Surgery Exam 3

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what is the substance that covers the crown of the tooth?: Enamel
What is the substance that covers the root of a tooth?: cementum
What is the substance that forms the interior and major portion of the tooth?: Dentin
Which substance(s)is the hardest? (Enamel, Cementum or Dentin): Enamel
What is the structure that holds a tooth in its socket and acts as a shock absorber?: Periodontal ligament
What is the gingival sulcus?: space between free gingiva and tooth
what is the normal sulcus depth in dogs and cats?: Dogs: 1-3mm
Cats: 0.5-1mm
When do deciduous teeth begin to erupt in puppies?: 3 weeks
what is the oldest age by which all deciduous teeth in puppies should be present?: 10 weeks
when do deciduous teeth begin to erupt in kittens?: 2 weeks
what is the oldest age by which all deciduous teeth in kittens should be present?: 6 weeks
what type of permenant tooth is not present as a decisuous tooth in puppies and kittens?: Primary Molars (or Molars)
In what order to deciduous teeth in puppies and kittens usually erupt?: incisors, canines, premolars
what is the dental formula for puppy deciduous teeth?: I3/3 C1/1 P3/3 (x2)

or

I3 C1 P3 (x2) and I3 C1 P3 (x2)
what is the dental formula for kitten deciduous teeth?: I3/3 C1/1 P3/2 (x2)

or

I3 C1 P3 (x2) and I3 C1 P2 (x2)
when do permanent teeth begin to erupt in puppies?: 3 months
What is the oldest age by which all permenant teeth in puppies should be present?: 7 months
when to permanent teeh begin to erupt in kittens?: 3 months
What is the oldest agy by which all permanent teeth in kittens should be present?: 6 months
what is the dental formula for adult teeth in the dog?: I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3 (x2)

or

I3 C1 P4 M2 (x2) and I3 C1 P4 M3 (x2)
what is the dental formula for adult teeth in the cat?: I3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M1/1 (x2)

or

I3 C1 P3 M1 (x2) and I3 C1 P2 M1 (x2)
how many adult teeth do dogs have?: 42
How many adult teeth do cats have?: 30
which adult teeth in dogs have three roots?: Max: P4, M1 and M2
Which adult teeth in cats have three roots?: Max: P4
Which adult teeth in dogs have two roots?: Max: P2, P3
Man: P2 P3 P4 M1 M2
which adult teeth in cats have two roots?: Max: P3
Man: P3 P4 M1
which teeth are called the carnassial teeth in dogs and cats?: Max: P4
Man: M1
What is the relationship of the mandible to the maxilla in an animal with a class II malocclusion (distoclusion)?: Mandibular teeth positioned distally to maxillary due to shortened mandibular
What is the relationship of the mandible to the maxilla in an animals with a class III malocclusion (mesioclusion)?: Mandibular positioned mesially to maxillary due to elongated mandibule or shortened maxilla
Give three reasons why small breed dogs are more prone to periodontal disease then are larger breed dogs?: Smaller mouths can overcrowd teeth, smaller dogs tend to not chew on toys as much as larger dogs, and smaller dogs are more often put on canned/semisolid diets
what is plaque? how long does it take to form? how is it most easily removeD?: A bacterial layer on teeth surfaces that forms 6-8 hours after pellicle forms, it's removed with a toothbrush
What is calculus (tartar)? how long does it take to form? how is it most easily removed?: When the bacterial layer begins to die and calcify in 3-5 days. Scraping will remove it.
Which tooth in the dog is most commonly fractured?: P4
What is the difference between gingivitis and periodontitis from the standpoint of reversibility?: Periodontitis is non-reversible
What is the measure of degree of periodontitis and how is it best assessed?: by bone loss through radiographs
What is the purpost of root debridement and subgingibal curettage in the treatment of periodontal disease?: Clean root surface and opposing gingiva
What is HESKA PERIOceutic gel? Where is it applied and what is its purpose?: A gel of doxycucline applied to periodontal pockets to assist healing and closing of pockets.
What is Porphyromonas Denticanis-Gulae-Salivosa Bactrin and for what is it used?: A vaccine used in healthy dogs as an aid in preventing canine periodontitis.
What are the two types of ultrasonic scaling units?: Magnetostrictive and piezoelectric
What portion of the insert in the hand piece of an ultrasonic scaler is placed against the tooth?: all but the back and sides
What is the time interval that an ultrasonic scaler should be used on a tooth at one time? Why?: 5-10 seconds because excess heat may damage the tooth
What two things should you do before using an ultrasonic scaler to remove subgingival calculus?: Make sure you have the correct tip and the power levels are correct
what is the low speed ahdn piece on a dental unit used for?: Subgingival scaling
What is the high speed hand piece on a dental unit used for?: Cutting and drilling teeth
Hand scalers are used to remove calculus on what part of the tooth?: crown
Curettes are used to remove calculus on what part of the tooth?: Subgingival calculus
for what is a periodontal probe used?: to determine depth of pockets
For what is a periodontal explorer used?: detect subgingival calculus, resorptive leasions and exposed pulp
dental elevators are used to break down what structure when extracting teeth?: periodontal ligament
how does one perform the bisecting angle technique for dental radiography?: beam angled perpendicular to film with intraoral film parrallel to pallate and mandible.
what radiographic artifacts does the bisecting angle technique minimize?: foreshortening and elongation
for which teeth is the bisecting angle technique recommended when performing dental radiography?: mandibular incisors and canine and all maxillary teeth
for which teeth is the parallel techinique recommended when performing dental radiography?: mandibular premolars and molars
What type of film is recommended for dental radiography to give optimum detail?: non-screen intraoral dental film
what is a dental prophylaxis?: procedures to remove calculus and stain from teeth and polish enamel
what are three potential complications that can occur when performing a dental prophylaxis?: injury to gingival tissues, damage to enamel and bacteremia
In what position should an animal be when a dental prophylaxis is performed?: lateral recombancy with head tilted downward
why is it important that an ET tube with a properly inflated cuff be used when performing a dental prophylaxis?: in case any water or bacteria does make it down the throat it won't get into the lungs
why should the technician wear a mask, goggles, and gloves when performing a dental prophylaxis?: aerosalized bacteria and debris can be hazardous
what is the time interval that each tooth should be polished at one time?: 5-10 seconds
What two products are routinely used on teeth at the end of a routine dental prophylaxis?: flouride treatment and oravet barrier sealant
what is the purpose of oravet barrier sealant?: to prevent plaque and calculus buildup
how often should clients brush the teeth of their dog or cat?: daily
what type of food most promotes the formation of dental tartar?: semi-moist
what type of food least promotes the formation of tartar?: dry
what does the term exodontics refer to?: extraction of teeth
What does the term endodontics refer to?: treatment of dental pulp
what is the most common indication for endodontics in dogs and cats?: fractured teeth
in what time frame should a vital pulpotomy be performed on a mature tooth?: within 48 hours
how does a standard root canal differ from a vital pulpotomy?: root canals remove all pulp while vital pulpotomy removes only dead pulp and disinfects living pulp
what is the purpose of restorative dentistry?: restore form and function and protection for tooth after endotonic treatment
what type of restorative provides the hardest material and is easiest to install?: Alalgam (silver alloys)
what type of restorative material is most commonly used in veterinary medicine?: composites (plastic)
what is the purpose of orthodontics?: to correct dental malocclusions class I
what advice should be given relative to breeding and showing animals that require orthodontic procedures?: stop showing and breeding because it is genetic
what tooth ismost prone to develop a tooth root abscess? what externalsymptom frequently accompanies this?: maxillary carnassial teeth, fractured teeth with exposed pulp
what is a feline odontoclastic resorptive lesion? what is the best treatment for this condition?: a progressive resorption of enamel, dentin and pulp until crown is lost. best treatment is extraction
what is feline lymphocytic plasmacytic stomatitis? what information should client be given relative to treatment of the condition? for what two disorders should cats with this condition be tested?: Cronic inflammation of oral mucosa. Its possibly due to an autoimmune disease. the animal should be checked for FeLV and FIV
What is the most common feline oral tumor?: squamous cell carcinoma
what is the most common canine oral tumor?: malignant melanoma
What two injectable local anesthetic agents are used most commonly in veterinary medicine?: Lidocaine (xylocaine) and Buprivicaine (marcaine)
What two topical local anesthetics are used most commonly for ophthalmic procedures in veterinary medicine?: tetracaine (pontocaine) and proparacaine (ophthaine)
what is the mechanism of action of local anesthetic agents?: blocks sodium channels in membrane
list the proper order in which sensation to heat, cold, pressure and pain are lost under local anesthesia?: pain, cold, head and then pressure
on what two areas of the body is topical application of local anesthetic most effective?: mucous membranes and cornea
what should be done to the skin before performing local anesthesia?: clip and use aseptic technique
in reference to infiltration local analgesia techniques, what is the difference between a nerve block and a line bloock?: a nerve block is an analgesic placed around a specific nerve while a line block is a ling of SQ analgesic placed proximal to area between area used and spine
what is the most common use of nerve blocks in small animal practice?: dental blocks
what is the most common use of line blocks in small animal practice?: declaw in cat
compare the differences inonset of action and duration of effect for ludocaine and bupivicaine: lidocaine has an almost immediate onset of action while it takes bupivicaine 20 minutes. lidocaine lasts an hour while bupivicaine lasts 4-6 hours
on what area of the body can surgical procedures using epidural analgesia?: abdomen, pelvis, tail, pelvic limbs and perineum
are dogs or cats at greater risk for damage to the spinal cord during administration of epidural anesthesia?: cats
what is the effect on heart rate and blood pressure if sympathetic blockade occurs when epidural analgesia is used on a patient?: vasodialation, hypotention, bradycardia, and decreased ventricular contractions.
what is the effect on respiration if cranial infiltration of the spinal cord occurs during epidural analgesia? why?: respiration is impaired because paralysis of intercostal muscles and diaphram occur
what should be done relative to patient position to help prevent side effects during epidural anesthesia?: elevate head
what is the effect of injecting a local anesthetic agent into a nerve?: temporary or permanent loss of function
what is the maximum SQ dose of lidocaine in dogs and cats?: dogs: 10 mg/kg
cats: 4mg/kg
what is the maximum SQ dose of bupivicaine in dogs and cats?: Dogs: 2 mg/kg
cats: 1mg/kg
epinephrine is often added to the local analgesic agent lidocaine to prolong its duration of effect. how does this drug prolong the duration of effect of lidocaine as a local analgesic agent?: epinephrine decreases absorption into the blood stream due to vasodialation
what is the difference between assisted and controlled ventilation?: assisted allows the animal to continue individual breaths while controlled does all the breathing for the animal
give an example of assisted ventilation: squeezing the bag every 5 minutes
what is the stimulus for inspiration in an animal (or person)?: CO2 levels raise and cause the respiratory center to initiate another breath
what happens if you bag a patient under inhalation anesthesia too frequently?: CO2 does not build up and spontaneous respirations do not occur
describe the process of gaining and relinquishing control of ventilation in an anesthetized patient: when you reduce vaporizer setting and assist breathing at 12-16/br/min for 3-5 minutes you gain control. in order to relinquish, you must reduce inspiration rate to 5 br/min until animal breathes spontaneously
give an example of a surgical procedure in which controlled ventilation is necessary: thoracic surgery
what is the most important thing that must be done for an animal when a neuromuscular blocking agent is used: you must control breathing for them
why is it not appropriate to use a neuromuscular blocker as the sole agent for surgical procedures?: because they have no anesthetic, analgesic or sedative effects
what is the effect on anesthetic monitoring when a neuromuscular blocking agent is used?: difficult to do because of absence of normal reflexes, jawtone and movement
what are the five steps in performing CPR: A- Airway (check if clear)
B- Breathing (make sure animal is breathing
C- Circulation (get heart pumping and check for blockages)
D- Drugs (administer as necessary)
E- ECG/Examination
how is step one most commonly and effectively accomplished in the hospital setting?: intubation
in what position should a patient be placed when performing CPR?: right lateral recumbancy
at what rate should an animal be ventilated when performing CPR?: 15-20 BrPM
at what rate should cardiac compressions be done when performing CPR?: 80-100/min
with what inflation pressure should an animal be ventilated when performing CPR using the cardiac pump technique: 20-30cm of H20
with what inflation pressure should an animal be ventilated when performing CPR using thoracic pump technique: 20-30cm of H2o
what is the proper pattern of bentilation and compre4ssion when performing CPR using the cardia pump technique: ventilate every 5th (to 15th) compression
what is the proper pattern of bentilation and compression when performing CPR using the thoracic pump technique: ventilate simultaneously with every 2nd compression
on what size animals are use of the cardia pump technique and the thoracic pump technique resprctively recommended?: Cardiac: <10Kg
Thoracic: >10Kg
how is the Jen Chung acupumcture philtrum point governor vessel 26 technique performed? what is its purpost?: use a 25-28G needle inserted into the bast of the midline of nasal philtrum to cause stimulated breathing
what anesthetic gas has been most associated with reproductive risks with long term exposure?: nitrous oxide
what is the most prudent recommendation for pregnant women relative to exposure to all anesthetic gases?: avoid them
what two anesthetic gases have been associated with hepatotoxicity in humans?: halothane and methoxyflurane
what three anesthetic gases have been associated with renal toxicity?: methoxyflurane, sevoflurane and NO2
which anesthetic gas has been associated with CNS effects in jumans?: NO2
what effects on the CNS may be sen with chronic exposure to high levels of all anesthetic gas?: decline in motor skills and short term memory
what is the single most important thing that can be done to minimize human exposure to waste antesthetic gas?: use a scavenger system
what is the difference btween an active and a passive scavenger?: active uses a suction vacuum, passes uses the positive pressure from the system
when should a chemical scavenger be replaced?: after 12 hours of use or when it gains 50g in weight
what is the maximum O2 flow rate at which a chemical scavenger is considered effecient?: 2L/Min
what three categories of injectable durgs used for anesthetic procudres are of greatest risk relative to accidental human exposure to small amounts?: potent opiods, cyclohexamines, and a-2 agnoists
in what location on the chest is the cardiac pump technique performed?: directly over the heart
in what location on the chest is the thoracic pump technique performed?: over the widest area of the thorax
what type of prep of the chest is done prior to performing internal cardiac massage?: rapid clip of thorax from dorsal to midline over 6th ICS and squirt with steril prep solution
what should be done relative to ventilations when entering the chest to perform internal cardiac massage?: stop ventilations
should shock dosages of IV fluids always be adminstered when performing CPR?: no, because you don't want to overload the animal with fluids
what is the rule of thumb for dosage of epinephrine (1:1000), lidocaine (2%) and atropine (0.5-0.6 mg/ml) to be administered during CPR for a non-anesthetic related arrest?: it should equal the bodyweight in Kg multiplied by 0.1
what change should be made to the dose and the concentration of epinephrine administered if the arrest occurs under isoflurane anesthesia?: dilute to 1:10000 and give 2/10 times the weight in Kg
what is teh initial drug of choice for CPR?: epinephrine
what is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation?: bretylium
what are dopamine and dobutamine? how are they administered?: positive inotropes taht are given by IV infusion
list six short term effect to personnel that result from exposure to anesthetic gas.: headache, fatigue, irritability, depression, muscle pain, drowsiness
what four body systems are considered most at risk for long term effect due to chronic exposure to anesthetic gas?: reproductive, liver, kidney and nervous system dysfunction.

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