BLUE CDC

Start Studying!

Terms

undefined, object

copy deck

When using a drill, the FIRST thing to do is.....: make sure the diameter of the hole to be drilled is within the capacity of the drill
Which article(s) of saftey gear MUST be worn when using a bench grinder?: Eye or face protection
Which diameter (in inches) electric saw blade is the MOST COMMON found in maintenance activities?: 8
An electric saw's blade MUST be operating at what speed before it contacts the material being cut?: Full
How many pounds per square inch (psi) of clean, dry air are required at the tool end of the air hose to ensure safe and efficient operation of the tool?: 90
Which pneumatic impact tool is designed for installing or removing nuts and bolts?: Wrench
At what variation in pounds of pressure, while using an impact wrench, can the excess pressure become serious?: 5
How many people should coordinate (spot) the lifting operation?: One person only
What is the MOST COMMON type of sling used in your everyday job?: Wire rope
Hoist hooks MUST be replaced when they have more than: 15% in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10 degrees twist from the plane.
When using a sling NEVER...: inspect the sling by passing your bare hand over the body of the sling.
Which tester is used in the maintenance of the AIM-7F missiles?: AN/PSM-37
The common practice that applies to ANY meter is always...: verify that power is off when connecting the meter
Which tester is a stable precision instrument designed primarily for the testing of solid-fuel rocket motor igniter bridge wire circuitry?: 101-5BFG
The steering system on the MHU-141/M trailer has a turning radius of: 200 inches
What is the MAXIMUM load capacity of the MHU-110/M trailer?: 15,000
Of the following, which munition is not transported using the MHU-110/M: CBU-87/B, AIM-9M, MK82, M117: AIM-9M is not transported using the MHU-110
The parking brake on the MHU-110/M trailer affects how many wheels?: Four inboard rear wheels.
What is the MAXIMUM capacity of a pair of rail extender assemblies used with the MHU-110/M?: 3,000 pounds
How many trolley and chock assemblies are supplied with the MHU-110/M?: 20 trolleys and 40 chocks
How many openings are on the deck of the MHU-226 trailer?: 3
What ensures the smooth transfer of HCU-6/E pallets from a rollerized trailer to an aircraft/K-loader?: An adjustable ramp
The moving of munitions and weapons from one base to another, depot to base, or base to depot is called...: a logistical movement
Movement to support on-base operations to or from the flight line is called...: an operational movement.
Prior to any operation involving a van (closed) trailer, you MUST ...: ensure that automatic heating and refrigerating devices are rendered inoperative.
The purpose of the transport beam beneath the lift arm assemblies on the MJ-1 series lift truck is to...: provide added support to relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift arms in carrying loads for long distances.
What is the lifting capacity of the MJ-1?: 3,000 pounds.
When using MJ-1 lift truck extension lift arms, you immediately...: reduce its lifting capacity by 800 pounds.
What is the lifting capacity of the MHU-83 series lift truck?: 7,000 pounds.
When releasing the accelerator pedal on a vehicle driven with a hydrostatic transmission, the ...: unit coasts to a stop very quickly.
What are the MINIMUM and MAXIMUM frame-width adjustments of the MHU-83 B/E?: 70 inches; 140 inches.
How do you adjust the yaw on the MHU-83 B/E?: Hydraulically.
The purpose of the azimuth control on the MHU-83 series lift truck is that it allows for...: left and right movement of the boom assembly.
What is the warm-up period for the glow plugs on diesel-engine-equipped lift trucks?: 30-60 seconds
What is the rated capacity of air per minute needed for the MC-7 air compressor to discharge 100 psi of pressure?: 125 cubic feet
The MC-7 air compressor is designed for...: general maintenance
The diesel model of teh MC-7 air compressor is capable of operating up to...: 8 hours at a time without refueling.
What is the PRIMARY difference between a bobtail and a pickup?: The bobtail's back end was shortened by about one-half.
The unique and handy feature of the bobtail truck's center pintle hook is that it can be unpinned and ....: moved in, out, or sideways for ease of trailer hookup.
What is the MAXIMUM tow capacity of the bobtail towing support equipment?: 40,000 pounds
The MAXIMUM towing speed of the bobtail while towing equipment is...: 15 MPH
Do NOT energize the starter on a cargo truck for more than...: 30 seconds
What is the MAXIMUM tow capacity of the MB-4 aircraft towing tractor?: 140,000 pounds
What should you do if the differential shift lever of the MB-4 aircraft towing tractor is difficult to shift?: Drive forward or backward a short distance, stop, and attempt to shift the lever.
Which position should the differential shift lever be while driving the MB-4 towing tractor on dry road surfaces?: Unlocked.
While driving the MB-4 towing tractor on adverse (slippery) road surfaces, in what position should the differential shift lever be?: Locked
To ensure proper mating when backing a tractor to mate with a trailer, the fifth wheel of the tractor MUST be in exact line with the ...: kingpin on the trailer
Which procedure is NOT required when demating a tractor and trailer?: Set the semitrailer hand-brake lever
Which forklift has the solid front axle and a pivot pin that allows the front end to pivot when turning the steering wheel, making it very dangerous when climing in or out?: Adverse-terrain forklift
What is the MAXIMUM reach of the variable-reach forklift with the forks elevated at 45 degrees?: 15 feet
What is the MAXIMUM speed limit of a forklift when operating around aircraft?: 5mph
When may unfuzed loaded weapons be transported on the tines of a forklift?: When the weapons body is strong enough to prevent damage and is long enough to be transported safely.
Which type of forklift has a "dead-man" switch that can be operated from the driving position?: Electric
When can you stan you store powered equipment in a building with explosives: Only in fire-resistive buildings and such equipment is essential to day-to-day operations
What is the MAXIMUM number of rounds the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) drum can hold?: 2,100
Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) houses a remaining indicator window that provides the means to visually determine the approximate number of rounds in the unit?: Outer drum
Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) provides the means to load live rounds into the aircraft gun system?: Interface unit
What is counted by the three counters on the interface unit of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) record during load/download operations?: Live rounds loaded Spent cases downloaded Cleared rounds downloaded
What is the inspection cycle for the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher?: Every 30 days when in use and annually when in storage
Which subassembly on the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher prevents accidentally loading a spent cartridge into the loader assembly?: Empty spece preclusion device
What tool can initate cycling ammunition through the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher manually?: 1/2 - inch speed wrench
What happens to the unfired rounds returning from the loader during the processing of linked ammunition?: Automatically downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher
Which 30 mm cannon is internally mounted in the A-10 aircraft?: GAU-8/A
During in shop maintenance, 30 mm ammunition loading assembly power comes from the...: GFU-8/E
Which 30mm ammunition loading system is used to service the GPU-5/A gun pod?: GFU-10/E
How many MHU-110/M trailers are needed to transport one A/E23K-3 munitions assembly conveyor?: 1
What is the approximate area required to assemble the A/E32K-3?: 50x100 feet
Which component of the A/E32K-3 munitions assembly conveyor can be used as a forklift adapter to raise the gantry to full height?: Interface control board
The triple bomb bar is fitted with bomb slings and is used with each hoist to provide for lifting...: three 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munition items
Which technical order (TO) covers the rapid-assembly and inspections procedures of nonnuclear munitions: 11A-1-63
When packing up the Munitions Assembly Conveyour (MAC) why is it important to cap the ends of the air hoses?: To keep foreign materials from damaging them.
Which component of the munitons assembly conveyor (MAC) is disassembled LAST?: Gantry
What is the requirement for operators of vehicles and equipment used in transporting and handling explosives?: Must be trained, tested, and properly informed of the hazards involved.
What is the preferred mode of the general transportation of explosives?: Cargo-type trucks and truck-tractor-drawn semitrailer
The purpose of placarding explosives-laden vehicles is to provide...: a general warning to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance.
Which publication is used in addition to the Joint Hazard Classification System to determine the explosive hazard class and division of a specific munitions item?: TO 11A-1-46
You are tasked to transport packages to the flight line that contain items in hazard class/divisions 14.C and 1.3C which placard(s) would be the MOST APPROPRIATE for this movement?: 1.3C
Your are tasked to transport packages to the flight line that contain 500 pounds of compressed gas and 1,000 pounds of flammable gas. Which placard(s) is/are the MOST APPROPRIATE for this movement?: Dangerous
What is the LOWEST level in the chain of command that is authorized to interpret TO 11-1-38?: Munitions flight chief
Where in TO 11-1-38 do you find information on reproducing the technical order (TO) to meet local needs?: Introduction
Even though TO 11-1-38 has its own saftey section, with which direction must you still comply when transporting bombs to the flight line?: AFMAN 91-201 (Explosives Safety Standards) and the specific item TO
What is the MAXIMUM load capacity of GBU-12s on the MHU-141/M trailer?: 4
What precaustion MUST be taken when handling GBU-15(V)/Bs?: Ensure that the protective dome cover is in place
What is the lug position for SUU-25s on an MHU-141/M trailer?: All lugs pointed up.
What is the approximate positioning of the first CNU-300 series container loaded on the MHU-141/M trailer?: 18 inches from the front of the trailer with the projectiles facing the rear.
What is the MAXIMUM load capacity of AIM-9Xs using M-10 adapters on the MHU-141/M trailer?: 10
What is the MAXIMUM load capacity of AIM-7s using the M-10 adapter on the MHU-141/M trailer?: 8
How are two GBU-15s positioned ont he MHU-110/M trailer?: They are positioned nose to tail.
What is the lug position for cluster bombs on MHU-110/M trailer?: all lugs pointed up
What MUST be done with the lids of the NCU-300 series containers that are NOT secured during transportation?: Route a tie-down strap over the tops of all containers and secure to tie-down rings
What is the lug position for general-purpose bombs on a 40-foot trailer?: Either all lugs up or all lugs down.
What is constructed and attached to the bed of a 40-foot trailer to facilitate support of rouded munitions?: Wooden Rails
How are items identified as being nuclear certified?: Positive identification by a nameplate or label
When using MB-1 chain assembliees to tie down nuclear weapons, you are required to tighten the chain until you CANNOT deflect the chain more than how much of an inch with nominal hand pressure?: 3/4
The CGU-1/B web-strap tie-down assembly has a rated working load capacity of....: 5,000 pounds
How many CGU-1/B straps are you authorized to use for one MB-1 tie-down assembly?: 2
How do you extend the CGU-1/B strap?: Release the adjusting mechanism; pull the strap
Many nuclear weapon bolsters are designed with an attachment point for a tow bar, but one EXCEPTION is the...: H1125
How many miles can a "maneuverable" bolster be towed over hard surfaces before a "bare hand" test of the casters is required?: 2
If a container is rated "roadable," you can tow it at speeds up to...: 20 mph over primary roads
The KEY factors to consider during a nuclear weapons movement are...: safety and security
Which term describes the type of area used during a delay of an off-base shipment involving nuclear weapons?: National defense
What code word is used when a Department of Energy (DOE) convoy seeks sanctuary during an emergency?: Safe Haven
What IMT is used to transfer custody of missile warheads?: AF IMT 514
When are nuclear weapons moved by convoy?: All weapons movements are by convoy
What is the requirement for military explosives?: The raw materials must be cheap.
The rate of transofrmation for high explosives is between....: 3,200 and 28,000 feet per second
The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called...: deflagration
What is the final effect of deflagration under confinement?: Detonaion
What are the basic components of an explosive train?: Dentonator, booster, and a bursting charge
What does a booster do?: Detonates the main charge.
How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb?: Use a time action HE train.
In the explosive train, where can you find the delay?: Ahead of the detonator
What effect does more damage than the fragmentation effect of a specific bomb?: Blast
How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?: Increase the standoff distance.
For what do we use a shaped charge?: To produce an explosive penetration of a solid object
The penetrating action of a shaped charge is the result of the....: shock wave and a jet of dense gas.
Besides their purpose, what else do we use to classify rockets?: Warhead filler
How do we identify practice warheads?: By a light blue body and white markings
Where do you stand while loading a rocket into a launcher?: Either side of the launcher
What is the hazard associated with a flechette warhead?: Fire
The main types of fuze action are impact, time, and ...: proximity
Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?: Nose only
When is a bomb fuze considered to be armed?: When the next normal even will initiate a functioning of the fuze.
In an electronically timed fuze, what replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?: Electric charging assembly
The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arminig heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?: Cotter pins.
How do you set the firing delay times in an M904 mechanically timed nose fuze?: Change the delay element
The FMU-54 series fuzes are used in ....: retarder-equipped general-purpose bombs
With electrical fuzes, what is used in place of arming wire?: Battery-firing device
What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-139A/B fuze?: FZU-48/B initiator
Which sensor is a radio-frequency radar ranging system used with the SUU-64/B and the SUU-65/B dispensers?: FZU-39/B
Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst setting built into the fuze at the time of its manufacture?: FMU-113/B
What is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M-series bomb?: Adapter booster
Which fin provides a stabilized flight and a "high drag" option for the M117 bomb?: MAU-91
What air-inflatable retarder is used on the MK82 bomb?: BSU-49/B
What air-inflatable retarder is used on the MK84 bomb?: BSU-50
The BLU-109/B is a: 2,000 penetrator bomb
The BLU-109/B augments or replaces the....: MK84
What type of bomb is a BLU-119?: 4,000 pound penetrator
The FMU-143 series fuze is normally the only fuze used with the.....: BLU-109
What is the M129 bomb used for?: To persuade the enemy to surrender
In external appearance, the M129E2 leaflet bomb is similar to the...: M117, 750 pound bomb
What weapon type is simulated by the BDU-38/B: B61 nuclear bomb
What is the purpose of the CCU-11/B cartridge in the BDU-38/B practice shape?: Deployss the deployment tube assembly and parachute
What is the only difference between the CBU-87/B and the CBU-87A/B: The A/B has the live FZU-39/B sensor installed
THe CBU-89 is physically the same as the...: CBU-87 cluster bomb
The major physical difference between the CBBU-87 and the CBU-89 is the....: CBU-89 does not have canted fins.
Which proximity sensor is used with the CBU-89/B?: FZU-39/B
How many projectiles are contained in each BLU-108/B submunition?: 4
Which dispenser does the CBU-97 cluster bomb use?: SUU-66
Which proximity sensor is used with the CBU-97/B: FZU-39/B
The CBU-103/B is converted to a wind-corrected munitions dispenser (WCMD) from what cluster bomb unit? (CBU)?: CBU-87/B
The CBU-89A/B wiith a wind-corrected munitions dispenser kit turns into a...: CBU-104A/B
Which wind-corrected munitions dispenser compoonent cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight?: Control actuation assembly
How is the incendiary composition initiated in the 20 mm armor-piercing incendiary (API) round?: Impact
Which 20 mm round carries the M505 point-detonating fuze?: High-explosive incendiary
What part of the 20 mm projectile imparts spin and stabilizes it in flight?: rotating band near the base.
What is the arming delay distance for the M505 fuze?: 10-35 feet
The identifying information on a 20 mm round of ammunition is marked on the...: side of the projectile
How may the electric primer in 20 mm ammunition be fired accidentally?: Static electricy
What is the purpose of the ignition booster in the 25 mm round?: Ensure consistent propellant ignition.
How can you tell a 25 mm dummy cartridge from other 25 mm rounds?: The dummy cartridge projectile is nonseparable and the total cartridge is gold in color
When 25 mm ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds may you expect to find in a CNU-405 container?: 80-100
How is ignition from the primer carried to the propellant in a 30 mm target practice round?: The primer ignites a flash tube, which ignites the propellant
What fuze is used in the 30 mm high-explosive incendiary ammunition?: M505A3
What holds the ball rotor of the 30 mm fuze in an unarmed position until its fired?: Lock ring.
How is 30 mm ammunition identified?: Color coding, part number, lot number, and model number
How many part numbers may you find an 30 mm armor-piercing incendiary-tracer, high-explosive incendiary, and target practice rounds?: 1 or 2
How do we classify 40 mm ammo?: By the type of projectile
What is the easiest way to describe the 40 mm multiple projectile M576E1 round?: A 40 mm shotgun shell
What is the minimum arming distance from the launcher muzzle the 40 mm, M384, high-explosive round travels before it arms?: 60 feet
How long does the red tracer composition burn in the 40 mm AAA, armor-piercing tracer round?: 12 seconds
The 105 mm, smoke, white phosphorous round burster charge is loaded with...: tetryl
What are the components of the 105 mm round?: Cartridge case, propellant charge, primer, and projectile
How many 105 mm rounds are packed in the PA71 container?: 39
How many point-detonating M577 fuzes are packed per wire-bound crate?: 16
What are countermeasure flares designed to do?: Divert enemy aircraft infrared/head-seeking missiles from friendly aircraft
How is an ALA-17 series flare ignited?: By an electric squib ignition assembly
Which component is part of the ALE-50 towed decoy system: Launch controller
Which flare is a kinetic decoy rocket used in the advanced strategic and tactical infrared expendable flare system?: MJU-47/B
Which impulse cartridge does the RR-170 chaff cartridge use?: BBU-35/B
What dispenser is used to dispense the RR-170/180 chaff cartridges on the A-10 or the C-130?: MJU-11/A
What do the calibrated markings on the face of the LUU-2A/B flare indicate?: Feet of fall before flare functioning
What is the MAXIMUM number of flares the SUU-25E/A dispenser may carry?: 8
What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU-25E/A dispenser?: ARD 863-1
What are initiators designed to do?: Suppy gas pressure to operate other cartridge-activated devices
Electric squibs are designed similar to....: blasting caps
How are impulse cartridges initiated?: Electrically.
Fore factors control the visibility of pyrotechnics: Candlepower, color, weather, and ______: light
Name the two types of effects for signals: Light and smoke.
What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN-MK13 signal?: Smoke and flare
How long does the safety fuse burn before igniting the powder charge on an M116A1 simulator?: 5 to 10 seconds
What is the LARGEST caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms"?: Caliber .50
What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?: The wad can cause injury.
What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?: Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant
What does the cartridge case do?: It expands, seals, and prevents the escape of gases to the rear when the weapon is fired
Name the three classifications of Air Force grenades: service, practice, and training
What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?: Composition B
What is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?: Black powder
Which chemical filler is used in the AN-M8 smoke grenade?: Hexachloroethane
How far behind an M18A1 mine should personnel take cover before they fire it?: 100 meters
What mortar has a short range and a small explosive charge?: Light mortar
What mortar requires a truck or tracked mortar carriers to move them?: Heavy mortar
What do we use to detonate high explosives?: Blasting caps
What is the most common color of military safety wire?: Green
Which type of guidance system is also known as TELEVISION GUIDED?: Electro-optical
Which type of guidance system is so successful it is used on air-to-ground missiles and general-purpose (GP) guided mobs?: Television
Which tracking energy gives the pilot a greater stand-off distance?: Global positioning system (GPS)
In which type of guidance system does the weapon send out the tracking energy?: Active
Which type of precision-guided munitions (PGM) homes in on energy reflected off the target by another source?: Semi-active
The purpose of the fixed control surfaces are used on guided munitions is to...: stabilize the weapon in flight
The purpose of teh movable control surfaces used on guided munitions is to...: steer the weapon to the target
What is required before an air-to-ground guided munitions fuze will detonate?: an electrical impulse
What type of rocket motor propellant is used in air-to-air missiles?: Solid
Which air-to-ground guided munitions has the capability to shut off the rocket motor (R/M) and separate it fromt he warhead?: AGM-130
What components make up the guided-bomb unit (GBU) -12 laser guided bomb (LGB)?: MK82, MXU-650 AFG, and the MAU-169 or MAU 209 CCG
What components make up the guided bomb unit (GBU)-10 laser guided bomb (LGB)?: MK84 or BLU-109, MXU-651 AFG, and the MAU-169 or MAU-209 CCG
The MAU-169 series computer control group (CCG) consists of a detector, ___, ______: computer, and control section
What compoenets make up the guided-bomb unit (GBU)-24 low-level laser guided bomb (LLLGB)?: MK84 or BLU-109, BSU-84/B AFG, and WGU-12 or WGU-39 GCU
What does the seeker platform assembly do in the WGU-12/WGU-39 series guidance control unit (GCU)?: It "looks" for the reflected laser light signal
Which tester do we use for field testing all laser guided bomb (LGB) computer control groups (CCG)?: Digital test set TTU-373
What work package (WP) contains procedures for testing a laser guided bomb (LGB) computer control group (CCG)?: WP 080 00
For what do we use the wing actuating tool?: Opening/closing the wings
What fuze is used with the guided-bomb unit (GBU)-15(V)33/B and GBU-15(V)34/B: FMU-143/B
What warhead is used with the guided-bomb unity (GBU)-15(V)1/B and GBU-15(V)2/B?: MK84 2,000 pound bomb
What type of guidance system does the air-to-ground missiles (AGM)-130A-1 use?: Television
Which munitions item does the air-to-ground missile (AGM)-130A series use as a warhead?: MK84
How is the propulsion section attached to the air-to-ground missile (AGM)-130 missile?: Through a breakaway umbilical connector and cable
What test system do we use to check out the guided-bomb unit (GBU)-15 and the air-to-ground missile (AGM)-130?: AN/GJM-64
Which test set comes in six portable containers and is used on the flightline to check out the laser-guided bombs (LGB)?: An/GJM-65
What general purpose (GP) bomb does teh guided-bomb unit (GBU)-31(V)1/B use at its warhead?: MK-84
What guided-bomb unit (GBU)-31 component(s) provide lift and maneuverability?: Aerosurfaces
What type of warhead does the guided-bomb unit (GBU)-39 use?: Advanced penetrator
How many small diameter bombs (SDB) can the CNU-660/E container hold?: 4
When you receive the guided-bomb unit (GBU)-39 back from the flightline unopened what must you perform?: Returned munitions inspections (RMI)
Which air-to-ground weapon comes from the manufacturer as an all-up-round?: AGM-154
Which version of the join standoff weapon (JSOW) carries the BLU-109 submunitions and against what type of target is this version used?: AGM-154B, for use againsted hardened-armor targets
Which test set is sometimes called the commons munitions built-in test/reprogramming (CMBRE)?: AN/GYQ-79
Which CMBRE component intiates the built-in test (BIT) and get systems and munition status, reprograms munitions operational flight programs? (OFP), and loads mission planning and global position system (GPS) crypto keys?: Test adapter unit
What type of guidance system does the air-to-ground missile (AGM)-65D missile employ?: Imaging infrared (IIR)
What is installed ont he training guided missile (TGM)-65 missile in plance of the rocket motor (R/M) and hydraulic activation system (HAS) unit?: Film recorder or ballast
What is housed in the forward section of the AGM-65D?: Guidance unit (GU)
What is the purpose of the AN/DSM-129 missile test set?: To project and optical image into the guidance section of the missile to test the operational readiness of the missile
In the direct current (DC) (Battery) mode, from what source of power does the AN/DSM-129 missile set operate?: Its own batteries
You can use the AN/DSM-157 test set in place of: Both the DSM-99 and DSM-100
The type of guidance system the air-to-ground missile (AGM)-88 (HARM) uses is passive...: Broadband RF tracker
The air-to-ground missile (AGM)-88 rocket motor consists of the solid propellant, igniter, safe and arm (S&A switch, and ...: connector
What is the effective range of the air-to-ground missile (AGM)-88?: 30 miles
What is the USAF's delivery platform for the Hellfire missile?: Predator unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV)
In what group would you find the electronic safe and arm (S&A) unit, thermal battery, and pneumatic accumulator?: Control interface group.
What type of missile guidance system does the air intercept missile (AIM)-7 use?: Semi-active continuous wave pulse Doppler (PD)
What is the approximate net explosive weight (NEW) of the WAU-10B warhead used in the air intercept missile (AIM)-7F missile?: 26 pounds
How many locking screws are required to secure each air intercept missile (AIM)-7 missile assembly joint?: Eight
The purpose of the AN/DSM-162 missile test set is to perform operational tests on the....: Air intercept missile (AIM)-7 missile
What unit of the AN/DSM-162 MTS furnishes pressure to operate the missile wing-positioning system and the antenna-positioning system?: Hydraulic/pneumatic unit, HD-1125/DSM-162
The air intercept missile (AIM-9L/M missile is comprised of the guidance control section (GCS), target detector (TD), warhead,.....: safe and arm device (S&A), and R/M
To what pressure do we recharge the TMU-72/B argon coolant tanks?: 51000 plus or minus 100 psig
The purpose of the MK13 MOD 2, safe and arm (S&A) device is to safe the...: warhead from detonation until after launch and then detonates the warhead when it receives a signal from the target detector (TD)
WHich coolant recharge unit is portable and has only one fill station?: GCU-30/E
How does the air intercept missile (AIM)-9X digitally communicate with the launching aircraft?: Mid-body umbilical connector
What test set performs the air intercept missile (AIM)-9X BIT test?: AN/GYQ-79
In the guidance section of the air intercept missile (AIM)-120 missile, what allows it to perform the functions of acquisition and track, navigation, data link, processing, and section secondary power?: Hardware and software
What is the explosive weight of the air intercept missile (AIM)-120 missile warhead?: 15 pounds
The effective range and speed of teh air intercept missile (AIM)-120 missile is approximately: 60 miles at supersonic speeds
What three signals of the air intercept missile (AIM)-120 control section electronics are received from the guidance section?: Pitch, roll, and yaw.

Start Studying!

Deck Info

Number of cards 265

Created By fuckyoudeleteme