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3E451 B4

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1. (601) Which reverse osmosis water purification units are specifically designed for the US Air Force?
WPES–20 and H–9518–2
2. (601) Which color band designates reverse osmosis water purification unit piping that carries filtered water?
Yellow
3. (601) Which color band designates reverse osmosis water purification unit piping that carries product water?
Blue
4. (601) How many gallons per hour does the H–9518–2 reverse osmosis water purification unit produce (on the average)?
600
5. (602) What is the capacity of the reverse osmosis water purification unit raw water pump?
30 gpm
6. (603) The movement of water through a permeable membrane from an area of lesser concentrationto an area of higher concentration is called
osmosis
7. (603) What percent of organic materials in water is removed by the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
99
8. (603) How many parts per million of chlorine residual must you keep in the product water produced by the reverse osmosis water Purification unit?
2
9. (603) Which chemical is used as a coagulant aid during the reverse osmosis water purification unit treatment process?
Polymer
10. (603) Sodium hex is fed by the reverse osmosis water purification unit chemical feed pump at the
multimedia filter influent
11. (603) The optimum pH of water going through the reverse osmosis elements in the reverse osmosis water purification unit is
between 5 and 8
12. (604) What type of valve is used to backwash the multimedia filter on the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
Multiport
13. (604) The multimedia filter pressure gauge on the reverse osmosis water purification unit indicates
differential pressure
14. (604) What tests are taken utilizing the color comparator?
Chlorine and pH
15. (605) In which order do the high-pressure safety devices on the WPES–20 reverse osmosis water purification unit activate?
High-pressure relief valve, high-pressure switch, rupture disc assembly
16. (606) Technically speaking, what physical impact does the choice of a clear water source have on the reverse osmosis water purification unit (ROWPU)?
Less frequent backwashings will be realized
17. (606) How far away from the campsite should you set up the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
100 feet upstream
18. (607) Where are the two deionization cartridges packed in the H–9518–2 model reverse osmosis water purification unit?
Second layer
19. (607) What is the maximum total dissolved solids (TDS) the factory calibrated in-line TDS monitor can read?
3,000
20. (607) What initial action drives the ocean intake wellpoint into the ocean floor?
Water pressure from the pump
21. (608) Which technical order do you use when operating the H–9581–2 reverse osmosis water purification unit?
40W4–13–41
22. (608) During initial start up of the reverse osmosis water purification unit (ROWPU), all chemical feed valves must be set to
prime
23. (608) What is the initial setting of all the chemical pump control knobs on the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
10
24. (609) What is the maximum reverse osmosis pump pressure that should never be exceeded when operating the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
960 psi (seawater), 500 psi (brackish water)
25. (610) What component of the reverse osmosis water purification unit controls the backwash procedure?
Backwash timer
26. (611) What is the purpose of feeding citric acid into the reverse osmosis water purification unit (ROWPU) during the production run?
Reduce scale build up on the RO elements
27. (611) At what point do you set the citric acid chemical feed valve back to the prime position?
When the pH reads between 5–8
28. (612) Which reverse osmosis water purification unit pump is used to recirculate the citric acid solution during the reverse osmosis element cleaning procedure?
Backwash
29. (612) Once initiated, when do you stop the reverse osmosis water purification unit reverse osmosis element cleaning procedure?
After 45 minutes has expired
30. (613) Cartridge filter replacement is indicated on the reverse osmosis water purification unit when the
differential pressure of the multimedia filter exceeds 20 psid.
31. (613) What should you do just before you loosen the eyebolts of the reverse osmosis water purification unit cartridge filter cover?
Mark the position of the cover
32. (614) You must replace the reverse osmosis water purification unit reverse osmosis elements when the
citric acid feeding and both element cleaning methods are not effective.
33. (614) What occurs when the end connectors or the interconnectors of the reverse osmosis water purification unit get damaged by high pressure?
Osmosis
34. (615) What is the best way to protect hardwall piping from solar radiation?
Bury piping
35. (615) Under normal conditions, what are the proper parts per million and hours needed for chlorine to disinfect the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources water distribution system?
10, 24
36. (615) The chlorine residual of a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources water distribution system should never be lower than
1 part per million at the point of use
37. (616) How many reverse osmosis water purification units (ROWPU) make up the 1500gph ROWPU water production subsystem?
2
38. (616) The 500 follow-on subsystem is functionally identical to what other water distribution subsystem?
550 initial subsystem
39. (616) What is provided with the Industrial operations and flightline extension subsystem to protect the water distribution system piping from damage?
Hose rollover protection ramps
40. (617) What components make up the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources package macerator pump lift stations?
Submersible macerator pump, pump lift out assembly and three floats
41. (617) After experiencing unusually long pump runs, how do you inspect the dual pump station’s accumulator to determine if it has become waterlogged?
Depress air valve
42. (617) If the pressure switch on the 35gpm electric pump is not operating properly, what is the first step you should take to correct the problem after de-energizing the unit?
Clean the contacts
43. (617) When a float is not working properly in the dual pump lift station, and you have cleaned it and observed that it is not getting hung up in the lift station itself, what is your next course of
Have an electrician check the float
44. (617) What is the likely problem if a lift station pump is running backwards?
Phase voltage is incorrect
45. (618) How many washer and dryers are provided with the self-help laundry?
Five washers and five double stacked dryers
46. (618) How do you ensure that all the air has been released from the self-help laundry’s water heater?
Open the water heater relief valve until water appears
(618) What technical order action do you follow to correct the self-help laundry’s water heater if the water is too hot?
Test and service the mixing valve
48. (619) What effect does grease have on the electric kitchens evaporation beds?
Slows the evaporation process
50. (620) What is the maximum allowable height you can fill a 20,000-gallon water bladder?
64 inches
51. (621) Each Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources deployable latrine unit consist of
Six toilets and one urinal trough that drain into a 360-gallon waste tank.
53. (621) How much water is required to prime the pump on the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources latrines deployable pump?
3 quarts
55. (622) What is the first step in assembling the shower facility after all the equipment has been unpacked?
Connecting the drainage system
56. (622) When operating a boiler, what action will prevent the boiler from emitting heavy smoke from the exhaust stack?
Opening the air band
54. (622) How is the temperature of delivered water primarily controlled in the shower/shave facility?
Temperature regulator mixes in more or less cold supply water when demand is increased or decreased
57. (622) What is the highest allowed temperature of “mixed” water from the shower/shave pump assemblies’ temperature regulator?
115°F
58. (622) During the initial run-up of the shower facility, what should you do if a showerhead continues to drip after the shower valve has been closed?
Nothing, this is normal
59. (622) How often should you check the shower facilities pump assembly suction strainer for clogging?
Daily
60. (622) Which component in the shower facility are you not responsible to repair?
M–80 boiler
61. (623) Which bare-base medical facility provides outpatient clinic services?
Air transportable clinic
62. (623) Which medical facility is housed in a combination of tent expendable modular personnel and Alaskan tents?
Air Force theater hospital
63. (624) Which technical order should you consult before operating the sewer sucker trailer?
36A11–18–24–1
64. (625) Which expedient latrine is used if a prolonged deployment is planned?
Deep pit
65. (625) You should close a saddle trench expedient latrine when
it becomes filled with dirt to within 1 foot of the surface
66. (625) How much fuel oil should you place in the burnout latrine prior to use?
½ gallon
67. (626) From top to bottom, what are the contents of a urine soakage pit?
Fine gravel, small stones and large stones
68. (626) To prevent the growth of rooted aquatic plants, how many feet is the minimum depth of an oxidation pond?
2.
69. (627) Repair of storm drains is time consuming because they
are located underground
70. (628) The most common landfills on an installation are
trench and area
71. (628) When you use a trench-in landfill operations with compacted refuse, the
length should be twice the depth
72. (628) The area landfill construction method is used
Where there is a high-water table
73. (628) How many inches of earth should you apply to the daily waste in an area landfill?
6
74. (629) Which of these is not a reason to compact refuse and earth cover in a landfill?
Increase settlement in the fill
75. (629) What should you do to prevent erosion of a completed landfill?
Plant grass
76. (630) When you expand water facilities, the capacity of any small dams and reservoirs you build should be capable of impounding at least the total
daily flow
77. (631) In a dug well, the water flows into the casing from the
bottom
78. (632) Approximately how long should it take a 3-person team to complete an in-crater repair on a 6- or 8-inch pipeline?
45 minutes
79. (632) What is the maximum allowable tow speed for the petroleum, oils, and lubricants rapid utilities repair kit trailer on paved surfaces?
45 mph
80. (632) During night repair operations with the rapid utilities repair kit I, how close to a crater’s edge can floodlight stands be positioned?
No closer than the height of the floodlight
81. (633) To operate the contingency fuel recovery system, at least how many people should be on the team?
Two
82. (633) The hydraulic hoses that operate the submersible pump are pressurized to approximately what psi?
3,000
83. (634) The R–14 fuel servicing module is capable of delivering a controlled pressure of how much psi to the refueling nozzle?
50 (+/- 5).
84. (634) What is the rated capacity of the positive displacement meter on the R–14C fuel servicing module?
600 gpm
85. (634) What must be considered when determining a convenient location to set-up the R–14C fuel servicing module?
Type of aircraft to be serviced
86. (635) The canisters in the FFU–15E filter/separator are constructed of
aluminum
87. (636) What is the maximum discharge pressure the R–22 pump assembly was designed to deliver at 600 gpm?

85 psi
88. (636) What is the purpose of the float valve on the R–22’s fuel tank?
To fill the engine tank
89. (636) What size mesh is the basket strainer that is installed upstream of the pump on the R–22 pumping unit?
60
90. (637) The Hammonds TPI–4T–4 additive injector is operated by
the fuel flowing through it
91. (638) How many filter elements are installed on the PMU–27M filter separator?
3
92. (639) How much slope should the dike floor have that contains a 10K-gallon fuel bladder?
1 degree
93. (639) How much working clearance must be maintained between the bladder and the bottom interior edge of the dike wall?
2’
94. (639) What is the safe fill height of the bladder when it is full?
4 feet
95. (639) What is the height of the dike wall around the 210,000 gallon collapsible coated fabric fuel tank?
6 feet
96. (639) The sealing clamps used for emergency repair of collapsible coated fabric fuel tanks come in which three sizes?
3-, 5-, and 7–1/2-inch
97. (640) How many times can each end of the IPDS 19-foot aluminum main line pipe sections be regrooved?
Once
98. (640) Because of the inland petroleum distribution system’s (IPDS) single grooves on the pipe sections and equipment adapters, what is the maximum allowable operating pressure the IPDS system can withstand?
740 psi
99. (641) The FORCE R–18 pumping unit is powered by what?
A multi-fuel engine

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