Food Hygiene

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Who can issue press releases?: Ontario ministry of health
Who can make orders if he/she believes there is a health hazard?: MOH or PHI
Under what 2 conditions can a MOH or PHI make an order?: 1. Health hazard exists.
2. Decrease hazard or eliminate hazard.
Who can say how long it takes to comply with order?: PHI or MOH
Give 9 things that PHI or MOH can do to ensure compliance?: 1. vacating premises.
2. close premises.
3. placarding of premises.
4. doing work on premisis.
5. requiring the removal of hazardous material.
6. cleaning or disinfecting.
7. destruction of hazard.
8. prohibiting or regulating the manufacturing, processing, preparation, storage, handling, display, transportation, sale, offering for sale or distribution of any food or thing.
9. prohibiting or regulating the use of any premises or thing.
who identifies whether or not a food will be recalled?: Health Protection Branch
What act is the recall in violation of?: Food and Drug Act or food products in violation of the HPPA
Food Recall defined as: method of removing food products that may pose a health hazard to the cosumer.

Action taken by a manufacturer, distributor or operator.
What are the 3 degress/classes of health hazard that a recall is governed under?: Class 1 - use of product will cause serious health consequences.

Class 2 - may casue temporary adverse consequences or chance of seriouse effects is remote.

Class 3 - lease serious, not likely to cause adverse health effects.
3 levels that monitor recalls: 1. Federal recall.
2. Provincial recall
3. MOH recall
The onus is on who to make corrective action?: food premises
Who monitors the corrective action?: HPB
What is the order of responsibility for the recall?: CFIA -> Chief MOH -> Local MOH -> Director -> PHI's
What is the action that is requested of most often from PHI's?: 1. Check retailers and wholesalers.
2. Ensure product removed from sale or destroyed.

3. leave record of food removed with food premises operator.
If the recall is federal then what is the legal action?: CFIA takes action under the Federal Drug Act
If the recall is federal then what is the provincial action?: MOH takes action under authority of HPPA
If the recall is MOH then what is the legal action?: authority under HPPA
Who advises who regarding status if no assistance (legal) is needed?: Chief MOH advises local MOH
Give 7 pieces of information provided to agencies at onset of recall.: 1. Class of recall
2. Reason for recall
3. Public warning to be issued.
4. Product identity.
5. Facsimile of product label
6. Extent of distribution.
7. Specifics on action requested
Give 7 ways to reduce risk associated with staph infection from poultry.: 1. Assume all poultry is contaminated.
2. Provide contamination free feed.
3. Food handler training.
4. Strict regulatory oversight (sanitation GMP on poultry factory, same for transportation, slaughtering and various processess leading to the retail outlet and the food services premises).
5. Prevent cross contamination .
6. Public education.
7. Advocate or legislate competitive exclusion.
What temp should chicken be refriderated?: <4C
How do you thaw chicken?: In fridge or in ice bath. If in fridge allow 10 hrs/Kg. In water allow 2 hrs/Kg
What is the internal temp of chicken to be cooked to?: minimum 74C
What is the holding temp?: 60C
How often should you take samples to ensure adequate cooking and handling practices are maintained?: 4/year
What are the 14 steps to Beef slaughter?: 1. inspection
2. stunning
3. Shackling
4. bleeding
5. heading
6. skinning
7. evisceration
8. postmortem inspection.
9. splitting carcass down centre.
10. trimming
11. weighing
12. washing.
13. shrouding
14. chilling
Is slaughterhouse exempt from Food Premises Regulation?: Yes
Who inspects slaughterhouses?: Ontario ministry of agriculture and rural affairs
Do PHI's inspect meat producing plants?: Yes
Give the breakdown of what process of slaughter has the most salmonella infections?: feed - 60%
process plant - 16%
carcasses at packing - 20%
insects - 13%
mice - 5%
__% of Salmonella is isolated from broiler carcasess traced to feed ingredients.: 82
What is the breakdown of salmonella found in turkey products in slaughterhouse?: whole carcass - 11.5
partially processed - 16.3
finished raw product - 26.8
What part of the process for turkey has the most salmonella infection?: finished product
Min temp to eliminate salmonella?: 74C
Who recommends this temperature?: Ministry of health
For mash feed what is the salmonella contamination?: 35
For pellet feed what is the salmonella contamination?: 6.3
What 2 things should be done to reduce contamination?: 1. Form mash feed into pellets under high temp and pressure.
2. Sanitize chicken coupes
Where does chicken go if pass inspection?`: Live hang
What is used to stun the chicken?: Electric shock
How long does the heart beat: pumps for 1 to 1 and 1/2 minutes.
How hot is the water when chicken is scalded?: 51-54C
How is defeathering done?: Automatic proceedure
How is singeing done?: gas flame
How is pinning done?: by hand
What are the 14 steps in poultry processing?: 1. Recieving (inspection)
2. Stunning - electric shock
3. Bleeding - pumps 1 - 1&1/2 minutes
4. Scalding (51-54 mins)
5. Defeathering - automatic
6. Singeing - gas flame
7. Wash
8. Pinning - by hand
9. Evisceration - equipment rinsed b/w each bird.
10. Postmortom inspection.
11. Remove lungs, kidney, neck, etc...
12. Wash - inside and outside of carcass.
13. Chill - ice and water emmersion tank.
14. Weighing and cutting (automatic 30 birds/min)
What does Kosher Slaughter mean?: Fit to eat
What 3 things do kosher slaughter involve?: 1. knife drawn swiftly through neck arteries and esophagus.

2. stunning equipment not used.

3. may not bleed as well since heart pumping is stopped.

4. After slaughter the meat is kashered - blood removed by salting and soaking.
Before slaughter every animal must be rendered unconsious by what 3 methods?: 1. Blow to the head
2. electrical current.
3. exposure to CO2
Under what conditions is the above slide exempt: religious reasons
Inedible Offal: -intestines, crop, esophagus, head.
-used for animal feed or fertilizer.
Where does the blood waste and feathers go?: animal feed
What are grease traps used for?: catch fat and debris that may clog pipes
What requirement is necessary if the slaughterhouse is on private sewage disposal site?: must have holding tank to catch blood waste and contact with disposal company for pick up.

or

provide full treatment on site
5 types of fermented dairy products: 1. yogart
2. kefir
3. kumiss
4. buttermilk
5. acidophilus milk
Define fermented dairy product.: Milk to which single or multiple cultures of lactic bacteria and mold/yeast cultures added for flavour and aroma
2 classifications of cheeses.: unripened or ripened
3 categories of ripened or unripened.: soft, semi soft, hard
example of soft and unripened cheese.: cottage, cream
example of semi-soft and unripened cheese.: mozzarella
example of soft and ripened cheese.: brie, feta, camembert
example of semi-soft and ripened cheese.: blue, brick, limberger
example of hard and ripened cheese.: cheddar, swiss, edam
What 2 product are used to form lactic acid in lactic fermentation (yogart): Lactose + Lactobacillus bulgaricus or Streptococcus thermophilus -----------------------> Lactic acid
Mixed fermentation. e.g. kefir: acids (streptococcus lactis, Lactobacillus bugaricus)

and

alcohols produce - tortula kefir
- tortula cremoris (yeast)
Lactic starter cultures: -chemical acidification will coagulate protiens but lacks flavour.
-starter enzymes metabolize lactose and citric acid to diacetyl and acetic acid
-limited amts of flora will not interfere significantly with flavour.
-Rapid cooling after pressing controls cheese flora.
Ripening: -controlled breakdown of coagulated milk proteins
- cheese microflora and enzymes release flavour and aroma through proteolysis
- milk fat content and lactic starters contribute to flavour.
- control culture numbers to prevent bitterness
Cheddar cheese process (ripened): A
1. Milk heated 30C and starter cultures added (strep lactis and strep durans)
2. Rennet added (quickens curd formation (30 mins)
3. Curd cut into small pieces
4. Mixture cooked at 38C (whey drained)
5. Salt added
6. Curd wrapped in cloth and pressed

B
7. 3 - 13 C for weeks to months (longer ripening is sharper taste)
Low fat cheese: lacks flavour and more elastic texture
Swiss: -coliform bacteria added to curd.
-CO2 stretches the mass around the colonies of bacteria
-holes form in cheese body
processed cheese: mixture of a variety of cheeses

heat treated and homogenized

flattened by rolling cylinder, cut and wrapped
Mould ripened cheeses: Presence of mould within the cheese.

Penicillium roqueforti or surface mould, P. cammemberti
Camembert: -lactic starters coagulate -proteins by acidification
-mould de-acidifies the cheese through hyphae enzyme secretions
Roquefort: -curd inoculated with mould
-curd pierced to allow air entrance and support aerobic growth
-blue-veined cheeses undergo intense proteolysis contributing to strong flavour.
-Alkaline nature of mould-ripened cheese allows acid sensitive bacterial grouwth which contribute to flavour
Curd contamination: -post-pasteurization contamination since milk is not makd in a strictly sterile environment.
-employee handling
-pH (5-5.2) not sufficient
-Aw to high
What is CCP in unripened cheese storage safety: Refrideration
4 ways that spoilage can occur: -off flavour and texture or microbial contamination is too high.
-inadequate acidification may allow acid sensitive bacteria to produce gases.
-gases affect flavour and texture.
-competition with starters will impair ripening flavour.
Spoilage during ripening: -undesired flora will impact on texture, flavour and appearance.
-gas holes controled
-putrification if insuffient acidity is produced.
-pigments may develop if water used contains metal salts.
Spoilage of finished cheese: -perishabiliy increases with Aw
-hard cheese such as swiss and cheddar are most stable
- moulds are a primary spoilage organism.
Ripened cheese safety: -lactobacilli by products are antimicribial and destroy pathogens during ripening e.g. peroxidase
- acidification reduction of Aw to < 0.9 and antibiotic nature of by-products makes properly reipened cheese shelf stable
What is the most perishable of all the meats?: Fish
What does rapid autolysis mean?: fast acting enzymes
Produces less/more acid than beef?: less
Why does it produce less acid than beef?: Carbohydrates break down into acids and there are less carbs in fish.
Less acid in fish means what to the inhibition of bacterial growth?: means less inhibition (lower glycolysis)
Why are unsaturated oils more susceptable to oxidative racidity?: Double and triple bonds are more susceptable to binding with other things
Crustaceans have limited shelf life because of: increase protein level
For mulusks the higher the acid level the ____ the quality of molusk.: poorer
More carbs means more ____ and more ____: gycolysis, acids
Why do fish stink: high amines that break down
large number of volatile N2 compounds are found in what foods?: fish, crustaceans, mollusks
For fish where are most of the bacteria found?: outer slime, gills, intestines
Why are bivalves more susceptable to contamination?: filter feeders and concentrate contaminants
Why eviscerate fish?: enhance quality
any food in intestine will spoil.

-do as soon as possible becasue enzymatic activity can break down stomach into flesh.
what does the flora in fish reflect about the environment?: reflects the microbial content of the water in which they live
What is the relationship b/w heavy fat content and rancidity?: Heavy fat content makes it more oxidative rancidity
How can you get an indicator of age of fish?: smell
If indicator orgs are high then what is recourse?: legal action
Fecal pollution of aquatic environment lead to what types of contamination?: enteric bacteria
viruses, parasites
Natural aquatic environment flora: Pseudomonas
vibrios

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