial infection; after the onset of immunodeficiency, they ___________(increase or decrease)
- 1-2 months; decrease
- Name the opportunistic infections seen in the following categories: (for AIDS patients): bacterial
- TB, Mycobacterium avium-intercellulare complex
- Name the opportunistic infections seen in the following categories: (for AIDS patients): viral
- HSV, VAV, CMV, PML (JC virus)
- Name the opportunistic infections seen in the following categories: (for AIDS patients): fungal
- Thrush (Candida albicans), cryptococcosis (cryptococcal meningitis), histoplasmosis, Pneumocystis pneumonia
- Name the opportunistic infections seen in the following categories: (for AIDS patients): protozoan
- toxoplasmosis, cryptosporidiosis
- Prions: Multiple choice: Prions are -- 1) infectious proteins ONLY 2) infectious RNA 3) infectious DNA 4) infectious proteins occasionally mixed with nucleic acids
- 1) infectious proteins
- Prions: Name examples of prion diseases
- CJD, kuru, scrapie, "mad cow"
- Prions: Jeopardy style: pathologic prions take on this conformation
- What is beta-pleated sheet
- Prions: Prions are associated with ___________ encephalopathy
- spongiform
- Name the dominant normal flora in each of these areas:: skin
- Staph epidermidis
- Name the dominant normal flora in each of these areas:: nose
- Staph aureus
- Name the dominant normal flora in each of these areas:: oropharynx
- Strep viridans
- Name the dominant normal flora in each of these areas:: dental plaque
- Strep mutans
- Name the dominant normal flora in each of these areas:: colon
- Bacteroides fragilis > E. coli
- Name the dominant normal flora in each of these areas:: vagina
- Lactobacillus, colonized by E. coli and group B strep
- Common causes of pneumonia: Name the common causes of pneumonia in the following age groups:
- 0
- Common causes of pneumonia: Name the common causes of pneumonia in the following age groups: Children (6 weeks to 18 yrs)
- Virus (RSV), Mycoplasma, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Strep pneumoniae
- Common causes of pneumonia: Name the common causes of pneumonia in the following age groups: Adults (18-40 yrs)
- Mycoplasma, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Strep pneumoniae
- Common causes of pneumonia: Name the common causes of pneumonia in the following age groups: Adults (40-65 yrs)
- Strep pneumoniae, H. influenze, Anaerobes, Viruses, Mycoplasma
- Common causes of pneumonia: Name the common causes of pneumonia in the following age groups: Elderly
- Strep pneumoniae, viruses, anerobes, H. Influenzae, Gram-negative rods
- Common causes of pneumonia: An AIDS patient comes into your office with symptoms of pneumonia. What organisms are you considering?
- Staphylococcus, gram-negative rods, fungi, viruses, Pneumocystis carinii
- Common causes of pneumonia: A patient in the CCU gets pneumonia. What organisms are you thinking?
- Nosocomial infections are usually Staphylococcus and gram-negative rods
- Common causes of pneumonia: The same patient also aspirated some peas prior to getting sick. What organisms do you add to your list?
- Anaerobes
- Common causes of pneumonia: His domineering wife of this same patient is mad because he also had a viral infection last week. What infectious agents would you now consider?
- add H. influenzae; another common postviral pneumonia bug is Staph
- Common causes of pneumonia: The wife is so distressed she goes into labor and gives birth to a 10 lb baby girl, who also gets pneumonia. Does she have the same bug as her dad in the CCU?
- Neonatal pneumonia is usually due to Group B streptococci or E. coli -- the dad could have the latter.
- Common causes of pneumonia: Of course, the wife get sick too, but her pneumonia is classified as "atypical." What might she have?
- Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia
- Name the causes of meningitis in the following age groups:: Newborn (0-6 months)
- Group B strep, E. coli, Listeria
- Name the causes of meningitis in the following age groups:: Children (6 mo to 6 years)
- Strep pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenze type B, Enteroviruses
- Name the causes of meningitis in the following age groups:: 6-60 years
- N. meningitidis, Enteroviruses, S. pneumoniae, HSV
- Name the causes of meningitis in the following age groups:: 60+ years
- Gram-negative rods, Listeria
- Name the causes of meningitis in the following age groups:: An AIDS patient comes to you with high fevers, stiff neck, and mental status changes. What organisms might be causing his meningitis?
- Cryptococcus, CMV, toxoplasmosis (brain abscess), JC virus (PML)
- CSF findings in meningitis: You do a spinal tap on your patient. The CSF pressure appears to be increased. What type of infectious agent have you eliminated?
- none. It could be bacterial, TB, fungal, or viral (in viral, CSF pressure is normal to increased)
- CSF findings in meningitis: You do a quick smear of the spinal tap under the microscope and see increased polys. What type of infectious agent does this suggest?
- bacterial. In fungal, TB, and viral, you see increased lymphocytes.
- CSF findings in meningitis: The lab tests show an increase in protein and a decrease in sugar in the CSF. Does that confirm your previous guess or confuse you?
- Confirms. These findings are seen in bacterial, fungal, and TB infections. In viral infections the protein and sugar concentrations of the CSF are normal.
- Osteomyelitis: What population is most likely to get osteomyelitis?
- children
- Osteomyelitis: What lab test is elevated in osteomyelitis?
- ESR
- For each of the following groups of persons, name the organism that is most likely to cause osteomyelitis: Most people (nonspecific)
- S aureus -- assume S aureus if no other information
- For each of the following groups of persons, name the organism that is most likely to cause osteomyelitis: sexually active
- Neisseria gonorrhea (rare -- septic arthritis is more common)
- For each of the following groups of persons, name the organism that is most likely to cause osteomyelitis: drug addicts
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- For each of the following groups of persons, name the organism that is most likely to cause osteomyelitis: Sickle cell Px
- Salmonella
- For each of the following groups of persons, name the organism that is most likely to cause osteomyelitis: Prosthetic replacement
- S. aureus and S. epidermidis
- For each of the following groups of persons, name the organism that is most likely to cause osteomyelitis: Vertebral
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Urinary tract infections: What 2 groups of males are likely to get UTIs?
- old men with enlarged prostates and baby boys with congenital defects
- Urinary tract infections: What are symptoms of pyelonephritis?
- fever, chills, flank pain, CVA tenderness
- Urinary tract infections: What are symptoms of a UTI?
- dysuria, frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain
- Urinary tract infections: The 2nd most common cause of UTI in young, ambulatory women is __________________
- Staphylococcus saprophyticus
- Urinary tract infections: Your patient gets a UTI while in the hospital. What organisms do you want to make sure his antibiotics cover while his urine culture is growing?
- E. coli, Proteus, Klebsiella, Serratia, Pseudomonas
- Urinary tract infections: What are predisposing factors for UTIs?
- female gender (10:1; short urethra colonized by fecal flora), flow obstruction, kidney surgery, catheterization, gynecologic abnormalities, diabetes, pregnancy
- Urinary tract infections: AUTHOR
- Sharyn Miskovitz
- UTI Bugs: Has a blue-green pigment and fruity odor
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- UTI Bugs: Two UTI bugs that are nosocomial and drug resistant
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Serratia marcescens
- UTI Bugs: Leading cause of UTIs
- Escherichia coli
- UTI Bugs: What does Proteus mirabilis produce?
- Urease
- UTI Bugs: Serratia marcescens produce what color pigment?
- red
- UTI Bugs: Large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- UTI Bugs: What do E. coli colonies show on EMB agar?
- metallic sheen
- UTI Bugs: 2nd leading cause of UTIs in sexually active women
- Staphylococcus saprophyticus