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Glossary of Pilot MQF March 2004

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A Pilot in Command (PIC) may deviate from any flight rule only when:
An in-flight emergency requires immediate action;

deviation is required to protect lives;

when safety of flight dictates.
Which of the following is true concerning "minimum fuel"?

- Indicates an aircraft's fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching the
destination, it can accept little or no delay.
- When operating in FAA airspace,
- When operating in FAA airspace, pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the
controlling agency when in their judgment the aircraft may land at the intended
destination with less than the required/emergency fuel reserve.
Cellular phones can be used at anytime during VMC flight below 10,000ft
False
Each crewmember must have an operable flashlight.
True
The PIC will sign the flight plan. The signature (or act of filing by a
means that precludes signing, such as by phone, radio, or computer) is evidence of
approval and means:
The flight was properly ordered and released and current NOTAMs, weather, and other pertinent flight data were obtained.

The PIC is aware of the responsibility for safety of the aircraft or formation and its occupants.

The flight will be conducted according to governing directives and the formation lead ensured each member of the formation flight was briefed on all pertinent
aspects of the planned flight

all of the above
While under the influence of alcohol or its after effects. Alcohol and its after effects can
adversely affect flight duties that impact safety of flight. Aircrew shall not consume
alcoholic beverages within ___ hours of take-off.
12
The PIC is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is not operated in a careless or
reckless manner or which could endanger life or property, and that all off-station
training activities meet a valid training requirement, present a positive
True
If aircraft are approaching each other head-on or approximately so, each shall alter
course to the right.
True
USAF helicopter pilots are prohibited from accepting LAHSO clearances.
False
Helicopters may operate from other than established landing areas (fields, highways,
parks, etc.) if:
A military requirement exists,

permission to use the area is obtained,

no hazards to
people or property exist, and

no legal objections are apparent

or when conducting
an operational mission.
Pilots operating retractable gear aircraft must report "gear down" to the ATC agency or
runway supervisory unit after extending the landing gear. This report shall be made
during any approach to an airport prior to:____________
crossing the runway threshold
Pilots must fly higher than 2,000 feet (mission permitting) above the terrain over
national parks and wildlife refuges even if they are within low-altitude tactical navigation
areas.
False
Landing lights will be illuminated below 10,000 feet MSL, day or night, within
operational constraints.
True
How long may helicopter aircrews operate at 13,000 feet MSL if oxygen is not
available?
30 minutes.
Crewmembers who wear corrective spectacles or contact lenses must carry a
spare set of clear prescription spectacles on their person while performing aircrew
duties.
True
Helicopters may fly under SVFR with the following provisions:
Obtain an ATC clearance.

Remain clear of clouds.

If operating under the clear of clouds weather criterion, fly at a speed that will allow
the opportunity to see any traffic or obstruction in time to avoid a collision.

all of the above
Helicopter pilots planning a fixed-wing approach procedure may use the Category A
MDA or DH, regardless of airspeed flown. The required visibility minimum may be
reduced to one-half of the published visibility minimums for Category A aircraft,
1/4, 1200
An alternate is required when the worst weather (Tempo or prevailing) at the ETA(±1
hour) for the first point of intended landing (or each point of intended landing on a
stopover flight plan), is less than:(helicopters)
A ceiling of 700 ft, or a visibility of 1 SM
Helicopter IFR takeoff minimums are:
Equal to or better than published landing minimums.
Flight Duty Period begins:
when a crewmember reports for a mission, briefing, or other official duty.
You cannot fly as a primary crewmember within ____ hours of compressed gas diving
(including scuba/HEEDS training); surface supplied diving, or hyperbaric (compression)
chamber exposure and aircraft pressurization checks that exceed 10 minutes
24
Crewmembers noncurrent in mission events may still conduct FCFs.
True
Do not schedule crewmembers to fly or perform crew duties after consuming alcoholic
beverages within ___ hours of mission reporting time or within ___ hours of assuming
alert or standby duty, or when under the influence of alcohol.
12 / 12
Crewmembers will not be scheduled to fly or perform crew duties within ____ hours
after being administered anesthetics for dental or surgical procedures.
24
Mild analgesics, such as aspirin and aspirin substitutes may be used without a
prescription when the underlying illness itself is not a cause for grounding.
True
Crew duty limitations for training flights and FCFs is ____ hours. Crew duty limitations
for exercise and contingency missions is ____ hours. No tactical training will be
accomplished after___ hours.
12, 14, 12
Helicopter operations will not be conducted with any malfunction in the main fuel tank
____ or ____ systems, except on emergency missions.
quantity/ warning
If a malfunctioning tail skid can not be secured in the down position:
transition or emergency procedure training and approaches to a low hover or
touchdown will not be accomplished.
When a minor inflight malfunction of the AFCS occurs which can be isolated:
Flight may be continued at the pilot's discretion, IAW the H-53 flight manual
A checklist is not complete until all items have been called for and responded to
______.
in sequence
Notes amplifying checklist procedures and limitations may be added. Currency of notes
is the crewmembers responsibility.
True
Aircraft Commanders may authorize passengers to sit in the Flight Engineer's seat
during takeoff/landing as long as the Engineer is monitoring over the shoulder.
False
______ are mandatory calls for the non flying pilot during a non-precision approach.
Go-around/Runway in sight.

100 feet above MDA.
_____ are mandatory calls for the non flying pilot during a precision approach.
100 feet above DH, Land, Go around.
Any crewmember observing heading deviations, airspeed deviations of ____ knots,
altitude deviation of ____ feet or potential terrain or obstruction problems will
immediately advise pilot flying.
10/100
All crewmembers will listen to ________. Clearance is required from the aircraft
commander prior to going off interphone.
interphone and hot mike
What are the wind restrictions for training/exercise missions without an instructor pilot?
30 kts steady and 20 kts gust spread
For operational or support missions, discontinue flights when surface winds exceed:
Flight Manual Limits
A new or corrected DD Form 365-4, Weight and Balance, need not be recomputed
provided the initial takeoff gross weight is not changed by more than ____ lbs.
500
Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least____ feet; with wing walkers,
by at least ____ feet.
25/10
One crewmember will escort passengers through the safe approach zone when
on or off loading the aircraft, in non-threat or non-combat training environments.
True
During day VFR training, if the visibility is less than 2 miles, you may still fly if:
visibility is 1 mile or greater.

the ceiling is 700 feet or higher.
Unaided Night VFR training flights without Pave Low systems requires a ____ foot
ceiling and ____ miles visibility.
1000, 2
For all flights, VFR or IFR, plan to arrive at your destination with a fuel reserve of
________.
900 lbs
For flight planning purposes, when visibility only criteria is used, fuel requirements for
descent, approach, and missed approach will be ___lbs.
900
Flights may be made into areas of known thunderstorms if VMC is maintained and
thunderstorm activity is avoided by:
5 NM
LPU's will be worn by crewmembers and passengers on over water flights
when__________.
Beyond autorotational gliding distance from shore
Do not initiate fuel dumping except for_____________.
MAJCOM or higher headquarters approved exercise missions

emergencies, operational and contingency missions
To report "am being hijacked," set the transponder to:
mode 3 code 7500
During a hijack attempt: To report "situation appears desperate", change from code
____ to ____.
7500/7700
After the start of a hijacking, the crew may indicate to ATC that in the clear
communications are not possible by using the word "____" after the aircraft call sign
prefix.
trip
Power recovery autorotations require the aircraft to be aligned within ____ degrees of
the wind direction when winds are 15 knots or greater; below 15 knots, aircraft heading
must be within ____ degrees of the wind.
45, 90
AFCS OFF will be initiated on the ground or in straight and level flight at a minimum
altitude of ____ and ____ KIAS.
300/80
The minimum crew required for night tactical training is:
6 (P, CP, FE, FE, AG, AG)
Weather minimums for night training while using ANVIS/ITT 4949 NVGs/Pave Low are:
500 feet / 2 SM
All HLZ's require surveys. Surveys must be updated every ____ by an instructor
qualified aircrew member or qualified combat controller
6 Months
Personnel will wear anti-exposure suits on any preplanned over water flight which is
beyond autorotational distance from land and the water temperature is ____ degrees
fahrenheit or less.
50
Position lights may be extinguished for formation training flights when using NVGs at
night below ___ ft AGL (CONUS Only).
200
Without a fully operational MH-53, illumination equivalent to __ moon disk is
required. Starlight is considered to be ___.
5%, 8%
Fully operational (functional FLIR and RADAR) MH-53J aircraft have no enroute
illumination restrictions.
True
Conduct all operations at or above ____ AGL except when lower altitudes are required
for takeoffs, landing, operational missions, training flights in approved areas or routes,
and approved exercise missions.
300
Helicopters are limited to a base altitude of ____ feet above obstacles during day/night
low-level tactical operations.
50
When sufficient illumination is not available to conduct NVG low-level operations,
conduct flights at a minimum altitude of ___feet above the highest obstacle within ___
NM.
500/5
The radar altimeter ______ be operational for night, low-level tactical events.
will
The radar altimeter will be operational for night, low-level tactical events.
true
When not directly involved in the refueling operation, personnel will remain at least ___
from the aircraft.
50'
It is recommended that pilots set their radar altimeters for low-level flight to ____% of
the height they intend to fly.
80
When landing to a surface area smaller than your rotor diameter, such as a pinnacle,
power for a/an ____ hover should be available.
OGE
When landing to an area where the flat surface is not at least two rotor diameters,
___________ should be available.
Hover power +5%
The training power restrictions for remote area operations with a clear escape route
are______.
Hover power +5%
The training power restriction for a landing area which has a restricted escape route is:
OGE hover power +5%
Horizontal obstacle clearance, other than contingency operations and DLQ's, will be no
less than _____from the rotor tip path plane.
25 feet
Initiate evasive maneuver training at, and maintain a minimum of ____ feet obstacle
clearance during evasive maneuvers.
100
Live hoist training may be conducted with the hoist operator's intercom inoperative.
False
Inspect the entire length of the hoist cable any time a live hoist is anticipated.
True
The forest penetrator can be used to recover inert or injured personnel safely, including
those with back injuries.
False
The tag line may be used to pass messages or transfer small items to or from the
helicopter.
True
It is the Gunners responsibility to ensure that all crewmembers are aware of the length
of ropes.
False
When conducting rope ladder operations, limit the number of personnel on the ladder
at any one time to ____ forward and ____ aft (recommended).
5/5
During helo cast/boat delivery operations, if the team is exiting from the door and ramp,
the door delivery will be executed first.
False
During soft duck delivery operations, the team members and crewmembers will
prepare the boat for drop by removing tie down straps except bow or stern line at the
"____ minute" call.
1
"An operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize"
defines:
Note
"Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which will result in damage to equipment if not
carefully followed" defines:
Caution
A "Warning" in the -1 means an operating procedure, technique, etc,:
which will result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
The word "SHOULD" is used.
when application of a procedure is recommended.
The cargo floor of the MH-53J is stressed for flight loads of ____ pounds per square
foot.
300
The engine overspeed protection system actuates at approximately _____.
114% Nf
The engine speed trim switches ______ beep the engine RPM below MIN GOV range
of the engine fuel control.
Will.
The pilot's engine speed trim switches always have overriding authority over the
copilot's.
True
Placing the Emergency Start Switch in Emergency:
bypasses the rotor brake interlocks and the blade fold system
The engine oil temperature gauges should be constantly monitored when the
engines are operating and the rotor is not turning, as the engine oil coolers are not
operating.
True
The APP is adjusted for operation up to _____.
10,000' PA
The APP should only be operated in flight during an emergency or when the aircraft
must be operated near maximum power.
False
The APP:
should only be operated in flight during an emergency.
MH-53J Fuel consumption for the APP is ___ pounds per hour.
100
The APP emergency start switch, marked APP BYPASS is used to bypass the ____
circuit breaker(s) when in the EMER position.
high EGT

low oil pressure
Should an object (door, window, inspection panel, etc.) be lost in flight:
land at the nearest airfield.

land at the nearest suitable landing area if a vibration is experienced.
What will cause the blade pressure caution light to illuminate.
loss of pressure in the spar

failure of the radiation detector

failure of the signal processor
The Low Pressure Rotor Brake system contains switches to ensure that the low
pressure system cannot be activated, except when both throttles are in the ____
position.
Shutoff
The high pressure rotor brake system can stop the rotors from 100% Nr within ____
seconds.
30
What components does the Accessory gear box drive?
#2 gen, 2nd stage pump, winch hyd pump, util hyd pump, AGB oil pump.
The Priority Valve ensures hydraulic pressure to the ____.
rescue hoist, AFCS 2, 1/2 tail rotor servo.
There is no interlock to prevent turning off the first stage system to the tail rotor servo if
there is no pressure in the utility system.
True
It is impossible to turn off 1st or 2nd stage hyd with the collective servo switches unless
there is ___ psi in the remaining system.
2000
The SERVO OUT caution light indicates a ______.
servo failure

servo has been subjected to a loss of pressure

an electrical failure has occurred in the servo pressure switch

any of the above
If the copilot's DC AFCS circuit breaker should pop with AFCS 1 servo engaged:
a simultaneous loss of all AFCS functions will occur immediately.
If one AFCS amplifier is off and the other malfunctions to a full hardover condition, the
aircraft may pitch as much as __ degrees, if unopposed by the pilot.
30
Extreme caution should be exercised when operating with only one AFCS roll amplifier.
If one amplifier is off and the operative amplifier malfunctions to a full hardover
condition, the amplifier, if unopposed by pilot's cyclic inputs, will caus
20
The coordinated turn circuits of the AFCS will deactivate at airspeeds less than _____.
60
If the MGB chip light illuminates and remains on after pressing the Master Caution
light, _____.
the chip is not in the sump.

the fuzz burner didn't burn it off.
The fuel dump system:
will pump all main fuel overboard except for about 20 minutes worth.
The underfrequency protection is provided to prevent possible equipment damage
when Nr drops below ___ to ___% and is not available when ____
92 to 94, weight of the helicopter is removed from the landing gear.
The battery switch must be on to allow the battery to charge.
True
If the battery charger circuit breaker is popped:
only battery power will be available to the battery bus

If the battery runs down or is switched OFF, fire detection, fire warning, and voice
warning systems will be inoperative
The tail skid can withstand impacts up to ___ fpm.
The tail skid can withstand impacts up to ___ fpm.

480
The tail skid will automatically retract when the cargo ramp is lowered and _____.
the weight of the helicopter is on the landing gear
The parking brake handle can be in the ON position, and the parking brake
advisory light illuminated, without the parking brake actually being set.
True
With the utility hydraulic system not pressurized, the wheel brakes
loaded to the design gross weight, on a __ degree slope.
10
Should a leak, break, or blockage occur in a Pitot Line ___.
inaccurate readings are probable on the pilot's airspeed indicator.

inaccurate readings are probable on the copilot's airspeed indicator.

coordinated turn and landing gear up warning systems will be adversely affected.

all of the above.
The VGI transfer switch (marked "Norm" and "Alt"):
transfers attitude references going to the pilot's and copilot's attitude indicators.
Selecting STBD GYRO on the attitude/heading mode switch:
causes stbd gyro information to be fed to the pilot's attitude indicator.

causes stbd gyro information to be fed to the #2 AFCS amp.

causes stbd gyro information to be fed to the TF/TA Radar, Doppler, and SGU

all of the above
On the Hover Indicator, the "A" mode is used to monitor ___.
combined outputs if AFCS 1 & 2 pitch and roll along with output of Yaw and Alt
amp.
The pilot's/copilot's seat belt and shoulder harness will be fastened/checked and worn
anytime the crew seat is occupied during flight.
True
The cabin heater should be turned off:
10 minutes before removing electrical power from the system.
Ensure engine anti-ice systems are turned on whenever outside air temperature is ___
or below.
10 degrees C
Place the windshield anti-ice switches in the _____ position before going to the _____
position.
low, high
Windshield anti-ice should be turned on:
below 5 degrees C in visible moisture.
When transmitting on UHF guard:
do not use the "both" position as the noise from both receivers will make incoming
signals unreadable.
During ground operation of the HF communication system, ensure that personnel are
clear of the HF antenna. Serious burns may result if_____.
Bodily contact is made with the antenna during transmissions.
If the sight gauges are stained to include general cloudiness, partial obstruction and/or
fading on either the intermediate or tail gearbox; it may be impossible to verify proper
servicing of the gearbox. If either of the sight gauges are stain
True
Prior to APP start ensure:
a main rotor blade is at the 12 to 1 o'clock position.
If the auxiliary fuel tank jettison switches are activated:
the tanks will jettison any time the battery bus is energized.
If the 2nd STAGE HYD FLUID HOT or UTIL FLUID HOT caution lights illuminate
during APP ground operations:
move the flight controls to circulate the fluid.

check the HEAT EXCH BLOWER CONT circuit breaker.
APP start should be aborted for:
acceleration hang up more than 5 seconds.

no RPM indication.

EGT over 621 degrees C.

All of the above.
The C-12 compass can be aligned 180 degrees out, as compared to the
standby compass.
True
The maximum allowable difference between the heading indicators and the INU is __
degrees.
5
During second stage and AFCS checks, while switching servos from ON to OFF, jumps
greater than __ inch in the cyclic and __ inch in the collective and pedals are out of
limits.
1/8, 1/16.
Do not move the tail rotor pedals from stop to stop in less than __ seconds to prevent
control linkage distortion or floor delamination.
5
Which of the following best describes the limits of the AFCS indicator bars and
triangles during "Hover Indicators and Trim System Checks."
Centered +- 1/2 index in all modes except +- 1/4 for the horizontal triangle and
centered for the vertical triangle in AFCS mode.
The rotor brake will be used any time ___.
winds exceed 25 knots

close proximity to other aircraft

conditions conducive to blade flapping

all of the above
Ng at idle should be 64% - 67% on a standard day. Idle speed will be higher on warm
days and lower on cold days.
True
If a hot start is indicated by reaching a T5 temperature of ___degrees centigrade
before ground idle, abort the start and ____.
649, turn off the ignition.
The aircraft should be repositioned for engine start if tail winds exceed __ knots or
quartering tail winds exceed __ knots.
10, 5.
The engine should "light off" (increase above ___ % Ng) within ___ seconds
of ______.
32, 10, fuel flow.
When advancing the throttle, normally use ___% torque change. As much as ___%
torque can be used if required in high winds.
40/ 60
The main rotor blades ___ strike the aircraft fuselage if the cyclic is moved full forward
on the ground.
will
If actual power available is less than predicted in an IGE hover, and/or the engine fails
the single point check while in a hover, the helicopter may be flown if:
It passes the in-flight power check

It passes the in-flight single point check
Do not exceed ___ % Q during routine power checks because of excessive nose and
main gearbox wear.
118
Whenever possible, when practicing Maximum Performance Takeoffs and Climbs,
maintain torque at or below ____% to reduce cumulative fatigue damage to the tail
rotor and associated structural components.
100
When operating at gross weights above ____ pounds and density altitudes in excess of
____ feet, rotor rpm should be 105%.
40,000 / 4,000
Unless there is an emergency, the engines must be allowed to cool for ___ minutes
while taxiing or at minimum collective prior to engine shutdown.
1
A post engine shutdown fire can be indicated by a T5 higher than __degrees
centigrade, or excessive smoke coming from the engine.
320
Land as soon as possible means:
Land at the first available area which will assure minimum injury to the crew or
minimum damage to the aircraft.
If ground resonance occurs with high (operating) rotor RPM, immediately
increase power and take off.
True
When an engine failure occurs, what will dictate the action to be followed to effect a
safe landing.
altitude

airspeed

gross weight

all of the above
Do not jettison external fuel tanks during autorotation above ____KIAS and/or ____fpm
rate of descent.
100/1500
A failed engine should not be restarted in flight unless it can be determined that it is
reasonably safe to do. Before restarting engine in flight, allow ____ of gas generator
windmilling with throttle in ___________position to purge the engine
30 seconds/shutoff
At the bottom of an actual autorotation, you should touch down in a ______ pitch
attitude with ______ speed.
10 to 20 degrees nose high, 30 to 45 knots air speed
In the event of a tail rotor drive system failure, the throttles should be split off to provide
a Nr/Nf split (if time permits), but should not be shut-off completely (unless the yaw rate
is uncontrollable) until after the engines are used to a
True
In the event of a fire in the upper deck transmission area:
land immediately.
During a practice autorotative approach, maintain ___ to ____ KIAS.
70-100
During a practice autorotative approach, initiate a gradual flare at ___ feet and
____KIAS.
200 / 85-95
Engine compressor stall is usually indicated by ______.
Torque dropping off to zero, decreasing/hangup of Ng, rapid rise in T5, audible
rumble or hissing sound.
In the event of a dual generator failure:
try resetting the generators.

starting the APP may restore the #2 generator.
In the event of a primary servo unit malfunction, it is possible to turn off the functioning
system by mistake, causing loss of control of the helicopter.
True
Should three or more indications of a main gearbox failure occur:
land immediately
Crews should be aware that a high temperature indication may not be possible with a
total loss of Intermediate or Tail Gearbox oil as the system requires oil to actuate the
warning system.
True
Jettison of the auxiliary tanks is not recommended with more than ___ of fuel in each
tank.
2900 pounds
During the collective bias check, if the torque split is greater than ____% land the
helicopter and adjust the collective bias IAW the flight manual.
4
If the maximum allowable Ng overspeed of ___is exceeded for more than 30 seconds,
the engine will require overhaul.
103.9
If the maximum allowable Ng overspeed of ___ is execeeded for more than 10
seconds, the engine will require overhaul.
104.9
If the maximum allowable Ng overspeed of ___ is exceeded for any time period the
engine will require overhaul.
105.4
Maximum T5 for 10 seconds on the -100 engine is ___ degrees.
850
With both first and second stage hyd pressurized, normal pressure fluctuations can
occur up to +/- ____ psi.
200
With either first or second stage hyd off, the operational stage pressure may drop
transiently, below the normal operating range.
True
The allowable transient overtorque is 140% for ___ seconds.
10
The rotors should not be engaged in winds in excess of ___ knots.
45
The High Pressure rotor brake should not be applied until Nr has decreased to ___%
with one engine driving the rotor.
55
The 30 minute torque limit is ____%
118
The utility hyd system pressure may drop as much as ___ psi during landing gear
actuation.
1000
Maximum continuous torque is ___%
100
The low pressure rotor brake should not be applied above __ % Nr.
55
The 2 minute torque limit is ____ to ___%
118/130
Maximum continuous T5 for the T64-GE-100 engine is _____ degrees C.
774
The normal cruise guide operating range is ___ to ___%
0 to 30
Maximum T5 for 10 minutes on the -100 engine is ___.
835
If you are flying with the following indications, how long can you continue before
reducing power? Torque = 103%, NG = 98.5%, NF = 104%, T5 = 780 degrees C.
30 minutes.
The maximum allowable Nr overspeed is ____%.
125
Maximum RPM for the APP is ___%
110
Maximum airspeed for sideward flight is __ knots.(less than 42,000 lbs. below 7,500
feet)
35
Hovering turns in excess of 360 degrees in ____ seconds are prohibited.
15
OGE hover operations are authorized at gross weights above 46,000 lbs if power
available exceeds power required by at least 5%.
False
The maximum allowable bank angle when flying above 46,000 lbs is ___degrees.
45
To recover from settling with power:
Decrease collective and increase airspeed.
Avoid rates of descent in excess of ____ feet per minute when below _____.
800, translational lift.
If severe lateral or vertical vibrations occur:
land immediately.
Rotor wash disrupts airflow so that indicated airspeed, rate of climb,
computer winds and barometric altimeter readings should not be relied
upon below ___ KIAS.
40
Which of the following is true regarding flight in light and moderate icing?
Planned flights in icing should be restricted to mission essential operations.
Ice and snow should be scraped or chipped off of all control surfaces
(blades) prior to starting engines in a cold weather environment. A hammer works well
for thick ice.
False
Landing down-slope reduces ramp and tail rotor clearance and should be avoided
whenever possible.
True
The ____, ____, ____, and ____ must be operational for proper coupler operations:
AFCS, stick trim, doppler, rad alt
When in the "G" mode, both OFF flags will be displayed on the Hover Indicator
when ____.
the Doppler is in Memory.

the Doppler is OFF.
Have Quick is designed to provide:
the Doppler is in Memory.
the Doppler is OFF.
The TACAN must be set __ channels above or below the cooperating aircraft
channel in order to receive separation distance in the air-to-air mode.
63
The No. 2 needle indicates the ______ and______ bearing from either the TACAN or
the VOR depending on the position of the VOR/TACAN selector switches.
magnetic, relative
The major difference between Ground Navigation (GN) mode and Manual Ground
Navigation (MGN) mode on the ENS is:
MGN will only transfer to KF with weight off wheels but GN will transfer to KF if the
aircraft moves on the ground.
Capture criteria for the ENS is ___NM and a helicopter track angle greater than ___
degrees.
0.5/ 90
Provisions for ____ threat areas are in the ENS mission data base.
15
Provisions for ____ no-fly zones are in the ENS mission data base.
10
It is possible to take ___ ENS updates in the back-up mode. (MC inop)
Flyover

GPS
If the Mission Computer fails, what will become the bus controller and monitor and
report status on the various systems.
CDU
With IN(S) nav mode selected, the mission computer will automatically regress.
False
When performing a flyover update on the ENS, depressing FPQ:
allows you to select a Fixed Point Quality (estimated accuracy of a perfect update)
for that update.

is only used when flying in the Kalman mode.
If the INU malfunctions or is suspected of malfunctioning, select _____with the Attitude
Reference Switch. This will prevent the INU from causing jumps in the tip path plane
through the ________
STBD Gyro/AFCS 2 AMP
Under automatic control, Doppler SHIU display mode will switch from NAV to HOVER
when ground speed falls below ___ kts and will return to NAV when ground speed
increases above ___ kts.
20/ 25
Doppler targets of opportunity, when inserted, will go into waypoint positions ____.
96 - 98
Doppler waypoint "0", which represents present position, can be used _____.
as a FROM waypoint but not as a TO waypoint
Use of the Hover Trim Stick to alter helicopter position while the Position Hold feature
is activated will cause the Doppler to ____.
attempt to return to the original point.
The Radar cannot determine exactly what generates a return. Any Radar return that
generates a Terrain Following climb command or an Obstacle Warning ____ be
treated as an obstacle to be avoided.
must
To prevent damage to TF/TA Radar azimuth and elevation gear drive assemblies, or
possible misalignment of the boresight, set radar to ____ if a radar failure occurs while
airborne.
STBY (or OFF to prevent a fire hazard or serious electrical damage to the
radar and/or associated electronics)
While conducting terrain following (TF) flight operations, adequate climb capability may
not be available to maintain degree angle selected, especially at high gross weight and
density altitude.
True
The TF Radar system is optimized at ___ kts ___ speed.
100/ ground
While TF'ing, ground speeds below __ knots may result in unacceptably low crossing
altitudes.
80.
During TF/TA operations, decent commands can vary from ___ to ___ FPM.
1300 - 2000
The radar altimeter looks forward a total of only ___degrees, and TF/TA radar climb
commands generated by the override feature, are adequate for safe flight , only if
terrain is nearly level.
30
Be alert for any obstacle within ___ of the helicopter. Anything located inside this
minimum range (R min) will not be detected by the Radar.
980 ft
Operating the RADAR with the RADAR FAULT locator test switch in any position other
than _____ will result in erroneous and erratic operation.
OFF
If the pressure-dehumidifier has partially malfunctioned, the RADAR can fail at
altitudes of _____ feet and above.
5000' MSL
What condition is indicated by illumination of the TF FAIL light with no corresponding
full climb command?
Loss of the turn rate power supply (allowing the aircraft to exceed the
turn lead capability with no additional warning).
Use caution while attempting TF flight with the Airborne Boresight switch in TEST.
Radar altimeter override functions are limited when the switch is in the TEST position.
False
The Radar radiation hazard area is within a ___ft radius in a +/- ___ degree sector in
front of the helicopter.
60/ 60
The RADAR will not operate until the ____ minute warmup period is completed.
3
Weather cells that are displayed with circular polarization selected should be ___ as
they represent the area of ___ intensity.
avoided/ greatest
If the aircraft has greater than a 10 degree side drift while TF'ing:
the Radar PPI display will begin collapsing from the side towards the drift.
Which of the following are true regarding TF/TA operations?
DO not attempt terrain avoidance over deep unbroken snow
Which of the following are operative only on the co-pilots RADAR scope?
RCVR Gain

Expand

Hold

All of the above
The TF fail light will illuminate, when the helicopter exceeds a ____ degree per second
turn rate.
4
In the TF mode, the center of the RADAR's vertical scan leads a turn, in the direction of
the turn, by ___ degrees for every degree per second turn rate.
4
If EXPAND is selected while in TF, the TF command will immediately be lost, and
cannot be regained, until coming out of EXPAND.
True
To set the transponder to reply only to Mode 4 interrogations:
ensure the mode 4 switch is on, the master switch is in "normal" and the other
mode switches are in "out."
When the ALR-69 (RWR) is in the OPEN mode, up to ___ symbols can be displayed.
16
Which of the following statements are true regarding the Radar Warning Receiver?
An enemy AI should always be considered a threat regardless of its position on the scope.

Excessive banking may cause the threat bearings to become erratic during
maneuvering.
Absence of any NOISE BAR(s) from the center of the Radar Warning Receiver
indicates:
Detector range is reduced in the frequency band represented by the missing noise bar.
During high power operation, which of the following indicates both transmitters on the
ALQ-157 are operating properly.
Both left and right transmitter lights are on steady.
During ground operations, personnel should be kept at least __ feet from operating
ALQ-157 IR transmitters and cautioned not to look into the filter windows.
12
Do not allow personnel to stand within __ feet of operating ALQ-162 antennas.
6
What guidance systems will the AN/ALE-40 chaff and flare dispenser system deceive?
both A & B
If the aft minigun is fired at an airspeed greater than 120 Knots:
inspect the tail rotor blades during post flight inspection.
The rescue hoist has a ____ pound capacity.
600
The rescue hoist has approximately __ feet of usable cable.
240 feet.

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