Ground school 2

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What aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?: An aircraft in distress
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?: The aircraft on the left shall give way
What aircraft has the right of way over all other aircraft listed?: Glider
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is on the left the airplaneâ€™s position, which aircraft has the right of way?: The airship
Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?: Aircraft towing another aircraft
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision?: Both pilots should give way to the right
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft....: At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?: An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?: An altitude of 500 feet AGL except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer that what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?: 500 feet
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds which aileron positions should be used?: Aileron down on the side from which the wind in blowing
Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?: Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing
Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nose wheel equipped high wing airplane?: Quartering tailwind
Refer to figure 9, area A- How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?: Left aileron up, elevator neutral
Refer to figure 9, area B- How should the controls be held while taxiing a tail wheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?: Right aileron up, elevator neutral
Refer to figure 9, area C- How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tail wheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?: Left aileron down, elevator down
Refer to figure 9, area D How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?: Left aileron down, elevator down
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should...: Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?: Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain feature during flight?: All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use....: A series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degrees sector
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during a straight and level flight?: Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?: There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall....: Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) the pilot shall....: Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by: Blue omni directional lights
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is: Three white lights and on red light
A below glide slope indication from a tricolor VASI is: A red light signal
An above glide slope indication from a tricolor VASI is: An amber light signal
An on glide slope indication from a tricolor VASI is: A green light signal
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a: Pulsation red light
Refer to figure 48- Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is: On the glide slope
Refer to figure 48- VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is: Above the glide slope
Refer to figure 48- While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is...: Below the glide slope
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone then click it....: Five times
An airports rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates: That weather at the airport located in class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits....: Two quick white flashes between green flashes
How can a military airport be identified at night?: Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
Refer to figure 49- That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for....: Taxiing and takeoff
Refer to figure 49- According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?: Take offs may be started at position A on runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B
Refer to figure 49- What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?: A may be used for taxi and take off, E may be used only as an overrun
Refer to figure 49- Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a: Closed runway
Refer to figure 50- The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area...: Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately: 090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic
Refer to figure 50- Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing: Right hand traffic and Runway 18
Refer to figure 50- If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on....: Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right
Refer to figure 51- The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is...: Left-hand for runway 36 and right hand for runway 18
Refer to figure 51- The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the...: Southeast of the airport
Refer to figure 51- The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a: Right quartering head wind
Refer to figure 51- Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?: Left hand traffic on runway 36
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LaHSO) program?: Student pilots
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LaHSO) clearance?: Pilot in command
When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LaHSO) clearance?: When it will compromise safety
What is the CTAF.UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?: 122.8 MHz
When flying over Arrow-wood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than?: 2,000 feet AGL
On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?: 117.1 MHz
The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?: Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL
The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a...: Visual checkpoint used to identify position
The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is?: 20 feet
The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot and Audubon Lake varies from?: 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL
Which public use airports deplicted are indicated as having fuel?: Minot Intl. and Mercer County Regional Airport
The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton Evans County airport, and Ridgeline Airport are?: Visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Svannah Class C airspace
What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?: 1,549 feet MSL
The top group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 340* radial is?: 455 feet MSL
What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?: 1,273 feet MSL
What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the south east side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?: 1,403 feet MSL
The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is?: 126.0 MHz
What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Dear Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas?: 3,449 feet MSL
The navigation facility at Dallas Ft Worth International is a: VOR/DME
Pilots fly over a nation wildlife refuge are requested to fly...: No lower than 2,000 feet AGL
The width of federal airway from either side of the centerline is: 4 nautical miles
Unless otherwise specified, Federal airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from: 1,200 feet above the surface to and including 17,999 feet MSL
Normal VFR operation in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least?: 1,000 and 3 miles
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight lever?: 18,000 feet MSL
A blue segmented circle on a sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?: Class D
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only...: When the associated control tower is in operation
Unless otherwise authorized two-way radio communication with air traffic control are required for landing or takeoffs: At all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?: Class C
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?: Two-way radio communication equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter
What minimum pilot certificate is required for operation within class B airspace?: Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
What minimum pilot certification is required for operating within a class B airspace?: Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within class B airspace?: Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
An operable 4096-code transponder and mode C encoding altimeter are required in: Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the class B primary airport
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?: Class A
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from the clouds requirement for VFR flight is: 2,000 Feet
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?: 1-mile visibility and clear of clouds
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?: 3 miles
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is: 1,000 feet
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of...: 3 miles, and 500 feet below, or 1,000 feet above the clouds in a controlled airspace
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum flight visibility for VFR at night is...: 3 miles
Outside controlled airspace the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is...: 1 mile
During operations outside controlled aispace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 MSL the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is...: 500 feet
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is...: 5 miles
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL the minimum horizontal distance from the clouds required is...: 1 mile
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is...: 1,000
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the...: Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are...: 1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in class D airspace?: 1 mile flight visibility
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in class D airspace at night?: The pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped
No person may operate an airplane within class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the...: Airplane is equipped for instrument flight
With certain exceptions all aircraft within 30 miles of a class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with...: An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability
The floor of class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport north-northwest of Fort Worth meacham Field is...: 4,000 feet MSL
Identify airspace over Lowe Airport: Class G airspace surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL Class E airspace 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL
The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is: Class G airspace from the surface up to 700 feet AGL
The airspace overlying Mc Kinney is controlled from the surgace to: 2,900 feet AGL
What is the floor of the savannah Class C airspace at the shelve area?: 1,300 feet MSL
What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?: Mode C transponder and two way radio
The vertical limits of that portion of class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are...: 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL
The vertical limit of class C airspace above the primary airport is normally...: 4,000 feet AGL
The normal radius of outer area of class C airspace is...: 20 nautical miles
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area?: Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with...: All pilots
A non-tower satellite airport within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport requires radio communications be established and maintained with the...: Primary airportâ€™s control tower
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?: Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraftâ€™s position, the aircraft must have a...: VHF transmitter and receiver
Automatic Terminal Information Service is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning...: Non-control information in selected high activity terminal areas
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360* â€œ traffic 10 oâ€™clock 2 miles south boundâ€ where should the pilot look for this traffic?: Northwest
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying northing in a calm wind â€œtraffic 9 oâ€™clock 2 miles south boundâ€ Where should this pilot look for this traffic?: West
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as...: Safety alerts traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
TRSA service in the terminal radar program provides...: Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
When making routine transponder code changes pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?: 7500, 7600, 7700
Unless otherwise authorized if flying a transponder equipped aircraft a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?: 1200
Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft in Lincoln Municipal?: Sequencing to the primary Class C airport traffic advisories conflict resolution and safety alerts.
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot?: Is cleared to land
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be?: Steady RED
AN alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to?: Exercise extreme caution
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should?: Exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
(Refer to figure 28 on page 5-8) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?: 1030 MST
(Refer to figure 28 on page 5-8) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated uneversal time?: 1645Z
(Refer to Figure28) An aircraft departs an airport in the pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4- hour fight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?: 2230Z
(Refer to figure 21, area 3 on page 4-18.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck county airport?: Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position report in the traffic pattern
When flying HAWK N666CB the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is...: â€œMcAlester radio, hawk six six six Charlie Bravo receiving ardmore vortac overâ€
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is...: â€œFour thousand five hundredâ€
Prior to entering an airport advisory area a pilot should...: Contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories
After landing at tower-controlled airport when should the pilot contact ground control?: When advised by the tower to do so
If instructed by ground control to taxi to runway 9 the pilot may proceed....: Via taxiways and across runways to but not onto runway 9
When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter be replaced or recharged?: After one half the batteryâ€™s useful life
When may an emergency locator transmitter be tested?: During the first 5 minutes after the hour
An ATC clearance provides....: Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace
When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing initial communications should be with....: Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz
FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by...: Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office
Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are...: To the left on runway 17L, and runway 35L, to the right on runway 17R and runway 35R
The letters VHF/DF appearing in the airport/facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that...: The Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?: 70

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