(VFA) F/A-18 SPECIFIC STUDY GUIDE

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Respiratory Protection Program: A program which identifies Employees as requiring respirator protection equipment due to the nature of their work or job.
Hearing Conservation Program: A program which surveys and identifies potentially hazardous noise levels and personnel at risk.
Sight Conservation Program: A program which surveys all activity work areas equipment and processes to determines which are eye hazards, which personnel require eye protection and what type of protection is required.
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE): A program which assess all workplaces to determined if hazards are present that necessitate the use of Personal Protective Equipment.
Identify the F/A-18 danger areas.: A) Flammable liquids, compressed gasses.

B) Canopy, seat and DFIRS explosive devices.

C) Airframe and external stores.

D) Engine

E) Radar antenna

F) APU exhaust
Idle: 9 feet radius intake / 115-155 feet from exhaust
MILITARY: 25 feet radius from intake / 325-725 feet from exhaust
MAXIMUM: 25 feet radius from intake / 850-925 feet from exhaust
State the purpose and identify the location of the aircraft STEP, NO STEP areas: To avoid in damaging the composite material through out the aircraft structure extreme caution should be used with toolboxes and heavy parts with sharp edges.
State the general safety precautions associated with applying and removing external power.: 1) Circuit breakers and switches must be position as specified in the required MIMS.

2) To prevent shock and damage to aircraft inspect power cables and cable assembly plugs for pin internal corrosion and damage or missing insulator washer or sleeves.

3) Ensure power source is secured prior to application and removal.

4) If using a mobile power unit ensure power unit is chocked and facing away from aircraft.
Identify the personnel danger areas during Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) operations.: center point of the APU exhaust it's exhaust velocity reaches 142 MPH/328-350 Fahrenheit degrees.

19-inch diameter the exhaust reaches a 24-MPH/250-300 Fahrenheit
State the precautions/restrictions that apply to performing maintenance on ordnance loaded aircraft.: 1) Major maintenance on aircraft is prohibited.

2) Minor maintenance and routine servicing necessary to ready the aircraft for the next launch may be conducted after all weapons have been safeties to the maximum degree as specified in loading check list.
Identify the precautions that must be observed when handling graphite or carbon/epoxy composite materials.: Wear respirators and goggles when exposed to these materials and in addition, wear close weave cotton gloves when handling these materials.
State the number of tie-down points on the F/A-18 Hornet and identify their location.: 1) There are 12 tie down points.
A) 1, 2 - Nose landing gear.

B) 3 - Bottom fwd fuselage, behind drag brace.

C) 4, 6, 8 - Left main landing gear.

D) 5, 7, 9 - Right main landing gear.

E) 10, 11 - Port/STBD wing.

F) 12 - Bottom aft fuselage fwd tail hook.
State the proper procedures for aircraft grounding.: 1) Aircraft are required to be grounded during maintenance and ordnance loading.

2) Ground to earth first then to one of the a/c grounding points.
State the purpose of aircraft plugs and covers.: To protect a/c opening and protruding surfaces from physical and environmental damage and FOD intrusion.
How many people make up a tow crew: 1) Tow Director

2) Tow driver

3) Brake Rider

4) Left wing walker

5) Right wing walker

6) Tail walker
Discuss towing preparations.: 1) Minimum structural access doors must be installed to prevent damage to a/c.

2) Radome must be closed and secured (if installed).

3) Do not tow a/c with doors 68 L/R open. (engine bay doors).

4) Ensure a/c emergency brake accumulator pressure gauge reads 2900 psi minimum.

5) Ensure a/c is clear of all obstacles and support equipment.
State the purpose of the landing gear aircraft ground safety pins.: Landing gear safety pins safeties nose and main landing gear in the down position, preventing gear retraction.
Briefly discuss the canopy static discharge process.: During flight a high voltage (100,000 volts) static electrical charge may build up and be stored in the windshield and canopy. This is a hazard to touch unless it is discharged using a static charge removal kit.
Briefly discuss how to static discharge kit: 1) Make sure a/c is properly grounded.

2) Ensure static charge removal kit has had a continuity check within the last 30 days.

3) Connect kit to aircraft nose landing gear wheel well ground receptacle.

4) Run the kit mittens over the canopy and windshield until static discharge is gone.
State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.: determines fluid contamination level, ensuring a high level of fluid purity.
State the purpose of a tactical paint scheme: 1) Are applied to an a/c to lessen the probability of visual or photographic detection.

2) Used for deception, reduction of detection range, or to confuse and mislead observers.
NAVAIR 01-1A-509: Provides information on material and procedures for the prevention and repair of corrosion damage to equipment on land and sea.
NAVAIR A1-F18AC-SRM-500: Provides corrosion control procedures for organizational, intermediate, and depot levels of Maintenance.
State the three modes of wheel brake operation.: 1) Normal brake

2) Emergency brake

3) Parking brake
Discuss the purpose of composite airframe materials: Used in aircraft to limit weight, decrease effects of corrosion attack and to increase strength.
Temporary Repair: Allows aircraft to be flown until permanent repair can be made.
One-time flight: Repair made to restore limited load carrying requirements to allow an aircraft to be flown to a repair station for permanent repairs.
Permanent repair: Repair equals or exceeds strength of original structure or component with no adverse affects on structural integrity, fatigue life, safety , or flying characteristics.
State the type of engine used on the f/a-18: LOW BY-PASS AXIAL FLOW TURBO FAN WITH AFTER BURNER.
How many sections are in the engine: 1) FAN

2) COMPRESSOR

3) COMBUSTION

4) HIGH PRESSURE TURBINE

5) LOW PRESSURE TURBINE

6) AFTER BURNER
What two type model engine's are used in the f/a-18: 1) 161353 - 164692 : F404-GE400 ENGINE

2) 164693 & UP : F404-GE402 ENGINE
State the three modes of operation for the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU): 1) MAIN ENGINE START (MES)

2) GROUND MAINTENANCE MODE (GMM)

3) ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL SYSTEM (ECS)
State the purpose and identify the location of the In-Flight Refueling (IFR) probe.: 1) LOCATED ON THE RIGHT FORWARD PART OF FUSELAGE.

2) ALLOWS A/C TO TAKE FUEL FROM A TANKER

A) ELECTRICALLY CONTROLLED (W/SWITCH IN COCKPIT), HYDRAULICALLY OPERATED.
The f/a-18 can hold three drop tanks which carry how many gallons or pounds?: 330 Gallons/2240lbs.
INTERNAL: 10,200 LBS.
W/1 DROP TANK: 13,500 LBS.
W/2 DROP TANKS: 15,000 LBS
W/3 DROP TANKS: 17,500 LBS.
State the purpose of the foam-lined wing tanks.: 1) FOR FIRE AND EXPLOSIVE PROOFING

2) IF HIT IN WING DURING COMBAT MISSION WILL NOT CATCH FIRE OR EXPLODE.

A) THERE IS A SWITCH IN THE COCKPIT WHICH KEEPS FUEL FROM

TRANSFERRING TO THE WINGS WHICH THE PILOT CAN USE IF THE WING IS HIT.
State the difference between a barometric and radar altimeter.: 1) BAROMETRIC ALTIMETER - uses pitot-static pressure to indicate altitude above sea level.

a) the scale for barometric altimeter starts at 29.92 inches in mercury

2) RADAR ALTIMETER - uses radio echoes to determine altitude above ground level. (Terrain)
AZIMUTH: Angle of position of bearing. (measured clockwise).
BEARING: Angle of position of object.
RANGE: distance to the target or station.
HEADING: the direction you are pointing.
True heading: direction measured by true north.
Magnetic direction: direction based on the 360-azimuth circle going counter clockwise (with the 0/360-azimuth radial aligned with magnetic north).
Relative direction: uses the current direction that an object is facing as the 0/360-azimuth alignment.
State the objective of the Explosive Qualification and Certification Program: To ensure military and civilian personnel are qualified / certified in the safe handling, stowage and transportation of ordnance in which they are associated with.
State the purpose of suspension/accessory equipment: To suspend single stores, bombs, and a variety of missile launchers.
State the purpose of an impulse cartridge (Cartridge Actuated Devices (CADS): To eject single stores and a variety of weapons from the aircraft.
Cluster Bomb Units (CBUs): Free fall weapon containing several small bomblettes used against armored vehicles.
Fire bombs: Used against dug in troops.
Air-laid Mines: Used to defend our straights, port approaches and coastal barriers.
Glide weapons: Designed to deliver self guided high explosive weapons from the attacking aircraft. Does not have a rocket motor (propulsion section)
Pyrotechnics: Used for signaling, marking, and search and rescue.
Practice Bombs: Inexpensive way to keep our pilots trained.
AIM: Air-launched intercept-aerial guided missile. (Air intercept missile).
AGM: Air-launched surface-attack guided missile. (Air to ground missile).
CATM: Captive air training missile.
HERO: Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance.
OP3565: is the main hero manual.
NAVAIR11-1-529: another manual used for hero
Retarded: slows the weapon down before it gets to the target in order to allow the jet to get away from bomb. Used for low level bombing missions.
Nonretarded: No means to slow bomb down. Used in high level bombing missions where the pilot and aircraft are safe from the bombs detonation.
Yellow color coding on weapons: Missile is a high explosive.
Brown color coding on weapons: Missile has a live rocket motor.
Blue color coding on weapons: Inert and for training use only.
Active guided system: missile is self-guiding and works by itself.
Semi-active guided system: Needs independent or external source to track and lock on target.
Passive guided system: Heat seeking infrared.
Chaff countermeasure device: - Very fine pieces of metal that are expelled into the airway.

1) Used for radar guided missiles.

2) Degrades launching missiles target lock.
Flare countermeasure device: Used for heat seeking infrared missiles.

a flare reaches 4000 degrees fahrenheit
f/a-18 can carry how many buckets/each bucket carrying how many flares or chaffs?: 4 buckets/30 per bucket
Identify the minimum requirements for aircrew Personnel Protective Equipment: 1) Flight suit (aremid6 cloth)

2) Aircrew fliers boots

3) Anti-g garment

4) Helmet

5) Survival radio/beacon

6) Aviator flight gloves (aremid cloth)

7) Anti-exposure suit

8) Identification tags (dog tags)

9) Survival knife and sheath

10) Personal survival kit

11) Signal device

12) Flashlight

13) Life preserver

14) Laser eye protection
State the purpose of the Environmental Control System (ECS.): Provides aircrew comfort (i.e.. pressurization/temp. control) and avionics cooling. (Has 14 subsystems)
Oxygen Mask: Used for breathing oxygen.
Oxygen Regulator: Reduces and regulates supply oxygen pressure for breathing
Life Preserver: Designed as a constant wear item for use with the SV-2B survival vest or integrated torso harness and provides a minimum of 65 pounds of buoyancy.
Anti-Gravity (ANTI-G) suit: Provides protection for the aircrew man against the effect of the high g-forces experienced in high performance aircraft.
State the objective of the Egress Systems Checkout Certification Program.: To thoroughly familiarize personnel working in or around the cockpit with the ejection Systems / Any special hazards associated with those systems, and to routinely monitor all such qualified personnel.
State the purpose of the ejection seat.: 1) For supplying a place for the aircrew to sit during normal conditions.

2) For propelling an occupant out and away from the aircraft in an emergency condition.
Hypoxia: The higher the altitude the amount of oxygen per unit of volume of air decreases, there for the oxygen intake is reduced unless the individual breaths additional oxygen the eyes, body, and muscles will fail.
Anoxia: Complete lack of oxygen.
Identify the two types of Aviator's Breathing Oxygen (ABO.): A) gaseous oxygen (type I)

B) Liquid oxygen (type II)
SEAD: SUPPRESSION OF ENEMY AIR DEFENSES

1) Protection against enemy air attacks.

2) Contained to a specific area.

3) Electronic warfare.
WAS: WAR AT SEA) - Bombing ships
CAS: CLOSE AIR SUPPORT) - Bombing in support of ground troops.
MAS: (MARITIME AIR SUPERIORITY) - We have air superiority.
ACM: (AIR COMBAT MANEUVERING) - Dog fight.
CAC: (COMBAT AIR CONTROL) - Drilling holes in the sky while watching for threatening a/c.
FCF: (FUNCTIONAL CHECK FLIGHT) -

1) Checking a/c to ensure everything is working correctly.

2) Four types - A, B, C, D

3) A type must be done if a/c not flown for 30 days.
VMC: (VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS). - Expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling equal to or better than specified minimums. (blue skies)
IMC: (INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS) - Expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling less than the minima specified.
VFR: (VISUAL FLIGHT RULES) - Rules that govern the procedures for conducting flights under visual conditions.

1) Flying in accordance with the see-and-avoid concept.

2) Pilot is responsible for his/her own separation from other aircraft under most circumstances.

3) Certain weather minimums are required for such flight.
IFR: (INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES) - Rules for governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight.

1) Pilots must comply with IFR procedures when operating their aircraft in weather conditions that are less than VFR minimums.

2) Pilots are encouraged to use IFR procedures when their flight is conducted within the Federal Airway System.

3) Required adherence to:

a) When flights are conducted along jet routes. (Operations parallel to and within 10 miles of the established centerline)

b) Anytime aircraft are operated in established positive control zones.

c) Flights to and from targets or operating areas when practicable.

d) When performing instrument approaches.
Discuss the purpose of the Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC): (CATCC) - 1) Primary control of airborne aircraft operating from the carrier except those Authority. (Ship/airfield)

2) Status and upkeep of all carrier air operations!
Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS): Provides the pilot with a visual indication of his/her relative position with respect to a prescribed glide slope.
Glide scope: designed to bring the aircraft down to the deck, within the cross-deck pendant pattern, with a sage arresting hook clearance above the stern ramp of the carrier.
Manual Operated Visual Landing Aid System (MOVLAS): An emergency signaling system that is intended to be used when the primary optical landing system is rendered inoperative.

1) Works the same as the FLOLS but it's a smaller version.

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Number of cards 101