Glossary of Anatomy Multiple Choice
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- 1. What is the proper order of the organization of living things from small to large?
- a. Cell
- 2. Define homeostasis
- a. Maintenance of balance in the body
- 3. Describe the process of negative feedback
- a. Stimulusàhot
b. Causes responseàair conditioner turns on
c. Stopped stimulusàroom cools down
d. Stopped responseàair conditioner turns off
- 4. Describe the processes of positive feedback
- a. Stimulusàhormone
- 5. Review the following terms: distal, proximal, lateral, medial, superior, inferior, anterior, posterior, superficial, and deep.
- a. Distalàfarther from where the limb attaches
b. Proximalàcloser to where the limb attaches
c. Lateralàaway from the center of the body
d. Medialàtowards the center of the body
e. Superioràtowards the head
f. Inferioràtowards the feet
g. Anterioràtowards the front
h. Posterioràtowards the back
i. Superficialàtowards the surface of the body
j. Deepàmore towards the inside of the body
- 6. Describe the properties of the following bonds: ionic, single covalent, double covalent, and triple covalent.
- a. Ionicàformed when electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another
b. Single Covalentàwhen two atoms share each share two electrons
c. Double Covalentàwhen two atoms share each share four electrons
d. Triple Covalentàwhen two atoms share each share six electrons
- 7. Define polar in terms of molecules
- a. When two atoms are sharing electrons and one atom takes more to make a full valence shell
- 8. Describe the reasons why water is useful in body processes
- a. Makes up 2/3 of body
b. Helps regulate heat
c. Cushions body
d. High heat compasity
- 9. What three pieces make up a nucleotide?
- a. Nitrogen-containing base
b. Pentose (5-carbon) sugar
c. Phosphate group
- 10. What are enzymes and what are their functions?
- a. Functional proteins that act as biological catalyst
b. Catalystàsubstance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without becoming part of the product of being changed itself
- 11. Define phagocytosis and pinocytosis
- a. Phagocytosisàthe ingestion of solid particles by cells
b. Pinocytosisàthe engulfing of extra cellular fluid by cells
- 12. Describe what is happening during each of the five phases of mitosis
- a. Interphase
i. Nothing really happens just grows
i. Cell division begins
ii. Chromatin threads coil and form chromosomes
iii. Centroiles go to separate sides of cell
iv. Creating mitotic spindle
v. Nuclear membrane and nucleoli have disappeared
vi. Chromosomes attach to the spindle fivers
i. Chromosomes cluster
ii. Chromosomes align at center of spindle between centroiles
i. Centromeres that have held chromatins split
ii. Chromatins now are chromosomes
iii. Chromosomes move towards opposite ends of cell
i. Chromosomes uncoil become chromatin
ii. Spindle breaks and disappears
iii. Nuclear membrane and nucleoli form
- 13. How do the nucleotides of DNA match up to form pairs? How is RNA different?
- a. Thymine-Adenine
c. RNA-the Uracil bonds with Adenine
- 14. Describe the general characteristics of each of the following tissue types: connective, muscle, epithelium, and nervous
- a. Connectiveàloosley packed cells in a chemical matrix (surrounded my chemicals), vascularized-have a direct blood supply
b. Muscleàskeletal(striated, voluntary, used for movement), cardiac(striated, involuntary, heart), Smooth(not striated, involuntary, stomach)
c. EpitheliumàCells packed tightly together, a pad surface is not connected to anything, basement membrane (chemicals that one surface of the cell sits on, avascular-these tissue have no real blood supply of their own, absorb, protect, filter, and secrete
d. Nervousàconducts electricity, amitotic-they do not divide, cannot fix eachother if damaged
- 15. Desribe the classifications of Epithial tissue
- a. Simple-one cell layer thick
b. Stratified-more than one cell layer thick
c. Squamous-thin tile shaped
d. Cubodial-cube shaped
e. Columnar-tall column shaped
- 16. Describe the general characteristics of each of the following connective tissue types: adipose, areolar, dense fibrous, elastic cartilage, hyaline cartilage, and bone.
- a. Adipose-fat, keeps warm and cushions
b. Areolar-soft, cushions and protects body, slimy tissue that holds organs in place
c. Dense fibrous-not well vascularized contain collagen, ex. Tendons and ligaments
d. Elastic cartilage-flexible, outer ear, avascular
e. Hyaline cartilage-smooth, rubbery, hard, type of cartilage that makes embryo skeleton (stays in breast bone area)
f. Bone-white, holds calcium
- 17. What kind of tissue is blood? Why does it fit in this category?
- a. Connective
b. Because it is a group of loosely packed cells in a chemical matrix
- 18. What factors determine the color of your skin?
- a. The amount of melanin in the pigment
- 19. What are the functions of the skin?
- a. Water balance, protection from bacteria, protects us from bumps and chemicals, heat balance, provides information of our climate, produces vitamin D with sun or milk, excretion (gets rid of waste)
- 20. What are the derivatives of the epidermis?
- a. Outer layer of skin
b. Stratified squamis
d. Hard dead cells
e. Pigment melanin is stored in the bottom most layer
- 21. How is it possible to cut your hair or nails without feeling pain?
- a. They do not have any nerve cells and they are dead
- 22. Describe the papillary layer of the epidermis including where it is and what its functions is.
- a. Covered in papilla
b. Makes dermis uneven
c. Gives us fingerprints
d. Contains blood vessels and nerves
- 23. Describe the location and function of keratin and collagen.
- a. Hair and nails
b. Hardens, gives strength, and keeps hair intact
- 24. How does exposure to the sun affect your skin?
- a. Gives you vitamin D
b. Too muchàtissue damage and cell death
- 25. What are the possible effects of severe burns?
- a. Depression of the immune system, loss of body fluid
- 26. Describe the distinguishing characteristics of each of the following membranes: cutaneous, mucous, and serous.
- a. Cutaneousàskin, only one that is dry
b. Mucosusàline all body cavities that are exposed to the outside
c. Serousàline body cavities not exposed to the outside
- 27. Describe the characteristics and effects of each of the following types of skin cancer: squamous cell, basal cell, and malignant melanoma.
- a. Squamous cellàarises from 2nd layer of epidermis, usually induced by the sun, little danergous, grows rapidly, typical treatment is removal and radiation
b. Basal cellàmost common, least dangerous, epidermis cannot produce keratin, slow growing, tend not to spread, can be removed
c. Malignant melanomaàaccounts for 5% of skin cnacers, cancert of the melanocytes, begins to concentration of pigment (in moles) rapidly dividing, men are more enclined to get it then women
- 28. What are the functions of the skeletal system?
- a. Support
e. Blood cell formation
- 29. Describe the difference between a long, short, flat and irregular bone.
- a. Long-bones that are longer then they are wide
b. Short-cube shaped bones
c. Flat-flat, have spongy bone in the middle of them
d. Irregular bone-pelvis, scapula, vertebrate
- 30. Describe the following structures of long bones: epiphysis, peristeum, diaphysis, and compact bone.
- a. Epiphysis-the end of long bone
b. Peristeum-outter covering of the bone
c. Diaphysis-shaft of long bone
d. Compact bone-smooth and dense
- 31. Where does hematopoiesis take place?
- a. First step of healing, formation of blood cells
- 32. Be familiar with all types of fractures Simple, Compound, Comminuted, Compression,Depression, impacted, spiral, greenstick.
- a. Simple fractureànice clean break
b. Compound fractureàwhen bone breaks through skin
c. Comminuted fractureàwhen bone is broken in more than one place
d. Compression fractureàwhen a bone is crushed
e. Depression fractureàwhen the bone is pushed inward
f. Impacted fractureàbone ends are pushed together
g. Spiral fractureàragged break due to twisting
h. Greenstick fractureàwhen the bone is not broken all the way through(hairline)
- 33. Define the following: osetoblast, osteoclast, and osteocyte
- a. Osteoblastàbone forming cells
b. Osteoclostàmature bone cell
c. Osteocyteà Large cells that resorb or break down bone matrix
- 34. Describe what happens when someone suffers from osteoporosis
- a. Loss of bone mass
- 35. Bones begin as what type of tissue in the embryo (be precise)?
- a. Connective tissue
b. Hyline Cartilageàsmooth, rubbery, hard, type of cartilage that makes embryo skeleton
- 36. What makes up the axial skeleton? Appendicular?
- a. Axialàskull, vertebrate, ribs
b. Appendicularàeverything else
- 37. Describe the location of each of the following bones: ethmoid, frontal, mandible, maxilla, occipital, palatine, parietal, sphenoid, and temporal.
- a. Ethmoidànose
d. Maxillaàupper jaw(under upper lip)
e. Occipitalàback of head
f. Palatineàback of roof of mouth
g. Parietalàmiddle of top of head
h. Sphenoidàside(temple area)
i. Temporalàside(behind ear)
- 38. Describe the location of each of the following bones: carpals, femur, fibula, humerus, radius, tarsals, tibia, ulna
- a. Carpalsàwrist
c. Fibulaàsmall shin bone
d. Humerusàupper arm
e. Radiusàlower arm bone near thumb
f. Tarsalsàankle bones
g. Tibiaàbig shin bone
h. Ulnaàlower arm on pinky side
- 39. How does the male pelvis differ from the female pelvis?
- a. The female pelvis is wider to allow child birth
- 40. Explain the difference between the following: synarthroses, amphiarthroses, and diarthroses.
- a. Synarthrosesàimovable joints
b. Amphiarthrosesàslightly movable joints
c. Diarthrosesàfreely movable joints
- 41. Describe the three types of muscles and the difference between them.
- a. Skeletalàstriated, voluntary
b. Smoothànot striated, involuntary, spindle shaped cells
c. Cardiacàstriated, involuntary, spindle shaped cells
- 42. What is the primary function of skeletal muscles?
- a. Movement
- 43. What happens in a myofibril as the muscle is contracting?
- a. Myosin grows, everything else shrinks
- 45. What is tetanus?
- a. The tense, contracted state of muscle
b. And infectious disease
- 46. What is muscle tone?
- a. Muscle tone is when muscle cells are constantly contracting
b. Muscles are firm to the touch
- 47. What are the characteristics of isometric and isotonic contractions?
- a. Isometric-when muscle tries to shorten, but does not succeed
b. Isotonic-Muscle shortens, movement occurs
- 48. Why is aerobic exercise good for you? What does it do to your muscles?
- a. Increases endurence
b. Increases blood supply
c. Works heart
- 49. Describe the following movements: abductions, adduction, circumduction, dorsiflexion, eversion, extension, flexion, inversion, plantar flexion, pronation, rotation, and supination.
- a. Abductionàmoving bone away from body
b. Adductionàmoving bone towards body
c. Cicumductionàcombination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction, shoulder, ball and socket, proximal end is stationary and distal end moves in a circle
d. Dorsiflexionàbringing toes towards shin, standing on heels
e. Eversionàturing the sole of the foot laterally and is the opposite of inversion, sole on floor
f. Plantar flexionàstraightening ankle, toes point down, standing on toes
g. Pronationàmoving palm from anterior to prosterior, up to down
h. Rotationàmovement of a bone around its longitudinal axis, ball and socket joints, atlas and axin in head shake no
i. Supinationàmoving palm from prosterior to anterior, down to up
- 51. Define the following: prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator.
- a. Prime moveràdoes majority of the action
b. Antagonistàopposite of the prime mover
c. Synergistàhelps prime movers
d. Fixatoràstabalizes the origin of the prime mover
- 52. Describe the functions of each of the following muscles: frontalis, orbicularis oculi, orbicularis oris, and zygomaticus
- a. Frontalisàraise eye brows
b. Orbicularis oculiàblink
c. Orbicularis orisàkiss
- 53. What are the main muscles in charge of mastication (chewing)?
- a. Masseter and temporalis
- 54. What muscles cause plantar flexion?
- a. Gastronemius, peroneus
- 55. Tell the functions of the fallowing muscles: gastrocnemius, triceps brachii, pectoralis major, sternocleidomastoid, latissimus dorsi, rectus abdominus, rectus femoris, semitendinosus, and biceps femoris
- a. Gastrocnemiusàpoint toes
b. Triceps brachiiàstraighten arm
c. Pectoralis majoràlower arm
d. Sternocleidomastoidàprayer muscle
e. Latissimus dorsiàlower arm
f. Rectus abdominusàallows bending at waist
g. Rectus femorisàstraightening knee, flexing hip
h. Semitendinosusàend knee
i. Biceps femorisàbend knee
- 56. What is muscle fatigue and what causes it?
- a. Lactic builds up in muscles
b. Loose oxygen
c. Don’t work well
- 57. What four structures make up every neuron?
- a. Sensory input
b. Motor output
c. Intigration of the two
- 58. Describe the functions of each of the following neuron types: efferent, afferent, and association.
- a. Efferentàmotor part, takes messages from central nervous system to the muscles or glands
b. Afferentàsensory part, brings in information to central nervous system
- 59. What structures make up the central nervous system?
- a. Brian and spinal cord
- 60. What are neurotransmitters and what part of the neuron do they come from?
- a. Chemicals stored in the axonal terminals waiting to be realeased
- 61. List the four types of glial cells and tell the function of each
- a. Astrocytesàfilter the blood before it gets to the nerve cell
b. Microgliaàgets rid of debris
c. Ependymalàcirculate cerebrospinal fluid
d. Oligodendrocytesàform fatty insulation around nerve cells
- 62. How does alcohol affect the probability of generation a nervous impulse?
- a. Slows everything down
- 64. Describe the function of each of the following neuronal parts: axon, aconal terminals, dendrites, ad cell body.
- a. Axonàcarries messages away from cell body
b. Axonal terminalsàsend communication to next neuron, muscle or gland
c. Dendritesàbrings information to cell body
d. Cell bodyàmetabolic center of cell
- 65. What cells are in charge of myelinating the neuron? Be specific!
- Schwann Cells
- 66. How many neurons minimum are needed to have a reflex arc?
- a. Two (sensory and motor)
- 67. Trace a reflex arc from the sensory receptor to the effecter organ.
- a. Receptor, afferent neuron, interneruon, efferent neuron, and effector
- 68. Was the lab we did at the beginning of Chapter 7 with the meter stick and example of a reflex? Explain your answer in terms of what a reflex is.
- a. No, because we responded to a vision or sound to when to grab the stick, it was voluntary
b. Reflexàrapid predictable, and involuntary responses to stimuli
- 69. Tell the function of each of the fallowing brain lobes: frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal.
- a. Frontalàspeech and language
d. Temporalàhearing and smelling
- 70. Describe the function of each of the following brain structures: cerebellum, corpora quadrigemina, corpus callosum, hypothalamus, medulla, pons, and thalamus.
- a. Cerebellumàcoordinates timing and balance of body movement
b. Corpora quadrigeminaàhearing and vision reflexes
c. Corpus callosumàconnects two hemispheres of the brain
d. Hypothalamusàregulates water, body temperature, metabolism, and emotion
e. Medullaàrelay station, regulates visceral reflexes
f. Ponsàrelay station, control of breathing
g. Thalamusàdetermines if stimuilus is posotive or negative
- 71. Describe the difference between the autonomic and somatic nervous systems and the organs they affect.
- a. Autonomicàcontrols involuntary
b. Somaticàcontrols voluntary
- 72. What are the basic functions of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems?
- a. Parasympatheticàaftermath of sympathetic, deceases heart rate and blood pressure, increases digestion and urine output, crying
b. Sympatheticàfight or flight response, heart right and adrenaline rises, liver releases more glugose, blood pressure goes up
- 73. Tell the function of each of the twelve cranial nerves
- a. Olfactoryàsmell
c. Oculomotoreàeyelid movement
d. Trochlearàeyeball movement
e. Trigeminalàtouch on faces
f. Abducensàeyeball movement
g. Facialàcontrols salivary glands
i. Glosspharyngealàtaste, pharynx (swallow)
j. Vagusàlungs, intestines
k. Accessoryàneck muscles
l. Hypoglossalàtongue movement
- 74. What are the two functions of neurons?
- a. Afferentàsensory
- 75. Efferentàmotor What is an action potential?
- a. Electrical event occurring when a stimulus of sufficient intensity is applied to a neuron or muscle cell, allowing sodium ions to move into the cell and reverse the polarity
- 77. Define the following: myopia, hyperopia, presbyopia, and emmetropia.
- a. Myopiaànearsidedness (light focuses before it hits retina)
b. Hyperopiaàfarsidedness (light focuses after it hits retina)
c. Presbyopiaà Inability of the eye to focus sharply on nearby objects, resulting from loss of elasticity of the crystalline lens with advancing age.
d. Emmetropiaà The condition of the normal eye when parallel rays are focused exactly on the retina and vision is perfect.
- 78. What is the function of each of the following ear structures: ossicles, tympanic membrane, cochlea, semicircular canals, and eustacian tube.
- a. Ossicleàintesify sound
b. Tympanic membraneàeardrum, vibrates against ossicles
c. Cochleaàhouses hearing receptor
d. Semicircular canalàhave receptors that move in the opposite direction we are moving to keep balance
e. Eustacian tubeàdrains fluids from ear to back of throat
- 79. What are the proper names for each of the following senses: taste, smell, and hearing?
- a. Tasteàglosspharyngeal
- 80. What receptors are triggered when you eat spicy food?
- a. Pain
- 81. Describe the difference between these endocrine stimuli: hormonal, humoral, and neural.
- a. Hormonalàhormone stimulate another endocrine organ to make a different hormone
b. Humoralàsomething that changes in a body fluid and that causes a production of hormone
c. Neuralànervous system stimulates the production of a hormone
- 82. Define tropic
- a. Stimulates other endocrine organs
- 83. Describe the functions and location of production of each of the following hormones: calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, oxytocin, antiduretic, prolactin, epinephrine, adrenocorticotropic, luteinizing, mineralcorticoids, aldosterone, gluccorcorticoids,
- a. Calcitoninàin thyroid(throat), deposits calcium on the bone
b. Parathyroid hormoneàin parathyroid(neck), breaks down calcium in the bone
c. Oxytocinàhypothalamus(brain), stilumates contractions in uterus and milk ejection
d. Antidureticàhypothalamus(brain), decreases urine volume
e. Prolactinàin pituitary(brain), stimulates milk ejection
f. Epinephrineàin Adrenal gland(top of kidneys), aids in sympathetic nervous response
g. Adrenocorticotropicàin pituitary(brain), stimulates adrenal cortex
h. Lutenizingàin pituitary(brain), releases eggs
i. Mineralcorticoidsàin adrenal glands(top of kidneys), regulates minerals
j. Aldosteroneàin adrenal glands(top of kidneys), males
k. Gluccorcorticoidsàin adrenal glands(top of kidneys), increases blood glucose for long term use
l. Insulinàin pancrease(abdominal cavity), sweeps glucose out of blood
- 84. Describe the role of the placenta as an endocrine organ
- a. Produces estrogen to help maintain the pregnancy
- 85. Which endocrine organ DOES NOT produce hormones? What does it do?
- a. Posterior lobe
b. Stores and releases hormone made by the hypothalamus
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