Glossary of ID Powerpoints

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Toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1)
Scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin)
Food poisoning (enterotoxins A-E) – staphylococcal gastroenteritis
Group A Strep: aerobic, anaerobic, facultative anaerobe?
Facultative anaerobe
What are the non-suppurative diseases caused by group A strep?
Rheumatic fever, post-strep glomerulonephritis
Enterococci: aerobic, anaerobic, facultative anaerobic?
Facultative anaerobic
what important disease (that we vaccinate against) is caused by a corynebacterium?
Neonatal infection
Infection in pregnant women
neiserria gonorrhea: lactose fermenter?
NO: only glucose
moraxella bears many similarities to...?
Which animals are the following associated with: Bartonella
Bartonella - cat
Pasturella – cat/dog
Francisella - rabbit
Brucella – cows/sheep/goats
Pseudomonas is important in what genetic disease?
Which antibx is Widely used in surgical prophylaxis?
first gen cephalosporin
Tetracyclines are indicated when...?
Pregnancy, age <8
macrolides are prescribed in combo w/ what for the treatment of hospitalized patients with community acquired pneumonia?
3rd gen cephalosporin
Drug of choice for pertusis?
stevens-johnson syndrome - can be caused by which antibx?
sulfa drugs
Major uses of TMP-SMX?
acute bronchitis, otitis media, lymphogranuloma venereum, PCP
what is erysipelas? common cause?
infection of the lymphatic system - cause is streptococcus
When does Group A strep infection happen in relation to surgery? Staph aureus?
6-48 hours post.
Several days to develop
Vibrio vulnificus?
Raw Shellfish or traumatic wound exposed to salt water - skin infection
necrotizing fasciitis: causes?
type 1 or group A strep
endocarditis: for each of the following situations, which bugs predominate?
Native valve
IV drug abuser
Prosthetic valve (early)
Prosthetic valve (late)
Native valve - S. aureus, Viridans
IV drug abuser - S. aureus
Prosthetic valve (early) - Coag (-) staph
Prosthetic valve (late) - viridans
Symptoms of endocarditis?
Fever 75 – 85%
Chills 45 – 75%
Arthralgias and myalgias 15 – 25%
What are some peripheral lesions of endocarditis?
Osler nodes 0 – 23%
Splinter hemorrhages 5 – 50%
Janeway lesions 0 – 10%
Roth Spots 2 – 10%
Petichiae 5 – 40%
duke criteria?
Endocarditis: Major criteria
Major criteria (2)
Microbiologic – positive blood culture in 2 of 2 sets
Evidence of endocardial involvement – new murmur ie
(2 major criteria, 1 major and 3 minor, or 5 minor)
Antibx for endocarditis?
Penicillins/cephalosporings (sometimes in combo with gentamicin ie for coag neg staph)
High risk factors for infective endocarditis?
Prosthetic valve
History of IE
History of complex cyanotic congenital heart disease – BLUE BABIES
Common causes of atypical pneumonia?
Which bug is responsible for most cases of uncomplicated UTI? Which bugs should be considered for complicated UTI?
Uncomplicated - E coli
Complicated - Klebsiella, other enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas, serratia
Culture or no? Woman with typical UTI symptoms, pyuria, and no complicating factors?
Uncomplicated cystitis; what tx?
Acute Otitis media - tx?
Severe sepsis is defined as..?
Sepsis with 1 or more organ failures
Most cases of sepsis now are caused by gram + or - organisms?
Gram +
Clinical manifestations of sepsis?
Fever - early
Hypotension - early
Tachycardia -early
Tachypnea – sometimes earlyHypothermia - later
lactic acidosis - later
ARDS - later
Which antibx has an exclusively anaerobic bacterial spectrum?
DIAGNOSIS OF C Dificile Associated Diarrhea RELIES ON...?
With coastal travel or seafood, which enteric bug do you suspect?
Traveler's diarrhea causes?
Empiric tx?
ETEC, EIEC, Rotovirus, campylobacter.
Tx: quinalone, etc.
Salmonella bacteremia can cause which disease?
Typhoid fever
Nausea and Vomiting within 6 hours of suspicious meal: what bugs likely?
S aureus and B cereus
Abd cramps and diarrhea within 16 hours of suspicious meal - what bugs?
C. perfringens and B cereus
Fever, Abd cramps, and diarrhea within 48 hours of a suspicious meal - what bugs?
Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, Vibrio, E coli
Most common of known foodborne pathogens?
Listeria affects who...?
Food sources?
Pregnant women, fetuses, immunocompromised. Processed cold meats and dairy products
Diagnosing HSV infection..?
Viral isolation
Should be suspected as the causative agent of aseptic meningitis during the summer and fall seasons?
Coxsackie B virus
Which arboviruses have humans as the major vertebrate host?
Dengue and yellow fever viruses?
Dengue, St Louis, Yellow fever, and West nile are all what type of viruses?
Flaviviruses - Arboviruses
West nile should be considered in people who develop what syx after transfusion?
WNV should be considered in persons who develop unexplained fever, meningitis, or encephalitis after transfusion
Signs and symptoms of hospitalized patients with WNV
Fever > 38oC 98.3%
Headache 57.9%
Change in consciousness 46.8%
Confusion 39.5%
Vomiting 31.3%
antiviral eyedrops?
Which patients are likely to experience acyclovir resistance?
Long term therapy immunocompromised patients (AIDS)
Which drug is used for resistant Herpes or CMV? Problems with this drug?
Foscarnet. Tons of toxicity
main side effect of gancyclovir?
hematologic toxicity
what do zanamivir and oseltamivir do?
inhibit neuraminidases of influenza A, B
for RSV bronchiolitis
most common cause in the us of calcified granulomas in lung, liver, and spleen?
acute histoplasmosis
two antifungal drugs?
ampho B, itraconazole
Important opportunistic fungi?
Candida, cryptococcus, aspergillus, zygomycetes
oropharyngeal candidiasis aka?
tx for candida esophagitis?
what is a key CSF finding in cryptococcal meningitis?
Elevated opening pressure in majority of cases
diabetic ketoacidosis is a risk factor for which fungus?
Ampho B mechanism of action?
Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane
Forms pores in membrane,  permeability
nocardia drug of choice?
INH mechanism of action?
interferes with mycolic acid synthesis (cell wall)
Rifampin mechanism of action
Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, interfering with transcription
INH drug interactions?
Increases phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine concentrations
Monoamine oxidase inhibition
rifampin toxicities?
Hepatitis (alkaline phos, bilirubin, transaminases) (milder than INH)
Flu-like illness with nephrotic syndrome and thrombocytopenia
Cutaneous vasculitis
Flushing, pruritus
Orange body fluids
dapsone toxicity?
dose-dependent anemia
which drugs are curative of lyme's disease in early stages?
doxycylcline or amoxicilin
Describe Rock Mountain rash?
petechial, with a PERIPHERAL distribution, first on hands/feet
Characteristics of ehrlichia?
gram -, obligate intracellular parasite,Ixodes vector, reservoir is white-tailed deer
Ehrlichia early manifestations are similar to?
Rocky Mountain
tx of ehrlichiosis?
tx of chancroid?
cephalosporin, azithro, cipro, etc...
Antichlamydial tx?
Doxy or erythromycin
normal vaginal ecology - which important organism?
Things that disrupt normal vaginal ecology?
antibx, douching, multiple sex partners, exposure to STD, defective lactobacilli
non-inflammatory, discharge due to overgrowth of bacteria. absence of wbcs
tx of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis?
HIV ELISA From...?
whole blood or oral swab
indications for ART in AIDS?
CD4 < 350, HIV viral load > 100,000 (very high), pregnancy, high risk exposure, any symptoms
ART toxicities?
mitochondrial: lactic acidosis, hepatic steatosis, lipoatrophy (wasting), etc.
Abacavir toxicity?
abacavir hypersensitivity reaction,
didanosine toxicity?
didanosine-induced pancreatitis
nevirapine toxicities?
hepatitis, hypersensitivity
efavirenz toxicity?
PCP prophylaxis?
which transplants have highest incidence of infection?
heart lung
Which types of infections predominate in solid organ transplants?
Bacterial, CMV
Early infections in post transplant?
Infections during immunosuppressive period post organ transplant?
Similar to AIDS
Late stage (> 6 months post organ transplant) infection?
VZV, EBV, community acquired viral infections (activation of latent state herpes virus infections)
Anthrax diagnosis?
Blood culture
smallpox - what bug?
orthopoxvirus - variola
relative contraindications to smallpox vaccination?
history of eczema, age < 1 y/o, pregnant, immunosuppressed, close contact with any of above
smallpox case fatality rate?
plague treatment?
aminoglycosides - streptomycin
staining of plague?
pulse temp dissociation seen in...?
undulant fevers?
bartonella - trench fever
NSIs in US per year?
post exposure control of: HBV? HIV? HCV?
for unvacc: HBIG + vacc
HIV - PEP within 2 hours for 28 days
HCV - no protection with PEP, acute therapy works
Loosened prosthesis - which bugs?
Coag negative staph
osteomyelitis diagnosis gold standard?
diabetic foot ulcer - bone involvement - which drug?
congenital cmv?
microcephaly, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric rash,
best method of diagnosing congenital cmv infection?
viral isolation from infant's urine
blueberry muffin rash?
congenital rubella
how is congenital syphilis diagnosed?
serology, CSF eval, and long bone radiographs
risk of vertical hiv transmission?
toxoplasma exposure in the house from...? congenital tx?
cat litter box.
fever of unknown origin definition?
Fever 38.3°C (101°F) or higher on several occasions.
Fever of more than 3 weeks’ duration.
Diagnosis uncertain despite appropriate investigations, after at least three outpatient visits or at least 3 days in hospital.
Giant cell arteritis - diagnosing in FUO?
Biopsy temporal artery
Skin Eye Mucous Membrane (SEM)?
Neonatal HSV
what can mimic serious bacterial infection in the neonate?
enterovirus and HSV
which neonatal infection can present as a rash, encephalitis, or multisystem organ failure?

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