Glossary of Chiropractic National Boards III

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Multiple punched out lesions of the same size in an Xray of the skull is indicitive of what?
Multiple Myeloma
What is the AKA for Scleraderma?
Systemic sclerosis.
What deformity can be seen in Psoriatic Arthritis?
Pencil-in-cup deformity
Pencil-in-cup deformity can be seen in what condition?
Psoriatic Arthritis.
What sex and age group is represented in Scheurman's disease?
Both males and females of 10 to 16 years of age.
Multiple punched out lesions of different sizes in an Xray of the skull is indicitive of what?
Lytic Mets
What is the AKA for Multiple Myeloma?
What is Vertebral Plana?
Flattening of the vertebra due to cancer.
What is the first sign of Myesthenia Gravis?
A defect in vision.
What type of sound is percussed over the majority of the abdomen?
What kind of headache produces knife-like pain?
Cluster Headache.
What is the age group for temportal arteritis?
ove age 50.
Cluster headaches are seen in what group?
Adolescent to adult males.
What is the AKA for Hyperadrenalism?
Cushing's disease.
What is the AKA for Hypoadrenalism?
Addison's disease.
Signs and symptoms of Cushings disease?
Buffalo hump, moon face, and hirtsuism [hair where there shouldn't be any].
Signs and symptoms of Addison's disease
bronze or brown or tan skin, confusion, orthostatic hypotension
What are the S/S of Reiter's syndrome?
Eye pain, joint pain, heel pain.
A bruit heard over the epigastic region is most likely from what structure?
a renal artery
A diabetic might present with what kind of breath?
fruity breath from ketoacidosis
fruity breath may indicate what?
What is the palpatory finding of a patient with emphysema?
decreased fremitus
What is the percussive finding on a patient with emphysema?
What is a break in the pars called?
An isthmic spondylolesthesis.
A patient with TOS with have pain where?
At the medial border of the forearm, wrist and hand.
TOS affects which part of which plexus?
The lower part of the brachial plexus.
Distal tuft reabsorption,seen in the hand on xray, is a symptom of what disorder?
Which cancer is most likely to metastisize?
What is the reflex for the CN-V and the Pons?
The Corneal reflex
What is the reflex for the CN 5, the Pons, and the Medulla?
The Occulocardiac reflex.
When is a A skin lesion is suspected to be malignant?
When it had irregular borders.
Bonnet's Test is for what?
Piriformis Syndrome.
a positive Oppenheimer's test is indicitive of what?
Is a myelopathy an UMNL or LMNL?
What is Hypercholesterolemia treated with?
Omega 3 Fatty acids.
Where and when does physiological splitting occur?
At S1 upon inspiration.
Which hemorroids are painful?
External hemorroids.
Which hemorroids are painless?
Internal hemorroids.
What Vitamin prevents Beri Beri?
Thiamine/Vitamin B1
What is Thiamine also known as?
Vitamin B1.
Small, raised, red spots with a halo are also known as what?
Cherry angiomas.
where are Bankhart lesions found?
In the shoulder.
Self breast examination should be done when?
1x/M, just after menses.
Is unconjugated biliurubin prehepatic or posthepatic?
Is conjugated biliurubin prehepatic or posthepatic?
Is prehepatic bilirubin conjugated or unconjugated?
is posthepatic bilirubin conjugated or unconjugated?
What is the AKA for AST?
What is the AKA for ALT?
What is the AKA for SGOT?
What is the AKA for SGPT?
Name the conditions that are HLAB-27 positive, sero (RA) negative
Psoriatic artheritis, Enteropathic artheritis, Ankylosising Spondylitis,& Reiter's Syndrome.
If patient has shin splints, what muscle do you want to stretch?
the gastrocnemius.
if the patient has shin splints, what muscle do you want to strengthen?
The tibialis anterior.
Which enzymes are made by the liver?
Cystic Fibrosis will cause what type of deformity?
Barrel Chest deformity.
What type of complication can follow a thigh contusion?
Myositis Ossificans.
How is Osgood Schlaater's disease managed?
Brace the knee.
What structure is likely responsible for lateral knee pain when running downhill?
The Iliotibial Band.
What can the overuse of corticosteroids lead to?
Fracture of the vertebra with an Angular Kyphosis.
Genu Valgus is considered normal in what age group?
2 - 10 year olds.
Genu Varus is considered normal in what age group?
Birth to 1 year olds.
Accomodation checks what Cranial Nerve(s)?
CN II and III.
The Consensual Light Reflex checks what Cranial Nerve(s)?
What is contraindicated for an acute cervical sprain/strain?
Cervical traction.
Pain is ellicited at 35 degrees during a SLR. What is the most likely cause?
Sciatic tension.
Pain is ellicited at less than 20 degrees during a SLR. What is the most likely cause?
SI involvement.
A genetically shortened radius with radial deviation of the wrist is known as what?
Madalung's deformity.
Which bone is adjusted for carpal tunnel syndrome?
The Lunate.
What is the line of drive to correct a subluxated Lunate?
A to P.
What nerve runs through the Cubital Tunnel?
The Ulnar nerve.
Where is the Cubital Tunnel located?
The medial aspect of the elbow.
What is the most common benign tumor in the body?
For a reinforced pisiform contact between the levels of T4 & L2, the doctor makes contact with which hand?
The superior hand.
For a reinforced pisiform contact at T1-T3 & L3-L5, the doctor makes contact with which hand?
The inferior hand.
Where is the contact to correct a left AI sacrum?
At the right sacral base.
What is the initial treatment for Adhesive Capsulitis.
PROM into the painful area.
If Piriformis is the only tissue responsible for pain, what will not be an accompanying factor?
Low back pain.
Facet pain refers to where?
No further than the knee.
Radicular pain is from what?
Nerve root involvement.
What adjusting technique is contraindicated for a spondylolesthesis?
A knee-chest table.
What is the position of choice for a spondylolesthesis?
The knee-chest position.
What is the bacteria associated with peptic ulcers?
Heliobacter pylori.
What condition is contraindicated for axis adjusting?
Numbness described as 'burning' or 'pins and needles' is called what?
Toxic levels of selenium will lead to what?
Dermatitis, and a loss of hairs and nails.
What is the best way to diagnose an Abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A 26 YO male with increase urine frequency and volume, but no dysuria or nocturia is best Dx with what?
Diabetes Mellitus.
What muscle is affected in Tennis Elbow?
Extensor carpi radialis brevis.
Loss of supplemental or associated movement suggests what?
A lesion in the basal ganglia.
What age group does Scheuermann's disease affect, and what does it result in?
Adolescents, and and increase thoracic kyphosis.
Clinic manifestation of hepatitis results in what?
Which muscle is responsible for extension of the leg?
The Quads.
What view is a rotator cuff injury with an avulsion of the Supraspinatus tendon best seen in?
External rotation.
What causes a radiculopathy?
Compression of a nerve root.
What kind of pain does a facet cause?
Scleratogenous pain.
Which are taste receptors?
CN 7, 9 and 10.
What is the AKA for the corticospinal tracts?
The pyramidal tracts.
When are tension headaches the worst?
At the end of the day.
When are potential risks discussed with the patient?
During informed consent.
An increase in basophils indicates what?
Some problem of the blood.
What PT mod is used to treat chronic bronchitis?
Shortwave diathermy.
A positive Lhermitte's is indicative of what?
Multiple Sclerosis.
What condition accompanies rust-colored sputum?
What might accompany a 25mm difference between upper extremity BP and lower extremity BP?
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm.
What kind of pain is experienced with an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm?
Generalized back pain.
What kind of pain is experienced with a dissecting Aortic Aneurysm?
Sharp, stabbing pain.
A decrease in MCV, MCH, and MCHC may indicate what condition?
Iron deficiency anemia.
An increase in MCV, and variable MCH and MCHC may indicate what condition?
A Vitamin B12 deficiency (due to pernicious anemia) and folic acid deficiency.
What does a Shilling Shift to the Left indicate?
Acute appendicitis.
What is the best way to diagnose a cholelithiasis?
How can you distinguish between Bell's Palsy and a stroke?
A patient with Bell's Palsy will be unable to lift their eyebrows or wrinkle their forehead.
The values for alkaline phosphotase are abnormal in what disorders?
Disorders of bone and liver.
An increase in BUN is indicative or what?
A kidney disorder.
Spider angiomas are indicative of what?
A liver disorder.
Levels of what elevate in the blood following a myocardial infaction?
What laboratory findings change in Pancreatitis and Pancreatic Cancer?
Amylase and Lypase.
What lab findings are altered in renal disease?
BUN and Uric acid.
What are the significant lab findings for Muscular Dystrophy?
Elevated CPK and decreased creatinine.
A decrease in BUN is indicative of what?
A liver disorder.
What is the AKA for Myxedema?
What are the 3 findings for Horner's Syndrome?
Ptosis, Miosis and Anhydrosis.
What is periorbital Edema associated with?
Nephrotic syndrome.
What is blepharitis?
Inflammation of the eyelid.
What is exophthalmosis associated with?
Bilaterally: Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism).
Unilaterally: Tumor.
Yellow sclera is associated with what disorder?
When found in a patient other than the elderly, what is Corneal arcus associated with?
What is the AKA for Corneal arcus?
Arcus senilius.
Yellow skin and sclera is indicative of what?
A billirubin problem.
What is a Xanthelasma?
A fatty plaque of the nasal surface of the eyelid, which can be normal or indicative of hypercholesterolemia.
Tabes dorsalis is resposible for what conditions?
Paralysis of CNs 3, 4 and 6, as well as demylination of the posterior columns.
What are the S/S of Tabes dorsalis?
Pupils that accomodate but don't react, difficulty seeing in the dark and loss of proprioception.
Argyll Robertson pupils indicate what?
Tertiary stages of Syphilis.
Eyes that don't react or accomodate indicate what condition?
Multiple Sclerosis.
What is presbyopia?
Loss of lens elasticity due to aging.
What are the S/S of hypothyroidism?
Fatigue, cold intolerance, puffy face, hoarseness and slow speech, dry skin, and constipation.
What are the S/S of hyperthyroidism?
Exophthalmosis, warm moist skin, heat intolerance, palpitations, fast speech, insomnia, and fine hair.
Strict vegetarians are at risk of what?
Vitamin B12 deficiency.
What is the AKA for Tic delouroeux?
Trigeminal neuralgia.
What structures are involved in the "Terible Triad"?
Medial meniscus, MCL and ACL.
What does a positive WLR indicate?
Medial disc involvement.
What muscle should be tightened/stretched to help correct a hyperlordosis?
Strengthen: Hamstrings, Abds, and Gluts.
Stretch: Psoas, Erector spinae, and Quads.
What kind of lifts should one use to correct a hypolordosis?
Heel lifts.
What muscles externally rotate the shoulders?
The Infraspinatus spinatus(major) and the Teres minor (minor).
What condition is responsible for a scissor gait?
Cerebral palsy.
What characterizes Raynaud's Phenomenon?
A triphasic change of skin color: white to blue and then to red (due to a spasm and relax of an artery).
A Shilling Test is used to determine what?
Vitamin B12 deficiency.
Trigeminal neuralgia affects what?
CN 5.
What is the AKA for hyperthyroidism?
Grave's disease.
What is the first sign of Ankylosing Spondylosis?
Shiny corner sign.
Metastasis from cancer is a contraindication for what?
Cervical adjustment.
Is congenital hip dysplasia unilateral or bilateral?
What conditions can result in a scissor gait?
CVA, Multiple Sclerosis, spinal cord trauma or tumor, syringomyelia, pernicious anemia, and cerebral palsy.
What conditions can result in a steppage gait?
Guillian-Barre syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, poliomyelitis, spinal cord trauma, and polyneuropathy.
What conditions can result in a waddling gait?
Congenital hip dysplasia and Muscular dystrophy.
What cord levels does Meralgia paresthetica affect?
At what level is a degenerative spondylolesthesis found?
A spiculated periosteal response is indicative of what?
A laminated periosteal response is indicative of what?
Ewing's sarcoma.
What does a positive
Trendelenburg Test indicate?
Weak Gluteus medius on the contralateral side.
Horner's syndrome is caused by what?
Interruption of the cervical sympathetics.
What are the S/S of Grave's disease?
Goiter, Tachycardia, fine tremors, increased appetite with weight loss, increased DTR's, and exophthalmosis.
A missing pedicle on xray with sclerosing of the opposing pedicle indicates what?
A congenital anomoly.
Where do Chance Fractures occur?
L1, L2 or L3.
What condition is associated with DISH?
How is Proprioceptive Insult defined?
A minor injury that sends a muscle into spasm.
What is Klein's Line used to determine?
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis.
Flattening of the Femor head is associated with what condition?
Legg Calve Perthes.
What is the most common Fx at L1?
A compression Fx.
A missing pedicle on xray with an opposing pedicle that displays no changes indicates what?
Lytic mets.
Compression Fx most likely occur where.
At transitional segments.
What can Pes cavus lead to?
Stress Fx of a metatarsal.
What is the first sign of Hyperparathyroidism?
Rugger Jersey Spine.
Genu valgus is a result of a weakness of what muscle?
What is contraindicated for Codman's excercises?
Acute trauma.
What is the treatment for a Grade 2 shoulder impingement?
A sling (to immobilize the torn labrum).
What caused Neurogenic claudication?
Central canal stenosis.
Bronchial sound are found in what disease?
What is the AKA for Osteochondroma?
Multiple exostosis.
Where is the most common site for an Enchondroma?
In the hand.
What is the AKA for a coin lesion?
A Haratoma.
What is the most common reason for bilateral Protusio acetabuli?
Intolerance to heat is associated with what diseases?
M.S. and Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism)
What is indicated by a positive Murphy's Test?
Gallbladder dysfunction.
What is the most efficient method for diagnosing cholelithiases?
What do nitrates in the urine indicate?
Acute cystitis.
What is the best way to diagnose an AAA?
What are the best exercises for osteoporosis?
White lesions on the tongue that peel off are caused by what?
White lesions on the tongue that do not peel off are indicative of what?
A 5 YO with Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy exhibits what kind of gait?
A waddling gait.
Bilateral Peroneal nerve palsy is indicative of what disease?
Charcot Marie Tooth Disease.
Gout is made worse by ingesting what?
Red wine or red meat.
What is Arnold Chiari malformation associated with?
Any midline brain/spinal cord defect.
What are the symptoms of Meniere's Disease?
Vertigo, tinitus and deafness.
What are heel spurs associated with?
Plantar fascitis.
Loss of joint space in the knee is indicative of what?
15 yo with rounded shoulders and hyperkyphosis...
Scheuermann's disease.
DeQuervain's affects what where?
The Extensor policis brevis at the posterior radius.
Black and blue spots from a vitamin deficiency are called what?
How do you treat tenosynovitis of the Extensor policis brevis?
Splint the thumb and index finger.
Where does the Gallbladder refer pain to?
The right shoulder and the inferior border of the Scapula.
Where does the Pancreas refer pain to?
The thoracis spine.
Stored glucose is called what?
Fruity breath is due to what metabolic action?
Oxidation of free fatty acids which produce ketone bodies that deplete extra and intracellular acid buffers which results in acidosis.
Where, on an EKG, is S2 heard?
At the end of the T-wave.
Where, on an EKG, is S1 heard?
At the height of the QRS complex.
Excessive use of a screwdriver can lead to what syndrome?
Pronator teres syndrome.
Rhonci on inspiration and expiration are heard where?
The trachea and major bronchii.
Entrapment of the Subclavian artery occurs where?
Between the Scalenus anticus and the notch or the first rib.
What diagnostic test should be immediately performed for someone who is unconscious?
Test for Hypoglycemia
Pericardial effusion
Increased pulse pressure; muuffled heart sounds (auscultate left-Erbs or Triicuspid, Patient sits and leans forward and holds)Differentiated from CHF by Echocardiogram
Hands; painless cyanosis
Paroxysmal vasodilation of lower extremities; burning P!; redness; increased temperature of feet
Thromboangitis obliterans
male smokers 20-40yo; arteries and veins in LEGS blocked
Angina Pectoris
produced upon exertion; "crushing"; lasts 1-5 minutes; EKG and ESR normal
Dissecting aneurysm
seperatiton of walls of aorta; Sudden (peak intensity at onset); "torn in half"; Patient may be shocky; abdominal bulge; may be assoc.w/Marfans; lens dislocating; Arachnodactyly
Myocardial infarction
"crushing" or "pressure-like" pain; 20 min to hrs; may occur spontaneously w/no relief with rest; Deep Q waves, elevated S-T segment, inverted T wave

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