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Glossary of KI 5

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A mature follicle is called a _____.
Graafian follicle
The funnel-shaped end of an oviduct is an _____.
infundibulum
____ is the exact location of fertilization.
Oviduct AKA fallopian tube
____ is the anatomical part of the reproductive tract that protects the uterus from infection and passage of foreign material.
Cervix
The age of a mare when she reaches puberty is ____.
12-15 month
The average gestation periods of a bitch is ____.
63-64 days
The average gestation periods of a queen is ____.
63 days
The average gestation periods of a cow is ____.
282 days
The average gestation periods of a mare is ____.
337 days
The average gestation periods of a sow is ____.
114 days
The average gestation periods of a ewe is ____.
145-150 days
The average gestation periods of a doe is ____.
145-150 days
The average gestation periods of a elephant is ____.
600-660 days
The average lengths of the estrous cycle in a cow is ____.
21 days
The average lengths of the estrous cycle in a bitch is ____.
6-12 months
The average lengths of the estrous cycle in a mare is ____.
19-25 days
Nidation is complete ____ days after the cow is fertilized.
30-35
The pituitary hormone that stimulates ovulation is ____.
LH
The hormone that maintains pregnancy is ____.
Progesterone
____ is the milk letdown hormone.
Oxytocin
____ is an accurate method of pregnancy diagnosis in dogs used only during the last trimester.
X-ray
In dairy cows, the hormone ____ is assayed from milk samples for pregnancy diagnosis.
progesterone
A fetus releases the hormone ____, which triggers parturition.
cortisol
Difficult birth is called ____.
dystocia
ET is also called ____.
embryo transfer
____ refers to an animal with testes abnormally remaining in the abdominal cavity.
cryptorchidism
____, ____, and ____ are three accessory sex glands in the male.
Cowper's
seminal vesicles
prostate
A beef heifer should reach puberty by ____ pounds and ____ months.
160-270
8-18
____ is the main male sex hormone.
testosterone
A heifer that is bred and who conceives on May 1 should calve on ____.
Jan 27
Progesterone is primarily produced in the ____. Its many functions include ____.
corpus luteum (CL)

suppressing further heats and maintaining pregnancy
In the United States most sheep are bred in the ____ season.
months ending in 'R'
A sow does not return to heat until after ____.
weaned
What is flushing and what animals practice it?
Nutrition procedure used to increase the ovulation rate by increasing the weight gain just prior to breeding. Involves increasing the amount of grain or quality of forage 2 weeks prior to and 1 week following breeding.

sheep, pigs
List three items you can check for in rectal palpation pregnancy diagnosis.
1. Fetal membrane slip
2. Size increase
3. Cotyledons
A sow that is bred on July 1 should farrow ____.
Oct 12
Mating between the male and female chicken is mainly a matter of joining ____.
cloacas
In chickens, the ____ ovary and oviduct degenerate.
right
Turkey hens are commercially kept for breeding ____ times.
1
The recommended stocking rate for breeding turkeys is ____.
1:10-20
The drake-hen ratio should be ____ for breeding.
1:7
A young rabbit doe should first be bred at about ____ months.
5.5
Doe rabbits are usually rebred when the litter is ____.
weaned
Dairy heifers should be bred when they are ____.
13-15 months or 500-750 lb
The tube that extends from the bladder to the end of the penis carrying semen and/or urine is the ____.
urethra
The sensory and erectile organ of the female located just inside the vulva is the ____.
clitoris
____ causes regression of the corpus luteum.
Prostaglandin (PGF2a)
Waxing occurs prior to birth in this animal.
horse
The milk secretion (production) hormone is ____.
prolactin
An infertile heifer born twin to a bull is called a ____.
freemartin
The hormone ____ stimulates mammary duct development.
estrogen
The hormone ____ has been shown to increase milk yield by as much as 20% when injected daily into the cow.
BST
The cell formed by the union of a sperm and an ovum is a ____.
zygote
An important reproductive characteristic in beef cattle is ____.
the size of scrotum
Sperm is evaluated on the basis of ____.
motility
concentration
morphology
The lengths of estrus in a cow is ____.
18-19 hours
The lengths of estrus in a ewe is ____.
24-36 hours
The lengths of estrus in a doe is ____.
32-40 hours
The lengths of estrus in a mare is ____.
5 days
The lengths of estrus in a bitch is ____.
9 days
Age of puberty for a pig is ____.
Male: 5-8 months
Female: 4-7 months
Age of puberty for a cattle is ____.
Male: 10-12 months
Female: 8-18 months
Age of puberty for a horse is ____.
Male: 13-18 months
Female: 12-15 months
Age of puberty for a chicken is ____.
Both male & female: 22-26 weeks
Age of puberty for a rabbit is ____.
Male: 4-8 months
Female: 3-4 months
Age of puberty for a sheep is ____.
Male: 4-9 months
Female: 5-10 months
A doe kid born in the spring will be large enough to breed at ____ months and ____ pounds.
5-7
10-30
The typical stocking rates for goats is ____.
1:30
The typical stocking rates for sheep is ____.
1:35-60
The typical stocking rates for cattle is ____.
1:25-40
The typical stocking rates for horses is ____.
1:20-30
The typical stocking rates for ducks is ____.
1:7
The typical stocking rates for turkeys is ____.
1:10-20
The typical stocking rates for chickens is ____.
1:12
For maximum fertilization, sows should be bred ____ and ____ hours after the onset of estrus.
twice
12-24
Define the importance of the stigma, blood spot.
Because stigma is free of blood vessels, normally the yolk is free of hemorrhage. On occasion a small blood vessel may be ruptured, causing blood to appear on the yolk as a blood spot.
The eggshell is formed in the ____.
uterus
Pregnancy testing of does by palpation can be done as early as ____ days after fertilization.
10
The reproductive life of rabbit does and bucks does not normally exceed ____ years.
2
Polyestrous seasonal breeders include ____.
pigs, sheep
Roosters should be left with the flock for at least ____.
10-14 days
Bore seamen is stored in ____.
frozen pellets
What hormone or hormones induce superovulation?
FSH or PMSG
What hormone causes the pelvic region to relax prior to birth?
relaxin
When are rams most fertile? Least fertile? Why?
Fall
Summer
Seasonally polyestrus mammal begins the estrous cycle triggered by cool temperatures in the fall. High temperatures cause heat sterility in rams and greater early embryonic death in ewes.
What keeps foreign matter out of the urinary tract?
vulva
The ligament that pulls the testes into the scrotum is the ____.
gubernaculum
Sperm mature in the ____.
epididymis
Before the breeding season, ewes should be ____.
tagged
A mature ram can handle ____ ewes.
35-60
GnRH controls the release of ____ and ____ from the anterior pituitary gland.
FSH
LH
For best fertilization, gilts should be bred on the ____ heat.
12-24 hours after the onset of
Puberty in chickens occurs at ____ weeks.
22-26 weeks
In the male, FSH stimulates ____.
spermatogenesis
In the first breeding season, turkey hens can be expected to produce ____ eggs.
50-120
After insemination, chicken sperm are viable for as long as ____.
32 days
In the male LH stimulates the production of ____.
testosterone
The sensory and erectile organ of the female is the ____.
clitoris
The ____ is also known as the bulbourethral gland.
Cowper's glands
The S curve in the penis of the bull, ram, and boar is the ____.
Sigmoid flexure
Roosters crow because of ____.
testosterone
Roosters produce the highest quality of semen when exposed to ____ hours of light.
14
The endometrial cups produce the unique hormone ____.
PMSG
Pregnant Mare Serum Gonadotropin
____ secretes albumen, or the white of the egg.
Magnum
____ is the shell gland in the hen.
Uterus
____ occurs in about 90% of all heifers and is caused by the breakage of uterine capillaries, which become more fragile with decreasing levels of circulating ____ during the middle of the animal's cycle.
Metestrus bleeding
estrogen
____ is the outermost of the fetal membranes. The fetal part of the placenta develops from it.
Allantois or chorioallantois
____ is the temperature of liquid nitrogen in degrees Celsius.
-196C
____ is a term designating animals that usually produce only one offspring at each pregnancy.
Monotocous
____ is a term designating litter-bearing animals.
Polytocous
____ is white fibrous tissue that formed from a regressing CL.
corpus albicans
____ successfully artificially inseminated a bitch that gave birth to a litter of puppies in the 1780s.
Dr. Spallanzani
____ is the most common method of artificial insemination in horses adn cattle today.
rectovaginal cervical fixation
Most bull semen in the US is stored in ____.
plastic french straws
____ live sperm cells are placed into one unit of semen prior to freezing.
30 million
____ is from the Greek word meaning monster, a complex of recombined DNA from more than one animal source making up an entirely different embryo.
Chimera
Bovine somatotropin that is used commercially today is made by a process called ____.
Recombinant DNA
An indication of estrus in the mare where the vulva opens and closes is called ____.
winking
____ is the trapping of solar energy and its conversion to chemical energy, which is used in the manufacturing of food molecules from carbon dioxide and water.
Photosynthesis
The classificatoin of animals with stomachs divided into four compartments is ____.
ruminant
Examples of animals with stomachs divided into four compartments are ____, ____, and ____.
cows, sheep, goats
____ is the external opening of the lower end of the digestive system in poultry.
vent
____ is a metabolic disorder caused by excessive accumulation of gases in the rumen.
bloat
____ is used as a last resort to treat the disorder caused by excessive accumulation of gases in the rumen.
trocar
The portion of a feed that contains mainly cellulose, lignin, and silica is ____.
acid detergent fiber (ADF)
The greenish yellow pigment produced by the liver and used in emulsifying fats is ____.
bile
____ is the organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in which the hydrogen adn oxygen are in the same proportion as that found in water.
Carbohydrates
The blind pouch located at the point where the small and large intestines meet is the ____.
cecum
____ is the gross energy of a feed minus the energy remaining in the feces.
Digestible energy (DE)
Partially digested feed that moves from the stomach to the small intestine is called ____.
chyme
Animal tissues and bones from animal slaughterhouses and rendering plants that are cooked, dried, and ground and then used as an animal protein supplement are called ____.
tankage
The practice of ingesting feces is ____.
coprophagy or cecotrophy
____ is a classification of animals that eat meat as the main part of their diet.
Carnivore
____ is a classification of animals that eat plants as the main part of their diet.
Herbivore
____ is a classification of animals that eath both meat and plants to balance out their dietary needs.
Omnivore
The process of breaking down feed into simple substances that can be absorbed by the body is called ____.
digestion
____ is the muscular stomach that crushes and grinds the feed and mixes it with digestive juices in birds.
gizzard AKA ventriculus
____ is also called a gullet.
Esophagus
The tubelike passage from the mouth to the stomach is the ____.
esophagus
Ash is also called ____.
mineral
Ether extract determines the ____ content of a feed.
fats
____ is the presence and distribution of fat and lean in a cut of meat.
Marbling
GE - (fecal energy + gaseous energy + urinary energy) = ____
Metabolizable energy (ME)
GE - (fecal energy + gaseous energy + urinary energy + heat increment) = ____
Net energy (NE)
The portion of a feed that is of lower digetibility, consisting of the more insoluble material found in the cell wall (cellulose, lignin, silica, and some protein), is called ____.
Neutral detergent fiber (NDF)
____ is the third compartment of the ruminant stomach.
Omasum
____ is the total of the digestible protein, digestible nitrogen free extract, digestible crude fiber, and 2.25 times the digestible fat.
Total digestible nutrient (TDN)
The most commonly fed nonprotein nitrogen (NPN) is ____.
urea
The last part of the large intestine in mammals (before the anus) is the ____.
rectum
____ is also called honeycomb stomach.
Reticulum
____ is also called manyplies stomach.
Omasum
A ____ is also referred to as a paunch.
rumen
____ is the process of chewing the cud.
Rumination
____ is the true stomach of a cow.
abomasum
____ is the passage of feed nutrients across the intestinal wall into the circulatory system.
Absorption
____ is a feed category that is high in fiber and low in digestible energy.
Roughage
____ is a feed category that is high in digestible energy and low in fiber.
Concentrate
____ is regurgitated food or a large pill for dosing animals.
Bolus
The first milk given by a female after delivery of her young is called ____.
colostrum
A groove in the reticulum between the esophagus and omasum that directs milk in young nursing animals away from the rumen/reticulum is ____.
esophageal groove or reticular groove
The deficiency disorder caused by insufficient iodine consumption is ____.
goiter
Milk sugar is called ____.
lactose
Table sugar is called ____.
sucrose
Another word meaning simple sugar is ____.
monosaccharide
A word meaning two-sugar molecule is ____.
disaccharide
A word meaning many-sugar molecule is ____.
polysaccharide
____ means to chew.
Masticate
The process whereby the animal picks up feed or food is ____.
prehension
____ is the metabolic disorder occurring at or near the time of giving birth caused by a sudden drop in blood calcium levels.
Milk fever
The % of body weight eaten per day by beef cattle is ____%.
2
____ is caused by a deficiency of iron and copper.
Anemia
____ is a metabolic disorder caused by Ca or P deficiency in young growing animals.
Rickets
____ and ____ are the 2 main gases produced int he rumen.
Methan (CH4), CO2
The normal wavelike muscular contractions that propel ingesta through the digestive tract are ____.
peristalsis
____ is a storage pouch off of, but continuous with, the esophagus in poultry; it is used for storage of food materials hastily eaten by the bird.
Crop
____ is used by the chicken as a grinding material to help the gizzard break down large particles of feed into smaller ones.
Grit
____ is a digestive disorder in the horse, brough on by overeating, excessive drinking while hot, moldy feeds, and/or infestation of roundworms.
Colic
Nutrients are absorbed in the simple-stomached animal primarily in the ____.
Ileum
Monogastrics cannot easily digest ____.
fiber
3 common vegetable protein supplements are ____, ____, and ____.
soybean meal, cottonseed meal, linseed meal, peanut meal, legume hays
3 common animal protein feeds are ____, ____, and ____.
fish meal, meat, bone scrapes, tankage
Common high-energy feeds for horses is ____.
oats
Common high-energy feeds for cattle is ____.
barley
Common high-energy feeds for pigs is ____.
corn
A sample of alfalfa hay containing 3% nitrogen would mean a protein content of ____%.
19
If 1lb of corn yields 8 units of energy, 1lb of rendered animal fat would yield ____ units.
18
____ is a mineral required by bacteria to synthesize vitamin B12.
Cobalt
____ vitamins are synthesized by the cow and thus not needed in the ration.
Water soluble
A common condition known as grass tetany is caused by a lack of ____.
Mg
An element necessary for bone growth and found primarily in forages is ____.
calcium
A deficiency of ____ shows up as a paleness of the blood vessels under the eyelid.
iron
Sun-cured hay, gree in color, supplies vitamins ____ and ____.
E, D
The disease rickets is associated with vitamin ____ deficiency.
Ca, P or vitamin D
Night blindness results from a vitamin ____ deficiency.
A
A dairy cow will normally consume ____% of its body weight per day in dry matter.
2
Hardware disease results when sharp objects puncture the walls of the ____.
reticulum
A 600lb steer being full fed a fattening ration would eat about ____lb feed per day.
12
Calcium gluconate is used to treat ____.
milk fever
Swine saliva differs from that of the cow because it contains ____ that begin the digestion process.
amylase
Too much salt in poultry rations can cause the undesirable management of ____ manure.
very wet
Some assistance is provided chickens in swallowing because of the unusual shape of their ____.
forked tongue
Some softening and predigenstion of feed, in poultry, takes place in the ____.
crop
The ventriculus, or ____, serves as the chicken's ____.
gizzard, teeth
In poultry, the digestive system shares a common junction with the ____ and ____ system.
repro, urinary
____ ____ causes the white portion of chicken manure.
uric acid
The main digestion of carbohydrates and proteins is regulated by enzymes secreted by the ____ and eventually absorbed in the ____.
pancreas, duodenum
A 900lb horse eats about ____lb of dry matter (feed) per day.
18
The rabbit's digestive tract is much like that of a ____.
horse
Challenge feeding is used to prevent ____.
ketosis
____ is the main cause of soft pork.
unsatulated fats
____ is the cheapest and most abundant nutrient.
Water
Iron dextran injections are given to ____ to prevent ____ at ____ age.
piglets, anemia, 2-3 days
____ is the true stomach of a chicken.
Small intestine
The closest chickens can come to having teeth is the action simulated by the ____.
gizzard or proventriculus
____ is completely indigestible by all animals.
Lignen
____ is cuased by a deficiency of selenium.
Nutritional muscular dystrophy
____ measures the readily available CHO of a feed.
Nitrogen free extract (NFE)
Excess Se in the diet causes ____ in horses.
toxicity
The % of N in most proteins is ____%.
16
What are the fat-soluble vitamins?
A, D, E, K
An avg horse will consume ____ gal of water per day.
12
____ are the building blocks of carbohydrates.
Sugars
____ is blood sugar.
glucose
A polysaccharide that forms the bulk of plant cell walls is ____.
cellulose
____ is a term, often used by chemists, meaning fat.
Lipids
Chemists, trying to prevent rancidity of fats, developed the ____ process.
hydrogenation
____ is a fat deposit in the muscle tissue.
marbling
_____ commonly occurs in cattle fed large amounts of concentrates, corn silage, or finely chopped roughages.
displaced abomasum
GE stands for
gross energy
Total heat of combustion of a feed burned in a bomb calorimeter
gross energy (GE)
ME stands for
Metabolizable Energy
Energy absorbed and utilized by the animal after subtracting for energy lost in the feces, urine, and gases
metabolizable energy (ME)
DE stands for
Digestible Energy
Energy that was absorbed by the animal after accounting for the energy lost in the feces
Digestible Energy
NE stands for
Net Energy
Most commonly used energy term for determining lactating dairy cows' energy needs; the energy available after removing energy lost in feces, urine, gas, and heat increment
Net Energy
NDF stands for
Neutral Detergent Fiber
______ measures the cell wall of a plant and has an inverse relationship with dry matter intake
Neutral Detergent Fiber
ADF stands for
Acid Detergent Fiber
____ measure of cellulose and lignin in forages and feeds analyzed by boiling the sample in an acid detergent solution
Acid Detergent Fiber
Feed taht is relatively high in energy and low in fiber (<18% crude fiber) and low in energy
concentrate
animal starch
glycogen
feed stuff that is relatively high in fiber (>18% crude fiber) and low in energy
roughage
Bolus of regurgitated feed that a ruminant animal chews during rumination
cud
Metabolic disorder in ruminants in which gas is produced in excess compared to what can be removed; also known as ruminal tympany
bloat
AKA bible stomach
Omasum
VFA stands for
Volatile fatty acids
Acids that's produced in the rumens of ruminants and the ceca of horses and rabbits; provide extensive energy to the animal
Volatile fatty acids
3 VFAs
Acetic
Propionic
Butyric acids
birth canal and area of semen deposit during natural breeding in most species
vagina

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