nursing 101 exam 3
Terms
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- an example of diagnostic surgery is:
- a biopsy or invasive testing (cardiac cath)
- cholecystectomy:
- improve appearance
- If a patient is not capable of giving informed consent or if the client is a minor, who can give consent?
- a family member, conservator or legal guardian
- joint replacement surgery is classified as what kind of surgery?
- transplant
- List the 4 parts included in a surgical consent form:
- 1. type of surgery performed 2. the name and qualifications of the doctor 3. A statement that the risks and benefits have been explained 4. A statement that the client has the right to refuse surgery or withdraw consent at any time.
- Procurement surgery:
- when an organ or tissue is harvested from someone pronounced brain dead for transplantation itno another person
- This involves the care of clients before, during, and after surgery
- perioperative nursing
- This is done to alleviate discomfort or other disease symptoms without producing a cure
- palliative surgery
- this phase beings when the patient enters the operating suite and ends when they are admitted to PACU
- intraoperative phase
- this surgery involves the removal of a diseased body part
- ablative surgery
- this surgery is performed to restore function
- reconstructive
- this surgery replaces a malfunctioning body part, tissue or organ
- transplant surgery
- this type of anesthesia produces rapid, unconsciousness and loss of sensation.
- general anesthesia
- urgent surgery is scheduled:
- 24-48 hours to alleviate symptoms or repair/restore
- what are antiembolism stockings?
- elastic stockings that compress the veins of the legs and increase venous return to the heart
- what body systems have a higher risk of infection postop?
- GI, GU, respiratory tracts or repair of any penetrating injury
- what duties is the circulating nurse in charge of?
- assessing the client in the holding area, developing diagnoses, prepping the skin, positioning the client, ensuring client safety
- what factors affect surgical risk?
- age, type of wound, prexisting conditions, mental status, medications, personal habits, allergies
- what is informed consent?
- proof the physician presented information about the surgery and that the patient understood it and was not pressured to give consent.
- what must accompany the patient to surgery?
- the preop checklist and medical chart
- when does the preoperative phase begin and end?
- begins with the client's decision to have surgery and ends when the client enters the operating room
- why do anticoagulants increase surgical risk?
- they increase the risk for bleeding
- why do antihypertensives increase surgical risk?
- they increase the risk for hypotension during surgery and may interact with anesthetic agents
- why do opioids increase surgical risk?
- increases the risk of respiratory depression
- why does aspirin and NSAIDs increase surgical risk
- increase the risk for bleeding
- Why is it important to be NPO 8 hours before surgery?
- to decrease the risk of nausea and vomitting
- some advantages of general anesthesia are:
- patient is unconscious, muscles are relaxed, anesthesia can be adjusted
- some disadvantages of general anesthesia are
- respiratory and circulatory muscles are depressed, so mechanical ventilation is often needed, it creates a risk for death, MI, stroke, and malignant hyperthermia.
- This is a rare, often fatal, metabolic condition that occurs during the use of muscle relaxants and inhalation anesthesia. The metabolism increases and temperature rises rapidly.
- malignnt hyperthermia
- this is an alternative form of anesthesia that provides IV sedation and analgesia without producing unconsciousness.
- conscious sedation
- this type of anesthesia prevents pain the the area of the procedure by interrupting nerve impulses to and from the area
- regional anesthesia
- this anesthesia produces loss of pain sensation at the desired site and used for minor procedures
- local anesthesia
- this in an injection of an anesthetic into and around a nerve or group of nerves
- nerve block
- this is a nerve block technique where there is a tourniquet on an arm or leg, local anesthesia is injected IV below the tourniquet level.
- Bier block
- where is spinal anesthesia injected?
- into the CSF in subarachnoid space.
- what might a headache in a patient who has had spinal anesthesia mean?
- CSF is leaking
- this requires a thin catheter to provide anesthesia
- epidural anesthesia
- what are the 5 variables that determine the position of the patient in the OR?
- the surgical site, access to airway, need to monitor vitals, comfort and safety
- to prevent shearing during operation, how should you move a patient?
- lift, not slide
- this phase begins when the client enters the PACU and ends when the client has healed from the surgical procedure
- postoperative phase
- the 3 phases of perioperative nursing are:
- preoperative, intraoperative, postoperative
- what 2 parts does the postop phase consist of?
- recovery from anesthesia and recovery from surgery
- how often do you assess the patient in the PACU?
- every 5-15 minutes
- Atelectasis: (and clinical symptoms)
- collapse of alveoli - decreased or absent breath sounds, decreased oxygen saturation, fever, tachypnea, dyspnea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, pleural pain
- What are the clinical signs of a PE?
- sudden onset of dyspnea, SOB, chest pain, hypotension, tachycardia, decreased oxygen sat, cyanosis
- thrombophlebitis: (and clinical symptoms)
- blood clot and inflammation of the vein, usually in the legs - vein is red, hard, and hot to touch, limb is pale and edematous, aching, cramping in the limb, Homans' sign
- what is Homans' sign?
- pain in the calf when it is dorsiflexed
- this is decreased blood volume
- hypovolemia
- this is the loss of the forward flow of intestinal contents due to decreased peristalsis
- ileus
- If a patient has less than 30 mL urine output and has rising BUN and creatinine levels, what might be happening?
- renal failure
- separation of one or more layers of a wound
- dehiscence
- protrusion of organs or tissues through the separated incision
- evisceration
- which is more important during preop period: A. administering preop meds B. assess NPO status
- B. NPO status - if they have not been NPO, they are at a higher risk for aspiration during surgery
- TRUE OR FALSE: Malignant hypertension is a rare, inherited complication of regional anesthesia.
- FALSE: it is a complication of general anesthesia.
- TRUE OR FALSE: all patients having surgery will undergo preop shaving of the hair covering the surgical site
- False
- What are the 4 ways surgeries may be classified?
- by body system, by purpose, by degree of urgency, by degree of risk
- what type of assessment is performed as part of the preoperative assessment?
- a brief head-to-toe, unless specific concerns have been identified.
- who is responsible for obtaining informed consent?
- the surgeon
- Why are sequential compression devices used?
- for clients at a high risk of thrombophlebitis - they compress the veins, promote venous return and decrease venous stasis.
- these are small, fluid-filled sac that act as cushions to reduce friction
- bursae
- kyphosis:
- accentuated thoracic curve
- a lateral "S" deviation of the spine
- scoliosis
- accentuated lumbar curve of the spine
- lordosis
- the average base of support is
- 5-10 cm, 2-4 in
- the average stride length is
- 30-35 cm, 12-14 in
- what 4 things can you do to assess balance?
- tandem walking (heel to toe), deep knee bends, hopping in place, Romberg test
- 2 ways to assess coordination are:
- finger-thumb opposition and running the heel of one foot down the shin of the other
- clicking or grating at a joint
- crepitus
- Genu varum
- bowlegs
- A wide base of support and a shortened stride length reflect:
- a balance problem
- the best way to test muscle strength is:
- repeating ROM against resistance
- what do the Lovett/s Scale scores mean?
- 5 - normal, full ROM against resistance 4 - good, most ROM against resistance 3 - fair, ROM against gravity 2 - poor - ROM with help against gravity 1 - trace - no joint movement 0 - no muscle contraction
- this allows for 360 degrees of movement
- circumduction
- decrease in muscle to to disuse
- atrophy
- decrease of muscle tone
- flaccidity
- the elbow is this type of joint
- hinge
- the shoulder is this type of joint
- ball-and-socket
- to avoid injury while moving, you should:
- have proper alignment, wide base of support, avoid bending and twisting, squat to lift, keep objects close when lifting, raise the beds, push vs. lift, get help!
- a strain is:
- the muscle
- a sprain is:
- tear of a ligament
- this type of exervise is muscle contraction with no motion (like pushing a wall)
- isometric
- this exercise is shortening and lengthening the muscle
- isotonic
- this exercise is using machine weights at the gym
- isokinetic
- this type of exercise is using oxygen
- aerobic
- this type of exercise is not using oxygen
- anaerobic
- what are some effects of immobility?
- atrophy, joint dysfunction, pneumonia, venous stasis, increased coagulability, orthostatic hypotension, glucose intolerance
- how much muscle do you lose for every week you are immobile?
- 7-10%
- What is Birchow's Triad?
- says that venous stasis + vessel injury + coagulation = perfect for blood clots
- what will you hear with a paralytic ileus?
- nothing
- a person with 2 cultures is
- bicultural
- an area of many different cultures is called
- multicultural
- the attitude that your ethnicity is the best is called
- ethnocentrism
- is the dominant culture always the largest group?
- NO
- males, females, nurses, doctors, people who speak German, the homeless - these are all examples of
- subcultures
- what are vulnerable subcultures?
- the homeless, poor, mentally ill, people with disabilities, young, elderly, some ethnic and racial minority groups
- these are the values, beliefs, and practices that people from all cultures share
- cultural universals
- these are the values, beliefs and practices that are special or unique to a culture
- cultural specifics
- what are some cultural specifics that affect health?
- communication, space, time orientation, social organization, environmental control, biological variations, religions and philosophy, politics and law, economy, education
- fold medicine, OTC and self care would fall under which health care system?
- indigenous health care system
- physicians and nurses are part of which health care system?
- professional
- this health care system is science based and takes aggressive action for illness or disease and is primary the US system
- biomedical
- accupuncture, going to the chiropractor or a dietician are parts of what health care system
- alternative health care
- the magico-religious group belives that what controls our health?
- supernatural forces
- this type of practice believes that you must have harmony in the body to achieve health
- holistic
- characteristics of our north american health system are:
- biomedical system, value of technology, desire to conquer disease
- how do we in north american define health?
- the absence or minimization of disease
- what is the largest subculture in health care culture in the US
- nursing
- some common nursing values are:
- silent suffering as a response to pain, objective reporting and description of pain, use of nursing process, nursing autonomy, caring, knowledge, critical thinking
- barriers to giving culturally competent care are
- lack of knowledge, emotional responses, ethnocentrism, cultural stereotypes, prejudice, discrimination, racism, sexism, language barrier, street talk/slang/jargon
- what 3 aspects are part of Purnell and Paulanka's culturally competent care?
- cultural awareness, cultural sensitivity, cultural competency
- this is what people in a group have in common, but it changes over time; also the behavior patterns, arts, beliefs, values, customs, lifeways that guide a person's worldview and decision making
- culture
- this refers to groups whose members share a common social and cultural heritage that is passed down from generation to generation
- ethnicity
- members of an ethnic group have what in common?
- some characteristics - it can be race, ancestry, physical characteristics, geographic region, lifestyle, religion
- an example of an ethnic group would be
- french canadiants, midwesterners, roman catholics, latinos
- hispanic americans are people who originally came from
- any spanish-speaking country
- the term "latino" refers to people from
- latin america
- race is strictly related to
- biology
- this refers to an ordered system of beliefs regarding the cause, nature, and purpose of the universe
- religion
- this is the process of learning to become a member of a society or a group
- socialization
- immigrants assume the characteristics of that culture through a learning process called
- acculturation
- this occurs when the new members gradually learn and take on the dominant culture's essential values, beliefs, and behaviors
- cultural assimilation
- how long do experts believe it takes for an immigrant group to become acculturated?
- 3 generations
- alternative medicine is defind as therapies used
- instead of the conventional medicines, whose reliability has not been validated through clinical testing in the US
- the campinha-bacote model of culturally competent care views cultural competence as a ______, not an ___ ______ and used the mnemonic ASKED:
- as a PROCESS, not an END POINT Awareness Skills Knowledge Encounters Desire
- TRUE OR FALSE: A stereotype is a preconceived and untested belief about people or groups of people
- TRUE
- TRUE OR FALSE: Race is defined as the physical characteristics that are shared by a specific ethnic group
- TRUE
- Which cultural group is at high risk for sickle-cell anemia?
- Blacks
- what are the 4 components of the sensory experience?
- stimulus, reception, perception, arousal
- the trigger that stimulates a receptor is called
- stimulus
- the process of receiving stimuli from nerve endings
- reception
- the ability to interpret sensory impulses and the ability to give meaning to impulses is
- perception
- this is composed of consciousness and alertness that is mediated by the RAS is
- arousal
- this sensory disorder can have the following symptoms: irritability, confusion, reduced attention span, drowsiness, depression, delusions, hallucinations, preoccupation with somatic complaints
- sensory deprivation
- this sensory disorder can have the following symptoms: irritability, confusion, reduced attention span, drowsiness, muscle tension, anxiety, inability to concentrate, restlessness, disorientation
- sensory overload
- this is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens that scatters light rays and blurs the image on the retina
- astigmatism
- this is the loss of central vision due to damage to the central portion of the retina
- macular degeneration
- this is the term for crossed eyes
- stabismus
- this occurs when one of the structures that transmits vibrations is affected
- conduction deafness
- this is the progressive sensorineural loss associated with aging
- presbycusis
- a term used to describe ringing in the ears
- tinnitus
- the hardening of the bones of the middle ear
- otosclerosis
- a middle ear infection
- otitis media
- the age group that sleeps the most is
- newborns (16-20 hours a day)
- stage I of sleep usually lasts
- 5-10 min
- stage 2 of sleep usually lasts
- 10-15 min
- stage 3 of sleep usually lasts
- 5-15 min
- stage 4 of sleep usually lasts
- 20-50 minutes
- stage 5 of sleep usually lasts
- 5-30 min
- this sleep stage is characterized by light sleep and can be awakened easily with regular, deep breathing
- stage 1
- this sleep stage is characterized by light sleep, easily roused, temperature, heart rate and BP decreases and accounts for 50% of sleep
- stage 2
- this sleep stage is characterized by deep sleep, person is difficult to rouse, muscles are very relaxed
- stage 3
- this sleep stage is characterized by very deep sleep, the person is difficult to awaken, body systems are slow in rate
- stage 4
- this sleep stage is characterized by dreaming, muscles and tendons are depressed, pulse is rapid and irregular
- stage 5 (REM)
- what are the 5 rights of teaching clients?
- right time right context right goal right content right method
- what are the 3 domains of learning
- cognitive, psychomotor, affective
- this type of learning includes memorization, recall, comprehension, ability to analyze and evaluate ideas
- cognitive
- this method of learning includes sensory awareness, imitation, performance of skills
- psychomotor
- this type of learning involves responding to new ideas, demonstrating commitment to new ideas, integrating new ideas into a value system
- affective
- what are some examples of teaching strategies?
- simulation, role-playing, role-modeling, self-instruction, distance learning, CAI, gaming
- the average infant needs how much sleep?
- 14-16 hours
- the average older adult needs how much sleep?
- 5-7 hours
- kids 6-12 need how much sleep?
- 10-11 hours
- young adults need how much sleep?
- 7-8 hours
- what are the 5 stages of illness behavior?
- experiencing symptoms, sick role behavior, seeking professional care, dependence on others, recovery
- this is your overall view of yourself
- self concept
- the inner voice people have that influences their self concept is called
- internal locus of control
- someone who lets external factors control their life is
- external locus of control
- true or false: mild anxiety is normal
- TRUE
- a person with this stage of anxiety can only focus on one particular detail or will shift the focus to extraneous details
- severe anxiety
- someone with this kind of anxiety becomes unreasonable and irrational and is unable to focus on even one detail in the environment
- panic anxiety
- depressive disorders are more common in
- women
- spiritual distress is associated with
- depression
- a person who is depressed most of the day for at least 2 weeks and has diminished interest in activities likely has
- major depressive disorder
- anhedonia is
- the loss of interest or pleasure to previously enjoyable activities
- this is referred to the physical changes that occur over time
- growth
- this is the process of adapting to one's environment over time
- development
- growth follows a _____ pattern
- cephalocaudal pattern
- the healthiest stage of life is
- 19-40 years
- any disturbance in a person's normal balanced state is
- stress
- good stress is called
- eustress
- what are the 3 major coping strategies for stress?
- alter the stressor, adapt to the stressor, avoid the stressor
- what is GAS
- general adaptation syndrome - responses that all people share in the face of stressors
- what are the 3 stages of GAS
- alarm, resistance, recovery OR exhaustion
- the fight or flight response occurs in this stage of G.A.S.
- alarm
- the goal of the resistance stage is to
- maintain homeostasis
- if adaptation is successful, GAS will end in what stage?
- recovery
- hypochondriasis is when a person
- is preoccupied with the idea that they will become seriously ill
- in this disorder, anxiety and emotional turmoil are expressed in physical symptoms
- somatization
- a disorder in which emotional pain manifests physically is called
- somatoform pain disorder
- malingering is when a person will
- make a conscious effort to escape unpleasant situations by pretending to have symptoms
- somatoform disorders are conditions characterized by the presence of
- physical symptoms with no apparent cause, more likely from denial, repression, displacement of anxiety
- this exists when an event in a person's life drastically changes the person's routine and he preceives it as a threat to the self
- a crisis
- when you can't cope effectively with the physical and emotional demands of the workplace you are experiencing:
- burnout
- longevity is
- living a long life
- gerontology is the
- study of aging
- the 3 components of a human being are
- body, mind, spirit
- characteristics of a healthy personality include:
- self concept, identity, role performance, body image, self ideal, self esteem
- our identity emerges from our
- self concept
- continuity confirms that:
- as people grow, their basic personality does not change - spenders will be spenders, hoarders will be hoarders
- which cohort makes up the largest segment of the population?
- baby boomers - they have the largest birth rate
- which current cohort is most rapidly increasing in size?
- the old-old (WWI generation)
- which cohort first experienced being "sandwiched" between their kids and their parents?
- young-old (WW2)
- the purpose of growth and development is to reach
- maturity
- when does aging begin?
- conception
- when does physical maturity end?
- when humans reach early adulthood
- when does mental/emotional maturity end?
- with death
- death is caused by
- disease or injury, NOT old age
- the core issues of spirituality are
- faith, hope, love
- forgiveness is a part of
- love
- this is the physical, psychological and spiritual response to a loss
- grief
- this is the action associated with grief
- mourning
- this is the period of mourning and adjustment time following a loss
- bereavement
- Rando's 6 "R's" of grieving are:
- recognize the loss react to the loss recollect memories relinquish the old attachment readjust to the new environment reinvest the self
- worden's 4 tasks of grieving are:
- accept the loss work through the pain and grief adjust to the new environment emotionally relocat the deceased
- what are the bowlby phases of grief?
- shock and numbness yearning and searching disorganization and despair reorganization
- an example of disenfranchised grief is:
- someone mourning his mistress
- the historical definition of death was
- cessation of the flow of body fluids