Glossary of Anatomy and Physiology Marieb Test 2

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What is the definition of Integum?
True or False the dermis is thicker than the epidermis?
The hypodermis is also called the?
Superficial Fascia
This layer of the skin is made of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
The epidermis
The layer of the epidermis where active mitosis occurs
The Stratum Basale
Layers of the Epidermis
Corneum, Lucidum, Granular, Spinosum and Basale
The system that includes the skin and its derivatives, including the sweat and oil glands, hair and nails is called?
Integumentary System
This skin layer contains nerve fibers, blood vessels, and smooth muscle cells
A thickening of the epidermis caused by persistent friction is called a?
These layers of the epidermis contain dead keratiinocytes.
Corneum and Lucidum
This layer of the epidermis has 3-5 cell layers in which keratinocyte appearance changes drastically and the cells are dying
The Stratum Basale is also known as the?
Stratum Germinativum
The stratum spinosum is also called the?
"prickly layer"
What are the two layers of the Dermis?
Papillary and the reticular
Fingerprints are formed by?
epidermal ridges that cover the dermal papillae
The reticular of the dermis is made of?
dense irregular connective tissue
When skin is exposed to high tempertures what are some consequences?
Dermal Papillae do not contract, There is no increased Melanin production, Blood vessels dialate, and there is no increased metosis production
This causes the pinkish hue of fair skin due to Red Blood Cells circulating throught the dermal capillaries
Sweat glands are also called?
Sudoriferous Glands
Sweat glands are distributed over the entire surface of the skin except?
nipples and parts of external genitalia
How many sweat glands are there per person?
More than 2.5 million
What are the two types of sweat glands?
Eccrine and apocrine
Eccrine sweat glands are also called
Merocrine sweat glands
Where are eccrine sweat glands located?
Abundant on palm, soles and forehead
What is the pH of sweat?
Between 4-6 (acidic)
Each of these sweat glands are a simple coiled tubular gland that secretes through the dermis.
Sweat is a ______filtrate of blood
This is 99% water with salts, Vit C antibodies, dermicidin wates sure as urea ammonia and lactic acid
These sweat glands are found in the axillary (under arm) and anogential (pubic) areas?
Apocrine sweat glands
They are larger than eccrine glands
Their ducts empty into hair follicles and contains true sweat plus fats and proteins
Apocrine sweat glands
These are modified apocrine glands found in the inner ear, that secretes Cerumen (ear wax)
Ceruminous Glands
Are Mammary glands sweat glands?
Yes a specialized sweat gland
Are Sebaceous Glands Holocrine Glands?
These are oil glands, simple alveolar glands found all over Except palms and soles of feet
Sebaceous Glands
Sebaceous Glands secrete ?
Is sebum secreted into a hair follicle or directly to the skin surface?
Can Sebum be bactericidal?
The white crescent that lies over the thick nail matrix is called the?
The main function of hair on the human is to?
sense insects on the skin before they sting us
The central core of hair is called?
What is Alopecia?
Baldness or hair loss
What is abnormal Lateral curvature of the spine?
What is exaggerated thoracic curvature?
Kyphosis (hunch back)
What is exggerated lumbar curvature?
Lordosis (sway back)
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
This usually involves rupture of the annulus fibrosus followed by protrusion of the spongy nucleus pulposus through the annulus
Herniated disc
What is unique about cervical vertebrae?
They have a transverse foramen
The C1 vertebrae is known as?
Yes Vertebrae
Which vertebrae artivulate with the ribs?
Thoracic vertebrae
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
The body of this vertebrae is heart shaped, with two facets on each side to receive the head of the ribs
Thoracic vertebrae
Where does the spinal cord end?
L-2 Lumbar 2
How many Lumbar vertebrae are there?
This contains the thoracic vertebrae, the ribs and the sternum and costal cartilages
The bony Thorax
This bone contains the manubrium, the body and the xiphoid process
The Sternum
What are the functions of the bony thorax?
Protect vital organs, supports shoulder girdle and upper limbs, and provides attachment points for the muscles of the neck, back, chest and shoulders
What is the indentation at the top of the Sternum Manubrium?
Jugular or Suprasternal notch
This attaches the upper limbs to the body trunk
Pectoral Girdle or shoulder girdle
This secures the lower limbs
Pelvic girdle or hip girdle
The shoulder girdle consists of?
The clavicle and the scapula
The inferior border of the rib has a ______ that carries the ntercostal nerves and arteries
Costal Groove
This is a knoblike area on the rib that articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra
This bone is flattened at its lateral acromial end which articulates with the scapula
This is the only S shaped bone in the body
Each Scapula has three borders the?
Superior, medial (vertebral) and the lateral (axillary)
This articulates with the humerus of the arm forming the shoulder joint
Glenoid Cavity
This is a nerve passage medial to the coracoid process on the Scapula
Suprascapular Notch
This is the area between the shoulder and the elbow
The arm
This is the sole bone of the arm
these bones make up the forearm
Ulna and Radius
This includes the carpus, the metacarpals and the phalanges
the hand
This is the slight constriction inferior to the head of the humerus
Anatomical neck
The greater and lesser tubercle on the humerous is separated by?
Bicipital Groove or Intertubercular groove
This is the most frequently fractured part of the humerus
Surgical neck
This is the roughened attachment site for the deltoid muscle on the humerous
Deltoid tuberosity
This marks the course for the radial nerve on the humerous
Radial Groove
Where is the coronoid fossa?
superior to the trochlea on the humerous
What is the antebrachium?
In the anatomical position the radius lies?
Laterally (on the thumb side)
In the anatomical position the ulna lies?
True or false the ulna is slightly longer than the radius?
This bone is mainly responsible for forming the elbow
The two big prominences on the ulna separated by the trochlear notch?
Olecranon process and the coronoid process
The head of the Ulna has a _______ where a ligament runs to the wrist
Styloid process
The head of this bone is shaped like a nail
This anchors the biceps of the arm to the radius
Radial Tuberosity
What is a colle's facture?
a break in the distal radius (by the wrist)
How many phalanges are there in the hand?
What is the joint between metacarpal 1 and the trapezium bone called?
Saddle joint
The hip bone forms from the fusion of?
Ilium, ischium and the pubis
What is the deep socket where the head of the femur articulates?
The large flaring bone that forms the superior region of the coxal bone is?
The sciatic nerves passes through here
Greater sciatic notch
This defines the pelvic brim
The arcuate line
This receives the weight of the body when sitting
ischial tuberosity
The hole in the hip is called?
Obturator foramen
The femur length is about ___ of a person's height
What are the three segments of the lower limb?
Thigh (femur) the leg and the foot
The indentation on the head of the femur is the
Fovea capitis
What is the weakest part and most common facture part of the femur?
The intertrochanteric line is on the ____ of the femur
The intertrochanteric crest is on the ____ of the femur
What bones form the lower leg?
Tibia and Fibula
this bone does not contribute to the knee joint, only helps to stablilize the ankle joint
This part of the fibula forms the prominent ankle bulge and articulates with the talus
Lateral Malleolus
This bone receives the weight of the body from the femur and transmits it to the foot
Tibia or shinbone
This part of the tibia forms the medial bulge of the ankle
Medial Malleolus
What does the foot skeleton contain?
Tarsus, the metatarsus and the phalanges
The two large tarsal bones that carry the most weight are the?
Talus (ankle) and the Calcaneus (heel)
The enlarged head of the first metatarsal forms the?
"ball of the foot"
The metatarsus has?
5 small long metatarsal bones
What are the three arches of the foot?
Medial longitudinal arch, Transverse arch and Lateral longitudinal arch
What is skeletal cartilage made up of?
Variety of cartilage tissue which consists mainly of water
The high water content of cartilage makes it?
resilient and able to spring back to its orginal shape after being compressed
Does Cartilage have nerves and blood vessels?
What is cartilage surrounded by?
Dense irregular connective tissue called Perichondrium
Does the perichondrium contain blood vessels?
Is cartilage thick?
No due to its lack of blood vessels
What are the three types of cartilage
hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage
What are the basic components of cartilige
Cells called chondrocytes encased in lacuna within an extracellular matrix contianing a jelly like ground substance and fibers
This hyaline cartilage covers the ends of most bones at moveable joints
Articular cartilages
This hyaline cartilage connects the ribs to the sternum
Costal cartilages
Where is elastic cartilage found?
External ear and epiglottis
What are the two ways cartilage grows?
Appositional and Intersititial
This literally means "growth from the outside" it occurs when the perichondrium secrets new matrix against the external surface of the eisting cartilage
Appositional growth
This literally means "growth from the inside" occurs when the chondrocytes divide and secrete new matrix expanding the cartilage from within
Interstitial growth
When does cartilage growth end?
During adolescence when the skeleton stops growing
the 206 bones of the skeleton may be classified according to their texture into two types
Compact bone and Spongy bone
Bones may be classified on the basis of their gross anatomy into four types
Long bones, short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
The femur, phalanges and all limb bones except patellas, carpals and tarsals are?
Long Bones longer than they are wide
The tarsals and carpals are types of?
Short bones, cubed shaped
These are found in the skull, the sternum, the scapula and the ribs
Flat bones, thin with two wafers of compact bone with a layer of spongy between
Vertebrae and coccyx are considered?
Irregular bones
Where is red bone marrow located in adults?
in the trabecular cavities of the spongy bone of the flat bones and the proximal epiphysis of the humerus and femur
This is a large rounded projection on a bone
This is a narrow ridge of bone
This is a very large, blunt irregularly shaped process
This is a narrow ridge of bone, not as prominent as a crest
This is a small rounded process or projection
Raised area above a condyle
A sharp, slender, pointed projection
A prominence or projection
This is a space within a bone filled with air lined with a mucous membrane
A sinus
Two types of bone cavities
Antrum and sinus
A canal like passage that allow blood vessels and nerves to pass through
a shallow, basin like depression in a bone, oftern serving as an articular surface
a fossa
a furrow in a bone
narrow slit like opening in a bone
round or oval opening in a bone
All bone has a dense outer layer consisting of ?
compact bone that is solid and smooth
Internal to compact bone is the?
Spongy bone, which is honeycom bed with needle-like pieces called trabeculae
This bone has a tubular bone shaft called the diaphysis consisting of a bone collar surrounding a hollow medullary cavity which is filled with yellow bone marrow in adults
long bones
These are at the ends of the long bone and consist of an internal spongy bone covered by an out layer of compact bone
The epiphyseal line is located between the epiphyses and diaphysis and is a remnant of the
epiphyseal plate
The external surface of the bone is surrounded by a periosteum, which is secured to the underlying bone by perforating
"Sharpey's fibers"
The internal surface of the bone is lined by a connective tissue membrane called the
This organic component of bone build up bones
This organic component of bone Tears down bones
This is a mature bone cell
A mineral salt that is mostly calcium phosphate which gives bones it hardness
Ossification and Osterogenesis mean?
process of bone formation
Are bones capable of growing in thickness throughout life?
Ossification in adults serves mainly for ?
bone remodeling and repair
When bone tissue replaces hyaline cartilage, forming all the bones below the skull except for the clavicle
Endochondral ossification
When bones form from fibrous connective tissue membranes resulting in cranial bones and clavicles
Intramembraneous ossification
Steps of Endochondral ossification
1 osteoblasts secrete osteoid, creating a "bone collar" around the diaphysis of the hyaline cartilage model. 2 Cartilage in the center calcifies and deteriorates, forming cavities, 3 Periosteal bud invades the cavities and spongy bone forms around the remaining fragments of hyaline cartilage4 the diaphysis elongates as the cartilage in the epiphysis continues to lengthen 5 A medullary cavity is formed by osteoclasts within the center of the diaphysis 6 the epiphyses ossify Shortly after birth through the development of secondary ossification centers
The osteoid must mature for about a week before it can?
In bone remodeling when the concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions reach a certain level?
tiny crystals of hydroxyapetite form spontaneously
This is essential for bone mineralization and is made by osteoblasts
Alkaline phosphatase
The ruffled border of the osteoclast secrets _____ and ____ to break down bone
Lysosomal enzymes and hydrochloric acid
This causes calcium levels to rise by stimulating osteoclasts to resorb bone and increases serium calcium weakens bones
Para thyroid hormone
This causes calcium levels to be lower by inhibiting bone resorption and encouraging calcium deposits in bones strengthens bones
This includes a number of diseases in which the bones are inadequately mineralized
A fracture where the bone ends retain their normal postion
Nondisplaced fracture
A fracture where the bones are out of alignment
Displaced fracture
A fracture where the bone is broken through
Complete fracture
A fracture where the bone is not broken through
Incomplete fracture
A fracture which parallels the long axis
Linear fracture
A fracture that is perpendicular to long bone axis
Transverse fracture
A fracture that penetrates the skin
Compound (open)
A fracture that does not penetrate the skin
Simple (closed)
A fracture when the bone fragments into three or more pieces
Comminuted fracture
Bone is crushed
compression fracture
Ragged break occuring when excessive twisting forces are applied to a bone
Spiral fracture
Epiphysis separates from the diaphysis along the epiphyseal plate
Epiphyseal fracture
Broken bone portion is pressed inward
Depressed fracture
Bone breaks incompletely, only one side of the shaft breaks the other side bends
Greenstick fracture
When bone resorption outpaces bone deposits
Special type of short bones found in tendons
Sesamoid bones, patella and two in foot
Tiny bones between cranial bones
Wormian (sutural) bones
Smooth portion of the frontal bone between the orbits is called?
Squamous, Tympanic, mastoid, and petrous regions are all regions of?
Temporal bone
Three types of joints based on binding material
Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
Three types of fibrous joints are?
Sutures, syndesmoses, gomphoses
These only occur between bones of the skull
In middle age the fibrous tissue ossifies and the skull bone fuses into a
The distal tibial-fibular joint has a little "give" but functionally is classified as an immovable joint this is an example of?
A peg-in-socket fibrous joint and example is the tooth
When the articulating bones are united by cartilage and they lack a joint cavity
Cartilaginous joints
Two types of cartilaginous joints are?
Synchondroses and symphyses
A bar or plate of hyaline cartilage unites the bones
the articular surface of the bones are covered with articular hyaline cartliage which is fused to a pad or plate of fibrocartilage
Examples include the epiphysial plates connecting the diaphysis and epiphysis in long bones of children and the joint between the costal cartilage of the first rib and the manubrium
Samples include the intervertebral joints and the pubic symphsis
When the articulating bones are separated by a fluid-filled joint cavity
Synovial joints
All synovial joints are diarthrosis which means?
They move in different directions
five major features of synovial joints
articular cartilate, joint (synovial) cavity, articular capsules, synovial fluid, and reinforcing ligaments
This substance is made by filtration from blood and is viscous
Synovial fluid
When synovial fluid is forced out into the cavity when compression occurs of the cartilage
"Weeping lubrication"
A ligament can only stretch ____of its length before it snaps
Every skeletal muscle of the body is attached to bone or other connective tissue structures at?
no less than two points
When attached to the immovable or less movable bone it is called
When attached to the moveable bone it is called
A slipping movement of a joint with no axis involved
nonaxial movement
Joint movement in one plane
Uniaxial movement
Joint Movement in two planes
Biaxial movement
joint Movement in all three planes of space
Multiaxial movement
Three general types of movement are?
Gliding, angular movement and rotation
Gliding movements are also known as
This is the simplest joint movement
Found at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints and between the flat articular processes of the vertebrae, some mandibular motions and sacroiliac
These movements increase or decrease the angles between bones
Angular movements
Seven types of angular movements?
Flexion, extension, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, abduction, adduction, circumduction
This decreases the angle of the joint
This increases the angle between the articulating bones
Two specific terms used to describe foot motion
Dorsiflexion (lifting the foot) and Plantar flexion (pointing the toes)
The movement of a limb away from the midline
The movement of a limb towards from the midline
Moving a limb so that it describes a cone in space
The turning of a bone around its own long axis
Rotating the forearm laterally so the palm faces up, it refers to the movement of the radius around the ulna
The forearm rotates medially and the palm faces posteriorly
When your foot points outward it is
eversion and inversion to point inward
The mandible can be
Protraction and retraction and or elevation and depression
The movement of the thumb to touch the fingertips due to the saddle joint between metacarpal1 and the carpals
Synovial joints can be classified into six categories, based on the shape of their articular surfaces
plane, hinge, pivot, condyloid, saddle and ball and socket joints
The articular surfaces are essentially flat, allowing for short gliding movements it does not involve rotation around an axis
Plane joints
A cylindrical projection of one bone fits into a trough shaped surgace on another. Motion is on a single plane, to permit flexion and extension only
Hinge joints
The rounded end of one bone protrudes into a sleeve or ring made of another bone and some ligaments
pivot joints
intercarpal and intertarsal joints, joints between the vertebrae
plane joints
Elbow and interphalangeal joint
hinge joints
The atlas and dens of the axis, the proximal radioulnar joint
Pivot joints
Also called ellipsoidal joints, the oval articular surgace of one bone fits into a complementary depression in another. This joint permits all angular motions
Condyloid joints
Radiocarpal and metacarpophalangel (knuckle)
condyloid joints
Each articular surface has both concave and convex areas (shaped like a saddle) resembles condyloid joints
Saddle Joints
carpormetacarpal joint of the thumb
Saddle joints
The spherical or hemispherical head of one bone articulates with the cuplike saucer of the other, allows multiaxial movement
Ball and socket joint
Shoulders and hips
Ball and socket joints
In the knee joint this is attached anteriorly to the tibia and to the medial side of the femur, stops hyperextension of the femur
Anterior cruciate ligament ACL

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