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Chapter 12 MA

Terms

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When are you authorized to draw your weapon from your holster

1. As a bluff
2. When a minor offense has been committed
3. When its use is imminent and justified
4 Only at the end of the shift
3. When its use is imminent and justified
Warning shots may be fired in an attempt to halt a fleeing suspect

1. True
2. False
2. False
When it becomes necessary to fire at a suspect and you kill the individual, who must prove that the killing was justified

1. Those who witnessed the killing
2. The immediate senior to the Master-at-Arms who did the killing
3. The Mas
3. The Master-at-Arms who did the killing
Once a patrolman has a suspect handcuffed, he may relax just because the offender is wearing them

1. True
2. False
2. False
When you handcuff an offender who might become dangerous, where should the offender's hands be placed

1. Behind the neck
2. Behind the back
3. Under the knees
4. Under the buttocks
2. Behind the back
2. Rope
3. Chain
4. Straightjacket
1. Belt
What type of law prohibits you from handcuffing prisoners to vehicle fixtures

1. County
2. District
3. Federal
4. State
3. Federal
When you use an irritant on a suspect, which of the following conditions requires that he or she be taken to medical for immediate emergency treatment

1. Discharge of irritant at less than 2 feet into the suspect's face or eyes
2. The sus
4. All of the above
What type of weapon is the police baton

1. Defensive, nonagressive
2. Defensive, aggressive
3. Offensive, nonaggressive
4. Offensive, aggressive
1. Defensive, nonaggressive
What advantage(s) does the police baton have

1. It is constructed without weak points
2. It is easier to unsheathe
3. It is more suitable for riot control
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What is the lenght of a police baton

1. 18 in.
2. 24 in.
3. 26 in.
4. 36 in.
3. 26 in.
When should a policeman's baton be removed from its holder

1. When a show of force is necessary
2. When its use is intended
3.When the user is involved in riot control
2. When its use is intended
Which of the following areas would NOT be considered an approriate area to strike a suspect with a police baton

1. Upper solar plexus
2. Knee
3. Leg
. Arm
1. Upper solar plexus
When breaking a front body hold, what is accomlished by flexing your knees

1. Your opponent will be thrown off balance
2. Your opponent's hold will be broken
3. Your balance will be maintained
4. Your body's center of gravity wi
3. Your balance will be maintained
When your arms are pinned to your body, which part of an opponent's body should you strike to break a front body hold

1. Shin
2. Solar plexus
3. Groin
4. Thigh
3. Groin
Which of the following actions should you take to break a rear body hold

1. Stomp the instep of the offender
2. Flex your knees
3. Strike the offender in the groin
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Normally, the Master-at-Arms will use how many types of searches

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Why should you NEVER stand extremely close to an offender you are searching

1. The individual grab your gun
2. The individual can hear your order better from a distance
3. The individual's entire body should be within view
4. Yo
1. The individual might grab youy gun
When you are escorting an offender down a sidewalk, where should you have the offender walk

1. Between you and the street
2. Between you and the buildings
3. In front of you
4. In back of you
2. Between you and the buildings
After handcuffing a suspect, you should check the gap between the handcuff and the suspect's wrist. How much, if any, gap should you have

1. Approximately 1/8 in.
2. Enough so the tip of your index finger will slide through
3. Approx
3. Enough so the tip of your index finger will slide through
A male Master-at-Arms may search a female suspect's handbag, overcoat, or luggage

1. True
2. False
!. True
In what year was the Customs Inspection Regulation, DOD 5030.49-R enacted

1. 1971
2. 1972
3. 1973
4. 1974
3. 1973
What agency set a policy to eliminate the flow of drugs, narcotics, and other contraband into the United States

1. NIS
2. DOD
3. FBI
4. CIA
2. DOD
What authority within the DOD is assigned as the executive agent for the responsibility of customs inspection readiness

1. Department of the Army
2. Department of the Navy
3. Department of the Coast guard
4. Department of the Ai
1. Department of the Army
Which of the following personnel must be granted a waiver before becoming a military customs inspector (MCI)

1. GS-5
2. Officer
3. E-3
4. E-4
3. E-3
Which of the following is NOT a task for military customs inspector

1. Ensuring that customs violators are reported
2. Ensuring that all documentation they are responsible for accompanies all shipments
3. Collecting and accepting any
3. Collecting and accepting amy cash or duty payments
When would crewmembers of a military aircraft departing from overseas and going to the CTUS normally have a baggage inspection

1. Only in an emergency
2. Only if there is some suspicion of drugs in their possession
3. Just prior to t
3. Just prior to take off
Prior to the inspection and examination of passengers and crewmembers, what is the first thing a military customs inspector should do

1. Brief the individuals on their responsibiliies
2. Provide individuals with a custom declaration form<
1. Brief the individuals on their responsibilities
What form is used for clarifying explanation of exemptions

1. DD 1851
2. DD1852
3. DD 1853
4. DD 1854
4. DD 1854
Prior to inspection, what kind of remission should be set up for passengers and crewmen who have nonadmissible articles

1. Have an hour's briefing on the do's and dont's of contraband
2. Have an amnesty box readily available
2. Have
2. Have an amnesty box readily available
As an MCI, in which of the following situations may you conduct a physical examination on civilians prior to departure

1. There is probable cause
2. The civilian is accompanying military personnel
3. The civilian does not object
3. The civilian does not object
As an MCI examining a passenger's baggage you come accross some contraband. Which of the following actions should you take

1. Complete an incident report on the individual and confiscate the contraband
2. Give the suspect his or her right
3. Both 1 and 2 above
All civilian personnel traveling on DOD aircraft entering CTUS as a returnig resident must fill out what customs declaration forms

1. Customs form 5029
2. Customs form 5129
3. Customs form 5229
4. Customs form 5430
2. Customs form 5129
When entering CTUS as a returning resident importing duty-free articles, you cannot exceed the boundaries outlined in what DOD instructions

1. 1854
2. 5129
3. 5030.49-R
4. 5440.49-R
3. 5030.49-R
All articles inported in the CTUS are subject to custom duty unless they have been exempted by what authority

1. Cheif of transportation
2. Chief of logistics
3. Health inspector
4. Tariff laws
4. Tariff laws
Upon completion of the baggage inspection, what should the MCI do after authenticating the DD form 1854

1. Stamp the form and sign it
2. Return it to the passenger
3. Hold it until port of entry
4. Draw a red line across the for
1. Stamp the form and sign it
When a restricted article is found that is not declared on DD form 1854, what action should the MCI take

1. Reject the individual's baggage
2. Turn all the individual's baggage over to U.S.customs service at the point of entry
3. C
4. Draw a diagonal red line across the face of the form to call attention to U.S. customs
Personnel who have completed custom processing are required to go directly to what area

1. Embarking
2. Sterile
3. Departing
4. Staging
2. Sterile
Accompanied baggage in excess of immediate personal needs is normally inspected by an MCI how many days prior to unit departure

1. 1 to 2
2. 3 to 4
3. 5 to 6
4. 7 to 8
1. 1 to 2
What inspection is normally conducted under technical supervision of U.S. Customs and U.S. Department of Agriculture advisors

1. Local
2. U.S. Federal
3. Preclearance
4. Predeparture
3. Preclearance
After a thorough inspection on a crate scheduled for CTUS, what MCI (label) DD form should you immediately affix to the container

1. 1529
2. 1253
3. 1854
4. 5030
2. 1253
What customs declaration form may be used in an enclosed letter or parcel

1. PS form 2976-A
2. PS form 2966-A
3. DD form 1252
4. DD form 1252-1
1. PS form 2976-A
Military departments that operate ships and aircraft coming from overseas must comply with which of the following instructions

1. DOD 1854
2. DOD 5030.49-R
3. DOD 5129
4. DOD 5440.49R
2. DOD 5030.49-R
Some ships entering CTUS are exempt from a military customs inspection

1. True
2. False
2. False
The reason for a customs inspection on board ship prior to its entry into the CTUS from overseas is to preclude th introduction of contraband

1. True
2. False
1. True
At least how many MCI's are usually maintained onboard a ship

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
1. One
Aboard ship, who provides written certification to clearance officials that a customs inspection has been completed

1. Miliarty customs inspector
2. Commanding officer
3. Operations officer
4. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
An aircraft arriving from outside the CTUS with less than 3 hours flight time should notify the U.S. port of entry by radio as soon as possible after takeoff

1. True
2. False
1. True
Personnel must have been onboard a naval vessel continuously for at least how many days before they are considered to have served on extended duty overseas

1. 30
2. 60
3. 90
4. 120
4. 120
What form is used to import authorized privately owned firearms into the United States

1. DD form 3299
2. DD form 1348-2
3. ATF form 6
4. ATF form 13
3. ATF form 6
What authority is responsible for the training of MCI's at an overseas command

1. U.S. customs
2. Department of state
3. The overseas command
4. Department of Agriculture
3. The overseas command
Who is the point of contact for the issue and destruction of MCI stamps

1. Commander in Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet
2. Senior Customs Inspector, Norfolk, VA.
3. Type Commander
4. Squadron commander
1. Commander in Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet
What is/are the CMAA's responsibilities in regard to Shore Patrol and Beach Patrol

1. Training
2. Briefing
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Selecting personnel for these duties
3. Both 1 and 2 above
Which of the following instructions lists other shipboard duties for which of the CMAA is responsible

1. OPNAVINST 5580.1
2. OPNAVINST 5530.14
3. OPNAVINST 3120.32
4. OPNAVINST 3132.20
3. OPNAVINST 3120.32
When should the MA force tour berthig compartments

1. After taps
2. After reveille
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. During general quarters
3. Both 1 and 2 above
During general visiting, approximately how many visitors should be assigned to each guide

1. 3 to 5
2. 6 to 9
3. 10 to 15
4. 16 to 20
3. 10 to 15
Who is responsible for the zone inspection procedure

1. Chief engineer
2. First lieutenant
3. Executive officer
4. Damage control assistant
4. Damage control assistant
How long before getting under way should the MA force make an inspection of the ship for stowaways

1. 20 min
2. 30 min
3. 60 min
4. 90 min
2. 30 min
The MA force is responsible for which of the following safety duties

1. Act as roving inspectors
2. Assist the safety officer to keep the safety program working
3. Make internal reports concerning safety violations
4. All of the
4. All of the above
Civilians are allowed to attend burial at sea services aboard ships, aircraft, and auxillary craft

1. True
2. False
2. False
Who directs the pallbearers during the burial at sea service

1. CO
2. CMAA
3. A designated CPO
4. Command Master Chief
2. CMAA
How many flagbearers are used in cases where the remains have been cremated

1. Six
2. Two
3. Eight
4. Four
4. Four
When an enlisted person is incapacitated and can no longer care for personal belongings, who must be present during the collection inventory, and sealing of those belongings

1. An MA
2. The division officer
3. A divisional petty offi
4. All of the above
Who is responsible for the safekeeping and disposition of an incapacitated enlisted member's personal effects

1. The division officer
2. A divisional petty officer
3. The CMAA
4. The chaplain
3. The CMAA
For purposes of inventorying personal belongings, what is the classification of uniform clothing

1. Class five
2. Class two
3. Class three
4. Class four
2. Class two
4. Lucky bag items are in what category of personal effects

1. One
2. Five
3. Three
4. Four
4. Four
What should be done with objectional material discovered during an inventory of personal effects

1. Maintained with all other personal effects
2. Disposed of as directed by the CO
3. Turned over to the CMAA for safekeeping
4. Tu
2. Disposed of as directed by the CO
What publication contains detailed information concerning the handling and distribution of personal effects

1. OPNAVINST 3120.32
2. NAVSUP PUB 485
3. OPNAVINST 5530.14
4. NAVSUP PUB 584
2. NAVSUP PUB 485
Who is responsible for establishing an evacuation bill aboard ship

1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Operations officer
4. Supply officer
2. Executive officer
What authority is responsible for conducting a census of civilians evacuated from unfriendly shores

1. Supply officer
2. Executive officer
3. Chief Master-at-Arms
4. Administrative assistant
2. Executive officer
What mode of transportation may be used to transport civilians from unfriendly shores or a disaster area to the ship

1. Small boat
2. Helicopter
3. Fixed wing aricraft
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What evacuees are given preference when being issued life jacket

1. Children
2. Women
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Men
3. Both 1 and 2 above
Evacuees should be subsisted on separate messdecks at regular times

1. True
2. False
1. True
Where should evacuees be assigned during general quarters

1. On the messdecks
2. In the assigned berthing space
3. At a general quarters station
2. In the assigned berthing space
Who is responsible for the Prisoner of War bill

1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Administrative assistant
4. Chief Master-at-Arms
3. Executive officer

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