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MILITARY REQUIREMENTS 14145 CH 4

Terms

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The authority which is granted to
all officers and petty officers to
fulfill their duties and
responsibilities is known as what
type of authority?
1. General
2. Unlimited
3. Meritorious
4. Organizational
1. General
The authority that an individual
may hold by virtue of assignment to
a specific billet within an
organizational unit of the Navy is
known as what type of authority?
1. General
2. Unlimited
3. Meritorious
4. Organiz
4. Organizational
General responsibilities and duties
of all officers and petty officers
within the Navy.
1. Article 1020
2. Article 1023
3. Article 1037
4. Article 1132
3. Article 1037
The right to exercise authority
over all subordinate personnel.
1. Article 1020
2. Article 1023
3. Article 1037
4. Article 1132
1. Article 1020
As a petty officer you have the
authority to issue orders.
Subordinates are required to follow
your orders only if your orders are
1. lawful
2. given in harsh language
3. contain the reason why the
order should be carri
1. lawful
What article of the UCMJ allows
nonjudicial punishment to be
awarded?
1. Article 7
2. Article 15
3. Article 29
4. Article 134
2. Article 15
Which of the following personnel
has the authority to administer
nonjudicial punishment?
1. Chief petty officer
2. Petty officer who is E-6 and
above
3. Executive officer
4. Commanding officer
4. Commanding officer
Which of the following actions may
be taken to correct military
deficiencies in junior personnel?
1. Withhold privileges
2. Assign extra military
instruction (EMI)
3 . B o t h 1 a n d 2 a b o v e
4. Extend normal workin
3 . Both 1 and 2 above
Which of the following actions to
correct a military or professional
deficiency can be awarded only
through nonjudicial punishment?
1. Assign extra duty
2. Withhold privileges
3. Assign extra military
instruction (EMI)<
1. Assign extra duty
When EMI is assigned to correct a
military deficiency, which of the
following limitations normally is
observed?
1 . E M I i s a s s i g n e d i n f a v o r o f
awarding extra duty
2. EMI is assigned in periods not
to ex
2. EMI is assigned in periods not
to exceed 2 hours daily
The temporary withholding of
privileges is an effective tool in
correcting a minor infraction of a
military regulation. Which of the
following privileges CANNOT be
withheld as part of this
nonpunitive measure?
1. Exchan
2. Normal liberty
Which of the following persons has
the final authority to withhold a
p r i v i l e g e ?
1. Division chief petty officer
2. Work center supervisor
3. Commanding officer
4. Each of the above
3. Commanding officer
For which of the following reasons
would it NOT be appropriate for a
supervisor to extend an
individual’s normal working hours?
1. To complete additional
essential work
2. To complete a work assignment
that should hav
4. To perform work as punishment
for substandard performance of
d u t y
In which of the following
publications will you find the
description of the duties,
responsibilities, and authority of
a division officer?
1. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2. Tactical Action Off
1. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy
When making duty assignments such
as general quarters stations or a
cleaning station, who should be
assigned responsibility for that
duty?
1. A specific work center
2. A specific person
3. The department
4. The div
2. A specific person
As the LPO you are assigning a work
center supervisor to coordinate the
painting of a compartment. The job
is assigned poorly if which of the
following persons has (a) the
responsibility for the task and (b)
the authority to
4. ( a ) Y o u
( b ) y o u
An action or task required by one’s
position that is expected or
required by moral or legal
obligation is a duty. Duties fall
into which of the following
categories?
1. M i l i t a r y o n l y
2. Moral and military
4. Military and administrative
The ship’s watch organization is
second in importance only to the
organization for battle. Which of
the following personnel is/are
responsible for understanding the
watch organization?
1. Nonrated personnel only
2. Pe
4. All hands
The watch, quarter, and station
bill contains which of the
following assignments?
1. Messing assignments
2. Liberty boat assignments
3. Collision station assignments
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Who should approve changes to the
division’s watch, quarter, and
station bill?
1. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
3. Officer of the deck
4. Command duty officer
1. Executive officer
Billet numbers on the watch,
quarter, and station bill consist
of either four numerals or a letter
and three numerals. What do the
last two numerals indicate?
1. Section seniority
2. Division assigned
3. Watch precedenc
1. Section seniority
Responsibility for ensuring
division members are aware of their
watch, quarter, and station bill
assignments is delegated to which
of the following persons?
1. Division chief
2. Division officer
3. Division leading pett
2. Division officer
The watch, quarter, and station
bill should be updated at
approximately what minimum
frequency?
1. Continually
2. Quarterly
3. Monthly
4. Weekly
1. Continually
Which of the following management
tools should be used by the
division officer to maintain a
current watch, quarter, and station
b i l l ?
1. Battle bill
2. S h i p ’ s b i l l
3. Division notebook
4. Division of
3. Division notebook
Which of the following explanations
is a purpose of the general
emergency bill?
1. To provide detailed procedures
for every emergency that can
occur
2. To establish a plan for
salvaging captured enemy
vessels
4. Each of the above
Which of the following actions
should you immediately take if you
see one of your shipmates fall
overboard?
1. Notify the OOD
2. Call out, “Man overboard, port
(or starboard) side”
3. Provide lifesaving equipment to
4. All of the above
Which of the following officers is
responsible for the administration
of the CBR defense bill?
1. Safety officer
2. Division officer
3. CBR defense officer
4. Damage control assistant
4. Damage control assistant
Which of the following commands
must have an emergency destruction
b i l l ?
1. A deployable command
2. A command located outside the
United States
3. A command having COMSEC
m a t e r i a l
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Based on the emergency destruction
plan, you would destroy classified
material for which of the following
reasons?
1. If the material was obsolete
and of no further value to the
command
2. If the material was subject to
4. Each of the above
During the emergency destruction of
classified material, which of the
following material should be
destroyed first?
1. Secret COMSEC material
2. Top secret special access
material
3. Secret special access material
2. Top secret special access
material
PQS does not apply to which of the
following systems?
1. Surface to air systems
2. Torpedo firing systems
3. Nuclear propulsion systems
4. Coast Guard weapons systems
3. Nuclear propulsion systems
Each personnel qualification
standard is divided into which of
the following subdivision(s)?
1. Systems
2. Fundamentals
3. Watchstations/Maintenance
actions
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Serves as a self-study aid for the
trainee.
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300
1. 100
Tests the trainee’s readiness to
perform a designated task.
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300
3. 300
Breaks the subject equipment into
smaller, more easily understood
s e c t i o n s .
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300
2. 200
Addresses specific or unique safety
precautions.
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300
2. 200
PQS should be considered as a
separate program with its own
distinct managerial system.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Sign-off authority for final PQS
qualification may be delegated to
what minimum level of authority?
1. Division CPO
2. Department head
3. Division officer
4. Work center supervisor
2. Department head
Recommends interim qualification of
watch standers.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head
4. Department head
Designates in writing those
individuals authorized to act as
q u a l i f i e r s .
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head
1. Commanding officer
Acts as an overall training
supervisor.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head
2. Executive officer
Responsible for ordering all
departmental PQS material.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head
3. PQS coordinator
Responsible for maintaining PQS
software.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head
3. PQS coordinator
Recommends final qualification to
the commanding officer.
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. PQS coordinator
4. Department head
4. Department head
The enlisted service record
contains both official and
unofficial papers.
1. True
2. False
1. True
The actual service record is
contained on which of the following
side(s) of the enlisted service
record?
1. L e f t
2. R i g h t
3. Both 1 and 2 above
2. R i g h t
Personnel Advancement Requirements
(PARs) must be completed before you
can participate
1. in the PQS program
2. as a proper watchstander
3. in the Navywide advancement
exam
4. as the divisional training
petty offic
3. in the Navywide advancement
exam
Navywide advancement exams are
based on which of the following
standards?
1. PQS standards
2. PMS standards
3. Naval standards
4. Occupational standards
4. Occupational standards
Which of the following
commissioning programs provides the
Navy with officers who are
technical specialists in their
f i e l d s ?
1. Limited Duty Officer Program
2. Chief Warrant Officer Program
3. Enlisted Commissioni
2. Chief Warrant Officer Program
What maximum number of years’
active service can a master chief
petty officer serve and still be
eligible to apply for the Chief
Warrant Officer Program?
1. 24 years
2. 20 years
3. 16 years
4. 12 years
1. 24 years
Which of the following officer
programs does/do not require a
college education?
1. Officer Candidate School
Program
2. Chief Warrant Officer Program
3. Limited Duty Officer Program
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
Which of the following personnel
may apply for the Chief Warrant
Officer Program?
1. E-6, regular Navy, with 18
years of active service
2. E-7, Naval Reserve, with 10
years of Reserve service
3. E-8, Regular Navy, with
4. E-9, Training and
Administration of Reserves
(TAR), with 22 years of service
Personnel who apply for the CWO
Physician’s Assistant Program must
be graduates of only the Basic
Hospital Corps School.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following personnel
may NOT apply for the Limited Duty
Officer Program?
1. E-7 with 8 years of active
s e r v i c e
2. E-8 with 14 years of active
s e r v i c e
3. E-9 with 15 years of active
s e r v i
3. E-9 with 15 years of active
s e r v i c e
If you are a PO1 applicant for LDO
and have met all requirements of
CPO/SCPO applicants, which of the
following additional requirements
must you meet?
1. Have a final multiple score
(FMS) equal to or greater than
the lo
1. Have a final multiple score
(FMS) equal to or greater than
the lowest FMS for PASS
SELECTION BOARD ELIGIBLE
What minimum active service
obligation must ECP selectees have
before detaching from their present
command?
1. 6 years
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. 4 years
1. 6 years
ECP selectees must have finished
sufficient undergraduate course
work to be able to complete
requirements for a technical degree
within what maximum length of time?
1. 36 months
2. 48 months
3. 50 months
4. 60 mont
1. 36 months
Which of the following
commissioning programs requires
that you have at least a
baccalaureate degree?
1. Enlisted Commissioning Program
2. Limited Duty Officer Program
3. Officer Candidate School
Program
4. Chief W
3. Officer Candidate School
Program
Which of the following courses
is/are recommended for an
individual preparing for LDO
s e l e c t i o n ?
1. Navy Regulations
2. Human Behavior
3. Watch Officer
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Quarters for muster and inspection
are held each work day just before
1. 0600
2. 0700
3. 0800
4. 0900
3. 0800
Navy Regulations requires the
clothing of all nonrated personnel
to be inspected at what interval?
1. Annually
2. Semiannually
3. At regular intervals
4. At irregular intervals
3. At regular intervals

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