Glossary of ***usmle 2207-2407 micro 1

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Bacterial Strucutre & Cell Walls: Where is beta-lactamase in bacteria? What does it do?
Beta-lactamases are found in the periplasm of gram negative bacteria. The enzyme hydrolyzes beta-lactam antibiotics, conferring resistance.
Bacterial Strucutre & Cell Walls: Which gram-positive organism lacks a polysaccharide capsule and has a capsule made of something else?
Bacillus anthracis - has D-glutamate instead of polysaccharide
Bacterial Strucutre & Cell Walls: What are spores made of and what do they do?
Keratin-like coat, dipicolinic acid. Provide resistanceto dehydration, heat and chemicals
Bacterial Strucutre & Cell Walls: What helps organisms adhere to indwelling catheters?
The glycocalyx (composed of polysaccharide)
Bacterial Strucutre & Cell Walls: What is the major surface antigen of gram-positive cell walls and what does it do?
Teichoic acid - unique to gram-positive bacteria. Induces TNF and IL-1
Bacterial Strucutre & Cell Walls: What is specific to gram-negative bacterial cell membranes?
Endotoxin/LPS (lipopolysaccharide)
Bacterial Growth Curve: Describe the four phases of bacterial growth.
1) Lag phase of metabolic activity without division. 2) Log phase of rapid cell division. 3) Stationary phase in which nutrient depletion slows growth. 4) Death due to prolonged nutrient depletion and buildup of waste products.
Main Exotoxin and Endotoxin Features: What are exotoxins and endotoxin chemically?
Exotoxins are polypeptides, while endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides.
Main Exotoxin and Endotoxin Features: Where do bacteria keep their exotoxin or endotoxin genes?
Exotoxin genes on plasmids or bacteriophages; endotoxin genes on bacterial chromosomes.
Main Exotoxin and Endotoxin Features: Which is more fatal – exotoxin or endotoxin?
Exotoxin is highly fatal (~1 microgram), while you need 100’s of micrograms for endotoxin to prove lethal.
Main Exotoxin and Endotoxin Features: Which has greater heat stability – endotoxin or exotoxin?
Endotoxin – stable at 100°C for 1 hour, while endotoxin is rapidly destroyed at 60°C (EXCEPT Staph enterotoxin)
Main Exotoxin and Endotoxin Features: True or False: We can vaccinate against exotoxins and endotoxins.
False: We do have toxoids vaccines against exotoxins for diseases like tetanus, botulism and diphtheria, but there are no vaccines against endotoxins.
Bugs with Exotoxins: Which bugs have Exotoxin that acts by ADP ribosylation?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae (which then inactivates EF-2). Also Escherichia coli, Vibrio cholerae, and Bordetalla pertussis (all these then stimulate adenylate cyclase).
Bugs with Exotoxins: Which bug has exotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine? What symptoms does that cause?
Clostridium botulinum. Anticholinergic symptoms, CNS paralysis, flopy baby, and a wrinkle-free forehead if injected!!
Bugs with Exotoxins: Which bug has exotoxin that blocks glycine release? What does that cause?
Clostridium tetani. Causes “lockjaw”.
Bugs with Exotoxins: How does Staph aureus cause toxic shock syndrome?
The toxin is a superantigen that binds to MHC II protein and T-cell receptor à induces IL-1 and IL-2 à TSS
Endotoxin (especially lipid A): How could bacterial infection cause disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Endotoxin can activate Hageman factor --> initiates coagulation cascade --> DIC
Endotoxin (especially lipid A): How could bacterial infection cause hypotension?
Endotoxin activates macrophages to release nitric oxide (--> vasodilationà hypotension); can also activate alternate complement pathway C3a, --> hypotension (N.B. also edema).
Endotoxin (especially lipid A): How does bacterial infection cause fever?
Endotoxin activates macrophages to release IL-1 and TNF --> fever.
Gram Stain Limitations: --- are too thin to be visualized. Use darkfield microscopy and fluorescent antibody staining instead.
Gram Stain Limitations: --- lack a cell wall
Gram Stain Limitations: --- stain with silver
Legionella pneumophila
Fermentation patterns of Neisseria: What are the two Neisseria species?
N. meningitidis, N. gonorrhoeae
Fermentation patterns of Neisseria: How are the Neisseria species differentiated?
MeninGococci ferment Maltose & Glucose; Gonococci ferment only Glucose
Pigment-producing Bacteria: --- produces a yellow pigment
Staphylococcus aureus (Latin aureus = gold)
Pigment-producing Bacteria: --- produces a blue-green pigment
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pigment-producing Bacteria: --- produces a red pigment
Serratia marcescens (think red marachino cherry)
IgA Proteases: IgA proteases allow organisms to…
… colonize mucosal surfaces
IgA Proteases: Name 4 organisms with IgA proteases
Strep pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, N. gonorhoeae, H. influenzae
Gram-positive Lab Algorithm: What are the lab steps for ID'ing Staphylococcus aureus?
1st gram stain --> get purple/blue cocci (= positive); 2nd catalase test --> positive (staphylococcus clusters); 3rd coagulase test --> positive (differentiates S. aureus from the coagulase-negative S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus)
Gram-positive Lab Algorithm: What are the 4 types of gram-postive rods?
Corynebacterium, Listeria, Bacillus, Clostridium
Gram-positive Lab Algorithm: When do you test for bacitracin sensitivity or resistance?
For beta-hemolytic strep. Bacitracin-sensitive --> Group A beta-hemolytic Strep pyogenes. Bacitracin-resistant --> Group B (Bad!) beta-hemolytic Strep agalactiae
Gram-positive Lab Algorithm: Name 4 laboratory features of Streptococcus pneumoniae
alpha hemolytic (green – partial hemolysis), positive Quellung reaction, optochin-sensitive, and bile-soluble
Gram-positive Lab Algorithm: When would you do the optochin test?
When you have alpha hemolytic strep
Gram-negative Lab Algorithm: Once you see gram-negative rods under the microscope, what is your next diagnostic test?
test lactose fermentation
Gram-negative Lab Algorithm: What are the 3 fast lactose fermenters:
Klebsiella, E. coli, and Enterobacter
Gram-negative Lab Algorithm: How do you distinguish among lactose non-fermenters?
Perform an oxidase test
Gram-negative Lab Algorithm: Which are oxidase-positive?
Gram-negative Lab Algorithm: Which are oxidase-negative?
Shigella, Salmonella, or Proteus
Gram-negative Lab Algorithm: What are the gram-negative cocci?
Gram-negative Lab Algorithm: What are the gram-negative coccoid rods?
H. influenzae, Pasteurella, Brucella, Bordetella pertussis
Gram-negative Lab Algorithm: Which gram negative coccoid requires factors V and X for growth?
H. flu
Special Culture Requirements: Use chocolate agar and factors V & X for ---
Hemophilus influenzae
Special Culture Requirements: Factor V has --- and Factor X has ---
NAD, hematin
Special Culture Requirements: Thayer-Martin (VCN) media to culture ---
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Special Culture Requirements: Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar to culture ---
Bordetella pertussis
Special Culture Requirements: Tellurite plate, Loffler's medium, blood agar for ---
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Special Culture Requirements: Lowenstein-Jensen agar for growing ---
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Special Culture Requirements: Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar are ---
Lactose-fermenting enterics (Klebsiella, Eschericihia, or Enterobacter
Special Culture Requirements: Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine to grow ---
Legionella pneumophila
Special Culture Requirements: Sabouraud's agar to culture ---
Stains: Stain used to diagnose Whipple's disease
PAS (Periodic Acid Schiff)
Stains: PAS stains ---
glycogen, mucopolysaccharides
Stains: Ziehl-Neelsen stains ---
Acid-fast bacteria
Stains: India ink stains ---
Cryptococcus neoformans
Stains: Congo red stains -- and exhibits ---
Amyloid, aple-green birefringence in polarized light
Stains: Giemsa's stains what 4 organisms?
Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, Chlamydia (intracellular inclusions on Giemsa)
Conjugation, Transduction, Transformation: Which process can involve eukaryotic DNA?
Conjugation, Transduction, Transformation: DNA transferred from 1 bacterium to another through a sex pilus is
Conjugation, Transduction, Transformation: DNA transferred by a virus from 1 cell to another
Conjugation, Transduction, Transformation: Generalized transduction can transfer --
Any gene
Conjugation, Transduction, Transformation: Specialized transduction transfers ---
only certain genes (that's why it's special!)
Obligate Aerobes: "Nagging Pests Must Breathe" helps you remember what?
obligate aerobes: Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Bacillus
Obligate Aerobes: Aerobic bacteria commonly found in burn wounds, nosocomial pneumonia, and pneumonias in cystic fibrosis patients?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (an obligate aerobe)
Obligate Aerobes: What bug likes the lungs’ apices and why?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis – because the apices have the highest partial pressure of oxygen
Obligate Anaerobes: If you hear crepitus, indicating gas in tissue, what type of infection do you suspect?
Anaerobic bacterial infection, such as Clostridium, Bacteroides, or Actinomyces (CBA)
Obligate Anaerobes: Which bugs are anaerobic and why?
Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces. Air causes them oxidative damage, because they lack catalase and/or superoxide dismutase.
Obligate Anaerobes: Why are aminoglycoside antibiotics ineffective against anerobic bacteria?
AminO2glycosides require O2 to enter into bacterial cells; anaerobic bacteria aren't where the oxygen is
Intracellular Bugs: Name the 2 obligate intracellular organisms
Rickettsia, Chlamydia - "They stay inside (cells) when it's Really Cold"
Intracellular Bugs: Why do they need the host's cell?
They can't make ATP
Intracellular Bugs: Name 7 facultative intracellular organisms
Mycobacterium, Brucella, Francisella, Listeria, Yersinia, Legionella, Salmonella
Intracellular Bugs: AUTHOR
Olga Kulinets
Encapsulated Bacteria: List 4 examples of encapsulated bacteria
Streptococcus Pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Klebsiella pneumoniae
Encapsulated Bacteria: What is the main virulence factor of encapsulated bacteria and why?
Polysacharide capsule is antiphagocytic
Encapsulated Bacteria: What is a necessary component of humoral immune response to encaps. Bacteria?
Encapsulated Bacteria: What vaccines are available for encapsulated bacteria?
Pneumovax, H. influenzae, meningococcal
Encapsulated Bacteria: What serves as vaccine antigen?
Encapsulated Bacteria: What laboratory test can be used to detect the presence of encapsulated bacteria?
Quellung reaction - capsule swells when specific anticapsular antisera are added - "Quellung = capsular swellung"
Encapsulated Bacteria: What complications/clinical signs is pneumococcus associated with?
Rusty sputum, sepsis in sickle cell anemia, and splenectomy
Spores: Bacterial: What kind of bacteria form spores and when?
Certain gram-positive rods when nutrients are limited
Spores: Bacterial: Name 3 spore-formers
Bacillus anthracis, C. perfringens, C. tetani = gram positive soil bugs
Spores: Bacterial: T or F: Spores are highly resistant to destruction by heat and chemicals
Spores: Bacterial: Spores have ___ acid in their core
Spores: Bacterial: T or F: Spores are metabolically active
False. Spores have no metabolic activity
Spores: Bacterial: What disinfecting procedure kills spores?
Autoclaving (ex/ surgical equipment)
Alpha-hemolytic Bacteria: What organisms are alpha-hemolytic?
Pneumococci, viridans strep
Alpha-hemolytic Bacteria: Pneumococci are catalase ___ and optochin ___
Pneumococci are catalase negative and optochin sensitive
Alpha-hemolytic Bacteria: Viridans strep are catalase ___ and optochin ___
Viridans strep are catalase sensitive and optochin resistant
Beta-hemolytic Bacteria: What organisms are beta-hemolytic?
Staph aureus, strep pyogenes, strep agalactiae, lysteria monocytogenes
Beta-hemolytic Bacteria: Staph aureus is catalase ___ and coagulase ___
Positive, positive
Beta-hemolytic Bacteria: Strep pyogenes is catalase ___ and bacitracin __
negative, sensitive
Beta-hemolytic Bacteria: Strep agalactiae is catalase __ and bacitracin__
negative, resistant
Beta-hemolytic Bacteria: Where is Lysteria monocytogenes found, and what is its characteristic pathology and laboratory appearance?
Unpausterized milk, miningitis in newborns, tumbling motility
Catalase/Coagulase: What are catalase and coagulase tests used for?
Catalase is used to distinguish staph (+) from strep (-), coagulase is used to distinguish S. aureus (+) from S. epidermis (-) and S. saprophyticus(-)
Catalase/Coagulase: How is catalase a virulence factor?
It degrades H2O2, an antimicrobial product of PMNs that is a substrate for myeloperoxidase
Staph aureus: What is the function of protein A?
Virulence factor - binds to Fc-IgG and inhibits complement fixation and phagocytosis
Staph aureus: TSST is a ___ (type of virulence factor) that binds to ___ (2 types of receptor) and causes ___ of ___ (type of cells) leading to ___ (disease)
TSST is a superantigen that binds to MHC II and T-cell receptor and causes polyclonal activation of T-cells leading to toxic shock syndrome
Staph aureus: 3 toxins of S. aureus and a syndrome caused by each
TSST- 1 - toxic shock syndrome, exfoliative toxin - scalded skin syndrome, enterotoxins - rapid-onset food poisoning
Staph aureus: T/F - S. aureus causes acute bacterial endocarditis
Staph aureus: T/F - S. aureus causes skin disease and organ abscesses, but not pneumonia
False - causes all 3
Staph aureus: T/F - S. aureus food poisoning is due to bacterial infiltration of the intestinal wall
False - it is due to ingestion of preformed enterotoxin
Strep Pyogenes: T/F: strep pyogenes is catalase negative and bacitracin sensitive
Strep Pyogenes: 3 pyogenic manifestations of strep pyogenes
pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo
Strep Pyogenes: Which is not a toxigenic manifestation of strep pyogenes: scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, TSS, acute glomerulonephritis
Rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis are immune-mediated
Strep Pyogenes: List 5 signs and symptoms characteristic of rheumatic fever
PECCS: polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, chorea, carditis, subcutaneous nodules
Enterococci: T/F: Enterococci are penicillin G sensitive and show variable hemolysis
F - they are resistant, but do have variable hemolysis
Enterococci: Lancefield group D includes ___ and ___, which can be differentiated through ___ (lab test)
Enterococci and non-enterococcal Group D strep. Enterococci can grow on 6.5% NaCl, and non-enterococci cannot.
Enterococci: Lancefield grouping is based on ___ on the bacterial cell wall
C carbohydrate
Viridans Strep: Viridans Strep are ___ hemolytic
Viridans Strep: Strep mutans causes ___
dental caries
Viridans Strep: S. sanguis causes ___
bacterial endocarditis
Viridans Strep: How do you differentiate viridans strep from S. pneumoniae in the laboratory?
Both are alpha-hemolytic, but viridans strep is resistant to optochin (live in the mouth, not afraid of-the-chin)
Clostridia: T/F: Clostridia are gram-positive, spore-forming, microaerophilic bacteria
False - they are obligate anaerobes
Clostridia: Name 4 types of Clostridia and disease caused by each
Tetanus - tetanic paralysis, Botulinum - flaccid paralysis, Perfringens - gangrene, Difficile - diarrhea
Clostridia: How does Clostridia cause tetanic paralysis?
Exotoxin blocks glycine (inhibitory neurotransmitter) release from Renshaw cells in spinal chord leading to tetanic paralysis
Clostridia: How does C. botulinum cause flaccid paralysis?
Preformed, heat - labile toxin inhibits ACh release
Clostridia: T/F: C. perfringens produces alpha-toxin, a globulin that causes myonecrosis, gas gangrene, or hemolysis
False - alpha-toxin is a lecithinase
Clostridia: What causes pseudomembranous colitis? How is it treated?
Cytotoxin, an alpha toxin produced by C. diff, usu after antibiotic use (clindamycin ar ampicillin). Treat with metronidazole.
Diphtheria: Exotoxin is encoded by ___ and ihibits ___ by ADP-ribosylation of ___
beta-prophaage, protein synthesis, EF-2
Diphtheria: T/F: Symptoms of diphtheria include pseudomembranous pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and hematuria
Does not cause hematuria
Diphtheria: Lab tests for Diphtheria
Gram-positive, club-shaped rods with metachromatic granules; grow on tellurite agar
Diphtheria: ABCDEFG of diphtheria
ADP ribosylation, Beta-prophage, Corynebacterium, Diphtheriae, EF-2, Granules
Anthrax: Anthrax is caused by ___ (bacteria)
Bacillus anthracis
Anthrax: T/F: Bacillus anthracis is spore-forning and gram negative rod
FALSE - it is a gram-positive rod
Anthrax: What is the progression of anthrax?
Contact leads to malignant pustule (painless ulcer) which can progress to bacteremia and death
Anthrax: What is woolsorter's disease?
Life-threatening pneumonia caused by inhalation of spores
Anthrax: Characteristic lesion of anthrax
Black skin lesions - vesicular papules covered by black eschar
Actinomycis Vs. Nocardia: Actinomycis, Nocardia are gram___ rods that form long-branching filaments resembling fungi
Actinomycis Vs. Nocardia: What air requirement do actinomysis and nocardia have?
Actinomyces is an anaerobe and nocardia is an aerobe
Actinomycis Vs. Nocardia: A vs. N (pick one): pulmonary infection in immunocompromized
Actinomycis Vs. Nocardia: A vs. N (pick one): oral/facial abscess with sulfur granules that may drain through sinus tracts in skin
Actinomycis Vs. Nocardia: A vs. N (pick one): Normal oral flora
Actinomycis Vs. Nocardia: A vs. N (pick one): Weakly acid fast
Actinomycis Vs. Nocardia: What treatment do you use for actinomycis? For nocardia?
SNAP - sulpha for nocardia; actinomyces use penicillin
Penicillin and gram-neg bacteria: Gram negative bugs are ___ to benzyl penicillin G and ____ to penicillin derivatives such as ampicillin
resistant, may be susceptible
Penicillin and gram-neg bacteria: T/F: Vancomycin can enter gram-negative bacteria
False - gram-negative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of penicillin G and vancomycin
Name bacteria associated with food poisoning from the following sources:: Reheated rice
Bacillus cereus
Name bacteria associated with food poisoning from the following sources:: Contaminated seafood
Vibrio parahemolyticus and vulnificus
Name bacteria associated with food poisoning from the following sources:: Meats, mayonaise, custard
S. aureus
Name bacteria associated with food poisoning from the following sources:: Reheater meat dishes
C. perfringens
Name bacteria associated with food poisoning from the following sources:: Improperly canned food
C. botulinum
Name bacteria associated with food poisoning from the following sources:: Undercooked meat
E. coli 0157:H7
Name bacteria associated with food poisoning from the following sources:: Poultry, meat, eggs
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Ferments lactose and causes non-bloody diarrhea
enterotoxigenic E. coli
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Comma-shaped organism
Vibrio cholerae
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Does not ferment lactose, motile, bloody diarrhea
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Does not ferment lactose, nonmotile, very low ID50, bloody diarrhea
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Comma or S-shaped, growth at 42 degrees, bloody diarrhea
Campylobaxter jejuni
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Transmitted by seafood
Vibrio parahemolyticus
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Transmitted through pet feces (puppies), bloody diarrhea
Yersenia enterocolitica
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Rice-water stools
Vibrio cholerae
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: 4 non-bacterial causes of non-bloody diarrhea
Virus - rotavirus, norwalk virus; protozoan - Cryptosporidium and Giardia
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Ferments lactose and causes bloody diarrhea
E. coli 0157:H7
Name diarrheal organism associated with the following:: Protozoan cause of bloody diarrhea
Entamoeba histolytica
Enterobacteriaceae: Lab tests for enterobacteriaceae
Ferment glucose, oxidase negative
Enterobacteriaceae: T/F: Enterobacteriaceae includes E.coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, Proteus, and Pseudomonas
False - does not include Pseudomona
Enterobacteriaceae: Describe O, K, and H antigens
O - somatic, polysacharide of endotoxin; K - capsular, related to virulence; H - flagellar, found in motile species
Haemophilus Influenzae: Name 4 diseases caused by H. influenzae
epiglottitis, meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia
Haemophilus Influenzae: T/F - H. influenzae is a large gram-negative rod
False - it is a small (coccobacillary) gram-negative rod
Haemophilus Influenzae: H. influenzae is transmitted by ____ and invasive disease is caused by capsular type ___. It produces ___ protease.
aerosol, B, IgA
Haemophilus Influenzae: Culture on ___ agar requires ___ and ___
Chocolate agar, Factor V (NAD), X (hematin)
Haemophilus Influenzae: T/F: H. influenzae causes the flu.
False - influenza virus causes flue
Haemophilus Influenzae: Use ___ to treat H. influenzae meningitis and ___ for prophylaxis of close contacts.
Ceftriaxone, rifampin
Haemophilus Influenzae: T/F: H. influenzae vaccine contains type D capsular polysacharide conjugated to enterotoxin
False: vaccine contains type B capsular polysacharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein
Haemophilus Influenzae: When is the H. influenzae vaccine given?
Btw 2 and 18 months of age
Legionella Pneumophilia: Legionella Pneumophilia is a gram___ rod
Legionella Pneumophilia: It will grow on ___ yeast extract with ___ and ___, and should be treated with ___
Charcoal, iron, cysteine, erythromycin
Legionella Pneumophilia: T/F: Legionella pneumophilia is transmitted through environmental water source habitat.
Legionella Pneumophilia: T/F: Legionella is transmitted person to person.
False - no person to person transmission
Pseudomonas Aerugenosa: T/F: Pseudomonas Aerugenosa is anaerobic gram-negative rod found in water sources
False - it is AERobic (AERuginosa)
Pseudomonas Aerugenosa: Name 5 infections commonly caused by Pseudomonas
Pneumonia (esp. in CF), sepsis, external otitis, UTI, hot tub folliculitis
Pseudomonas Aerugenosa: T/F: Pseudomonas Aerugenosa ferments lactose and is oxidase-negative
False - P. Aurugenosa does not ferment lactose and is oxidase negative
Pseudomonas Aerugenosa: Blue-green pigment produced by P. Aerugenosa
Pseudomonas Aerugenosa: What 2 toxins does P. Aerugenosa produce?
Endotoxin (causes fever and shock), exotoxin A (inactivated EF-2)
Pseudomonas Aerugenosa: What is the treatment for P. aeruginosa
Aminoglycoside plus extended-spectrum penicillin (piperacillin, ticarcillin)
Pseudomonas Aerugenosa: What kind of injury makes a person especially susceptible to P. aeruginosa infection?
Helicobacter Pylori: What conditions does H. pylori cause and is a risk factor for?
Causes gastriti and 90% of duodenal ulcers, risk of peptic ulcer, gastric carcinoma
Helicobacter Pylori: T/F: H. pylori is a gram-negative rod that creates an alkaline environment
Helicobacter Pylori: What is a test for H. pylori?
Urease breath test
Helicobacter Pylori: What is the treatment for H. pylori?
Triple therapy - bismuth, metronidazole, and tetracycline or amoxicyclin OR more expensive metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin
Helicobacter Pylori: What 2 bacteria are urease positive?
H. pylori and Proteus
Lactose - fermenting enteric bacteria: What culture technique differentiates lactose fermenting from non-fermenting bacteria?
Lactose fermenters grow pink colonies on MacConkey's agar (Lactose is KEE)
For the following, state if they ferment lactose:: Klebsiella
Ferments lactose
For the following, state if they ferment lactose:: Salmonella
Does not ferment
For the following, state if they ferment lactose:: E.coli
Ferments lactose
For the following, state if they ferment lactose:: Staph Aureus
Does not ferment
For the following, state if they ferment lactose:: Enterobacter
Ferments lactose
For the following, state if they ferment lactose:: Citrobacter
Ferments lactose
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: Select salmonella, shigella, or both:
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: Non-lactose fermenter
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: Motile
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: Invades futher, disseminates hematogenously
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: More virulent
Shigella (10e1 innocumlum compared to 10e5 innoculum for Salmonella)
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: Symptoms prolonged with antibiotic treatment
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: Has an animal resevoir
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: Invade intestinal mucosa causing bloody diarrhea
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: What immune cell type predominantly responds to Salmonella?
Salmonella Vs. Shigella: How is Shigella transmitted?
4 f's: food, fingers, feces, and flies
Cholera and Pertussi toxins: How does Vibrio Cholerae toxin work?
Permanently activates Gs causing rice-water diarrhea
Cholera and Pertussi toxins: How does Pertussis toxin work?
Permanently disables Gi, causing whooping cough, also promotes lymphocytosis by inhibiting chemokine receptors
Cholera and Pertussi toxins: What do Pertussis toxin and Choleratoxin have in common?
Act via ADP ribosylation that permanently activates adenyl cyclase, resulting in increased cAMP

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