CPO BMR Questions

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What document must be completed prior to a preliminary inquiry?: Report chit done by the legal officer.
When should an interrogation of someone accused of an offense be done?: Last, after all witnesses and anyone else with pertinent information.
When interrogating the accused, is it necessary to have a third person present to sign that the accused was properly informed of his/her rights?: No, you as the interrogater can sign as the verifier of their rights being stated.
Interrogation of the accused can only be done if he or she has done what?: Waived their rights knowingly and intelligently.
What publication has 12 chapters that describe the authority and responsibilities of the offices within the DON?: Navy Regulations
What is the article number that states the Failure to obey order or regulation?: 92
Who is responsible for maintaining Navy Regulations?: The CNO
Who is responsible for maintaining the Navy Regs?: CNO
Who must approve any addition, deletion or change to the Navy Regs?: SecNav
Who is provided the authority over all embarked persons of a boat?: The senior line officer eligible for command at sea.
What regulation provides guidance governing the conduct of all members of the Navy along with their duties and responsibilities of personnel within a unit organization from CO to messenger of the watch?: SORN, Standard Organization and Regulations of the US Navy (OPNAVINST 3120.32B)
What are the guidelines of EMI?: Will not be more than 2 hours a day, assigned at a reasonable time out of working hours, not conducgted over a period longer than is necessary to correct a deficiency, no conducted on a sabbath, no used as a method of depriving normal liberty.
Who does the authority to assign EMI rest with?: The CO
What are some of the priveleges that may be temporarily withheld?: Special liberty, exchange of duty, special pay, special cmd programs, bases or ship libraries and movies, cmd parking and special service events.
The SOFA tries to do what two things?: 1. Guarantee the armed forces adequate legal protection without infringing on the authority of the military cmd.
2. Fully recognize the peacetime rights and responsibilities of the civilian authorities in the host countries.
Who falls into the Operating Management level of the formal Navy Management Structure responsible for the supervision of goal completion?: CPO's and Divo's (divos are responsible for setting division goals - all good PO's know that a divo is only as good as the CPO that drives him/her).
In what manual can you look to find the organizational mission of the command?: The SORM (Ship/Cmd's Organization and Regulation Manual)
What type of plans involve activities that will take place in 2 to 5 years? The TYCOM or higher authority usually utilizes this type of plan to set an organizational mission and objectives.: Strategic Plans
WHat type of plan does the Navy use for recurring or long-range activities? CPO's should use these to determine routine work requirements within the division/work center.: Standing Plans
What term is defined as broad general statements of expected behavior?: Policies - These are usually found in the SORM and include items such as chit routing, emi and the cmd sponsor program.
What are defined as standing plans that specifically state what personnel can and cannot do in a given circumstance?: Rules and Regulations - the Navy regs and SORN fall into this category and are used to ensure personnel adhere to policy.
What type of planning is used for short-range nonrecurring activities that CPOs are expected to excel in?: Single-use planning which includes programs, projects and budgets.
What are the two basic principles of "Management by Objectives (MBO)" that the Navy uses?: 1. Get people committed to a goal and they will be more willing to work toward that goal.
2. If you allow people to set the goal, they will do everything that is possible to achieve that goal.
What does the acronym SWOT stand for and how is it applied in Management of personnel?: Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats - This analysis will help a CPO identify the areas in which the division 1)needs improvement 2)has available opportunitiies and 3)must overcome certain obstacles. This should be done every quarter and can be used for effective short-range planning.
As a CPO, you have to know what your most important resource is, what is it?: Personnel
Who is responsible for reviewing the ship manning document and staying abreast of future manning requirements?: The Division officer who will most definitely need the assistance of their CPO.
What is the COSAL and why is it important to your division?: Coordinated/Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List - Must be current so that supply has a list of all the required supplies for your inventory, very important to departments like engineering that need to make continuous repairs...
What are the six critical tasks leaders are to take action on to be effective?: 1. Listen
2. Set goals & develop plans
3. Give clear & concise direction
4. Provide feedback
5. Reward or discipline
6. Develop subordinates with inspiration, motivation & consistency.
You should be familiar with the six styles of leadership, what are they?: 1. Coercer
2. Authoritarian
3. Affiliator
4. Democratic
5. Pacesetter
6. Coach
There are five critical skills of management and supervision to become familiar with.: 1. Concern for standards
2. Concern for Efficiency
3. Planning and Organizing
4. Supervising for Effective Performance
5. Monitoring
The Navy has identified six skills of effective leaders to apply in leading others that is focused on in NAVLEAD.: 1. Commitment to Cmd Mission
2. Self-image as a Leader
3. Communication
4. Influencing
5. Development of others
6. Concern for subordinates
The Navy has also identified certain personal characteristics that CPO's who are successful incorporate.: 1. Concern for achievement
2. Analystical problem solving
3. Interpersonal awareness
4. Initiative
5. Persistance
6. Assertiveness
The DON has accepted a concept of management in response to Executive Order 12637 signed on April 27, 1988; what is this concept called?: TQM or Total Quality Management and it is sometimes referred to as TQL or Total Quality Leadership.
What program offers career designation to first-term members who reenlist and establish career eligibility for: a. guaranteed assignment to A/C school b. guaranteed advancement upon completion of school c. SRB if eligible?: STAR (Selective Training and Reenlistment Program)
What program offers career incentives to members who reenlist for conversion to critically undermanned ratings?: SCORE (Selective Conversion and Reenlistment Program)
During a PCS what is the maximum number of days a military member and his family may stay at a Navy Lodge without local commander approval?: 30 Days
For active personnel who separate what is the number of days after separation that the SGLI coverage is available?: 120 days
What is the only Navy recognized and endorsed organization that offers supplemental insurance?: Navy Mutual Aid Society
If you are entitled to dislocation allowance during PCS, what is the amount equal too?: One month of BAQ (Basic Allowance for Quarters) based on dependency and paygrade.
The SRB is broken up into three zones. Which zone is for people who have completed 21 months of continuous naval service but not more than 6 years of continuous service?: Zone A
The SRB is broken up into three zones. What zone is for people who have completed 6 but not more than 10 years of active service immediately preceding the date of reenlistment?: Zone B
The SRB is broken up into three zones. What zone is for people who have completed 10 but not more than 14 years of service on the date of reenlistment?: Zone C
What program is designed to provide a way for skilled Navy technicians to gain journeyman status with the Department of Labor in a recognized civilian trade?: The National Apprenticeship Program
What program may allow for you to be eligible to receive two guaranteed duty assignments?: The Guaranteed Assignment Retention Detailing (Guard) III program in which you must use the first Guard III assignment during your first reenlistment and the second can be used anytime up to your 25th year of service.
What program is provided to give disadvantaged persons an "edge" they may need to obtain a scholarship to NROTC or the Naval Academy?: BOOST - Broadened Opportunity for OFficer Selectiona nd Training.
What is required for personnel desiring a direct commission?: A baccalaureate or higher degree from an accredited institution.
What rank is defined as being the technical authority, expert and supervisor within a rating in charge of provideing the direct supervision, instruction, and training of lower rated personnel?: Chief Petty Officers
What rank is defined as being the senior technical supervisor within a rating with a primary responsibility for supervising and training enlisted personnel oriented to systems and subsystems rather than individual unit work?: Senior Chief Petty Officers
What rank is defined as having experience, proven performance and technical knowledge necessary within a command that they are vested with special trust and confidence assisting with formation and execution of policy?: Master Chief Petty Officers
The usual board consists of how many members?: 50 consisting of officers, MCPO's and they are divided into panels for review of records.
What are the three most important training areas that a CPO must plan for?: PQS, PMS and GMT
What form must be completed that identifies designated custodians who will assume responsibility for a members' dependents in their absence?: Dependent Care Certificate (OPNAV 1740/1)
What does CACO stand for and why is it important?: Casualty Assistance Calls Officer - important liasion between the Navy and family dealing with tragic circumstances imposed on them. An officer with at least 2 years active duty or a qualified E7 may serve as CACO.
What Navy program is comprehensive and integrated in the education, training and counseling of finances to ensure our sailors are successful in the financial sector of their lives?: Navy Personal Financial Management Program (PFM)
What program was developed to help the navy better prepare personnel stationed at overseas shore activities, aboard ships and those serving in high impact positions like embassies?: Overseas Duty Suppport Program (ODSP)
In 1980 the Pride and Professionalism Program was initiated by ADM Hayward to reinforce and reemphasize the traditions and values that have been a part of the Navy for over 200 years, what are some of the traits he felt were most important?: Loyalty, Devotion to Duty, Professional Knowledge, Self-confidence, Initiative and Ingenuity, Courage, Ability to organize and make decisions, setting a personal example
THe follow-on program to Pride and Professionalism was a program that focused on Navy involvement in the civilian community?: Personal Excellence Program which has helped maintain the Navy's image of pride and professionalism in the community.
What are the basic elements of integrity that all CPO's are expected to utilize?: Honesty, honor and responsibility
What are the elements of professionalism that CPO's are expected to maintain?: Competence, team work, and loyalty
What is the handing down of beliefs and customs from generation to generation that you as a CPO have an obligation to your predecessors and successors to uphold?: Tradition
What program in the DON is designed to strengthen and focus efforts to combat fraud, waste and abuse within the DON?: Navy's Integrity and Efficiency Program or the I&E program
If you need to report any instance of fraud, waste, abuse or mismanagement what are some of the ways you can do this?: Chain of Command, Navy Hot Line, Naval Investigative Service (NIS) or through Congressional Communications.
What term is defined as an overall plan that contains general goals and broad guidelines?: Policy
What term is defined as a plan or system nder which action may be taken towards a goal or is the means to reah the end (goal)?: Programs

*In other words, a policy tells where to go and a program tells how to get there.
What is the main cause of pollution problems in the world?: PEOPLE
What type of pollutant includes insecticides, herbicides, pesticides, natural and chemicla fertilizers, drainage from animal feedlots, salts from field irrigation and silts from uncontrolled soil erosion?: Agricultural Pollutants
What type of pollutant includes acids from mines and factories, thermal discharges from power plants and radioactive wastes from mining and processing certain ores?: Industrial Operations
What is the PRIMARY municipal pollutant?: Raw or inadequately treated sewage
What pollutants include emissions from aircraft, trains, waterborne vessels, and cars/trucks?: Transportation
There are two main effects produced from pollution - physical and biological - which is more serious of the two?: Biological
Which of the two pollutant produced effects - physical and biological - includes oil spills and air pollutants?: Physical
Biological effects of pollution is more serious than physical because of its effects on what?: Human health and on the entire food chain of animals, birds and marine life.
What is the name of the Act that states that each state has a primary responsibility for ensuring air quality?: Clean Air Act
What act represents a clear goal to restore and maintain the chemical, physical and biological integrity of the nation's waters?: Clean Water Act
What has the Navy installed on most of its ships that treats sewage to a level acceptable for overboard discharge?: MSD's aka Marine Sanitation Device
Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash at sea within how many nautical miles from the US coastline?: 25 Nautical Miles
Vessels may not discharge pulped trash at sea within how many nautical miles of the US coastline?: 12 NM
Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant compacted trash no less than how many nautical miles from the US coastline only if the water depth is greater than 1,000 fathoms?: 12 nm
Vessels may not discharge any trash within how many nautical miles of any foreign coastline?: 25NM
What is prohibited from overboard discharge at all or any time?: Plastic and Hazardous Material
What is the primary pollution concern of the Navy?: Pollution produced by shipboard waste
What is the Navy's policy on energy conservation?: To make all possible efforts to improve the way it uses energy resources.
What program has been developed to ease the relocation of naval personnel and their families on PCS orders?: Navy Sponsor Program
What program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase performance within the DON by offering special incentive awards?: MILCAP aka Military Cash Awards Program
No pregnant servicewoman may be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the beginning of what week of pregnancy?: 28th
A pregnant servicewoman cannot be transferred to a deploying unit during what time period of pregnancy in CONUS?: From the 20th week of pregnancy through four months after the expected date of delivery.
Post-delivery convalescent leave is normally how long after the baby has been delivered?: 42 days or 6 weeks
What is the term used for a power of attorney that authorizes medical care and person(S) acting as the parent?: loco parentis
Who has the mission of informing the public and naval members about national policy and security, Navy operations and programs, and the responsibilities and activities of naval personnel as US citizens?: DON Public Affairs
What Navy program provides educational programs for people who don't meet the Navy's fitness or body fat standards and who also need help to change long-established bad health habits?: Health and Physical Readiness Program
Who's mission is it "inquire into and report" on any matter that affects the discipline or military efficiency of the DoN?: Naval Inspector General (IG)
What is the Navy's policy on the use of illegal drugs or abuse of prescription drugs?: "Zero Tolerance"
For the Navy to maintain public confidence in its integrity, naval personnel should comply with what?: The standards of conduct
The Navy carries out a policy of equal treatment and opportunity for all personnel, regardless of race, color, creed, sex, or national origin using what PROGRAM?: CMEO aka Command Managed Equal Opportunity Program
Who provides the guidance and policy for the CMEO program?: CNO
What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or member, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel,: Hazing which doesn't have to be just physical in nature but can be verbal and psychological too.
Telling a sexist or racist joke is an example of what type of behavior?: Insensitive Practices
What three criterion are used to establish if someone has been sexually harassed?: The person who is harassing must possess the following behavior:
1. Be unwelcome
2. Be sexual in nature
3. Occur in or impact on the work environment.
What type of sexual harassment is known as the "this for that" type in which someone is offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior?: Quid Pro Quo

Ex. is a person is not promoted because they did not submit to unwelcome sexual behavior.
What type of sexual harassment has occurred if unwelcome sexual behavior in the workplace interferes with someone's work performance?: Hostile environment
Whose perceptions count when there is unwelcome behavior?: The recipient of the behavior.
What article of the US Navy Regulations defines the rules regarding the prohibition of fraternization?: Article 1165
What is the title given to the person who is a volunteer liaison between the command and families appointed by the CO?: The OMBUDSMAN
All first term sailors in paygrades E1-E6 requesting reenlistment must be approved through what program?: ENCORE - Enlisted Navy Career Options for Reenlistment Program
What code on the DD214 when you leave the Navy tells whether you can reenlist or not?: The reenlistment code.
What president is responsible for establishing the Code of Conduct in 1955 that provides American military personnel with a standard of conduct should they be captured by an enemy?: President Dwight D. Eisenhower
How many articles are there in the Code of Conduct?: SIX
What items if you become a POW are you required to give under the Code of Conduct Article number Five?: Your name, rank, service number and date of birth.
What three sources set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the US Navy?: 1. US Navy Regulations
2. Standard Organization and Regulations of the US Navy
3. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
What is supposed to be used as a character builder in the Navy and not as as a destroyer of individuality?: DISCIPLINE
Under what article are you held responsible for obeying any regulation and which failure subjects you to charges in the UCMJ?: Article 92 - Failure to Obey an order or regulation.
In the US Navy Regulations what do the first two digits of four in the article number indicate?: The chapter the article is found in.

*Ex. 0818 would be number 18 of chapter 8.
Who must give permission for someone to be ordered to active service?: Chief of Naval Personnel
If you were to lend money to another naval member what is the maximum amount of simple interest you can charge per year and entire period of the loan?: 18 Percent
What article prohibits fraternization?: Article 1165
What publication/source details the regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all members of the Navy?: Standard Organization and Regulations of the US Navy OPNAVINST 3120.32`
In what year did the Uniform Code of Military Justice come about to ensure that all the military services were using the same punishment/justice?: 1951 - Article 137 states that the certain articles must be explained to each and every enlisted person at certain intervals - at time of entrance to active duty, after six months of active duty, and when reenlisting.
If a member of the armed forces is placed in confinement, is there an article in the UCMJ that defines whether they may be placed with an enemy prisoner or not?: Yes, article 12 and it says that NO member of the armed forces may be placed in confinement with enemy prisoners.
What are the numbers of the punitive articles of the UCMJ?: Numbers 77 through 134
Can Confinement on bread and water be administered to anyone by a CO at captain's mast?: NO only E3 and below aboard ship.
How many maximum hours are authorized for extra duty?: 2 hours maximum and Petty Officers may not be assigned extra duties that would demean their grade or position.
What type of courts-martial consists of one commissioned officer and can award any sentence at mast?: Summary Courts-Martial
What type of courts-martial consists of not less than three members or only a military judge that can award any punishment plus a more severe punishment than a summary courts-martial?: Special Courts-Martial
What type of courts-martial consists of a military judge and not less than five members or just a military judge and can award any UCMJ authorized punishment to include death?: General Courts-Martial
What theory of punishment is used by the US Navy?: Detterent
What chapter of the Navy Regs deals with your responsibility and authority while carrying out orders?: Chapter 10
What chapter of the Navy Regs deals with your rights and responsibilities?: Chapter 11
How many inches square is the Navy neckerchief?: 36 inches square made of black silk, acetate or other like material.
How long should the blue jumper top be?: It should hang straight and be long enough to cover all but the lowest button of the 13 buttons.
What is the formal name of a dress uniform worn with large medals?: Full Dress
When women wear pants with their dress white jumper top, what is number of inches above the bottom of the pocket opening it should reach?: 1 inch
Pants should cover the shoes at the heel by how many inches?: 1 inch
What is the maximum height of a heel on dress shoes that a woman may wear?: 2 and 5/8 inches and no less than 5/8 in and no wedge heels are authorized.
What size should stencils be on uniform items for men and women?: 1/2 inch but not more than 1 inch if no stencil/stamp is available.
Who must authorize the transfer of enlisted person uniform clothing?: The commanding officer
What is the only type of officer eligible for command at sea and the command of aircraft squadrons?: Unrestricted line officers
An Intelligence, Communications, and other technical fields type officer is designated as what type of line officer?: Restricted...Remember they are not eligible for command at sea or of squadrons, etc...
How many inches above the left breast pocket are ribbons worn?: 1/4 of an inch
What is the maximum length hair on a male sailor can be?: 4 inches
Can sideburns be flared?: NO
How far down the side of the face can sideburns extend?: TO the middle of the ear.
What is the approximate size of a braid if a woman sailor decides to wear multiple braids?: 1/4 inch
WHen a woman is wearing a jumper uniform what is the maximum length the hair may extend below the top of the collar?: 1 and 1/2 inches
What is the maximum number of inches the bulk of hair can extend from the scalp?: 2 inches
What is the maximum length that nails may extend from the tip of the finger?: 1/4 inch - also on this note nail polish may be worn but must be a soft shade that is complimentary to the skin tone.
Womens earrings must be how many mm?: 6mm which is approximately 1/4 to 1/8 of an inch and they may be shiny or matte finish
When considering formation commands what foot is brought in to the other foot at a call of ATTENTION?: The left foot is brought to the right foot.
On the AT EASE command what foot MUST stay planted in place?: The right foot.
What term is defined as "the calculated use of violence or threat of violence to inculcate fear; intended to coerce or to intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious, or ideological."?: Terrorism
What term identifies the action taken to prevent, deter or respond to terrorism which includes antiterrorism and counterterrorism?: Combatting terrorism
Between Counterterrorism and Antiterrorism, which one is defensive in nature and which one is offensive?: Counterterrorism = offensive
Antiterrorism = defensive
Who is the lead agency for incidents within the United States?: Department of Justice (DOJ)
Who is the lead agency for incidents outside of the US?: Department of Statement (DOS) with an exception on the Arabian Peninsula in which there is an agreement with the Department of Defense
Who serves as the principal advisor to the Secretary of Defense for all DOD AT issues?: Chairman of the Joint Chief of Staffs and is also responsible for ensuring CINCs establish rules and regulations and training for AT within their jurisdictions.
Appendix B of the Joint Publication 3-07.2 is very important because it tells everyone how to not become what?: A victim or target of terrorism.
What is the mission of any American Hostage?: Survive with honor.
What is defined as the "defensive measure used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts, to include limited response and containment by local military forces?": Antiterrorism
What is defined as the "offensive measure taken to prevent, deter, and respond to terroroism?": Counterterrorism
What is the term for a person who is a member of a political party who rebels against established leadership?: Insurgent
Threat conditions are placed on installations based on the threats against US personnel and facilities. Which one applies when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel and facilities but the nature and extent are unpredi: Threatcon ALPHA
Which threatcon applies to an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity?: Threatcon BRAVO
Which threatcon is implemented when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating an action against personnel or facilities is imminent?: Threatcon CHARLIE
Which threatcon is implemented in an area where an attack has occurred or that an attack is likely?: Threatcon DELTA
What uniform may be worn at any time while traveling on leave, TAD or transfer and during any season?: Service Dress Blue
What is the maximum measurement of an individual mustache hair fully extended from the lip?: 1/2 inch
What is the standard measurement regarding the wear of metal insignia on Chiefs uniforms?: 1 inch and centered...
What is the measurement of women's chevrons on the rating badges?: 2 and 1/2 inches wide and their rating insignia is 3/4 the size of men's!
What is the measurement of chevrons on a men's rating badge?: 3 and 1/4 inches and are 3/4 larger than that of women's.
Considering the 12 years of Good Conduct Service and wear of the gold on dress uniforms are the years to be cumulative or continuous good service?: Cumulative
For what officer rank and below is the visor/hat band plain?: Lieutenant Commander and below...

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