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Glossary of Aircraft Armament Systems Journeyman

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Created by reggaetonmaker

The title associated with a 2W131 is an Aircraft Armament

a. helper
b.mechanic
c.apprentice
d. journeyman




C.Apprentice
What grade restictions apply to the 3- and 5- skill levels?

a. None
b. AB through A1C
c. AB through SRA
d. AMN through SRA




A. NONE
What are the grade restrictions that apply to the 7-skill level?

a. SRA through SSgt
b. SSgt through TSgt.
c. SSgt through MSgt.
d. SSgt through SMSgt.




C: SSGT THROUGH MSGT.
The Air Force training evaluation program evaluates training received by graduates of
a. formal courses
b. informal courses
c. on the job training
d. formal courses and on the job training



A: FORMAL COURSES
What program provides feedback on the efficiency and effectiveness of the training courses?
a. AF training evaluation program
b. AF test and evaluation program
c. AF training efficacy and modernization program
d. AF training course evaluation



A: AF TRAINING EVALUATION PROGRAM
Where is internal information obtained from for the Air Force training evaluation program?
a. Supervisors who are assigned graduates
b. flight chiefs who are assigned graduates
c. Trainees while they are studying a course
d. Instructors while



C: TRAINEES WHILE THEY ARE STUDYING A COURSE.
Who is sent questionnaires to measure skill and proficiencies acquired in basic technical training programs?
a. Section NCOICs
b. Trainee supervisors
c. Section commanders
d. Wing weapons managers



B: TRAINEE SUPERVISORS
Which MAJCOM representatives meet periodically with the AF career field managers to develop a list of the basic skills required to perform the duties of a 2W1?
a. Functional managers
b. Wing weapon managers
c. Career development course authors


A: FUNCTIONAL MANAGERS
What is the name of the paper based physical product that provides information necessary for Air Force career field managers...
a. Task Analysis
b. Core task analysis
c. Career field task audit
d. Career field education and training plan.



D: CAREER FIELD EDUCATION AND TRAINING PLAN.
What information is contained in the specialty training standard?
a. Requirements for progression in the career field
b. A listing of all formal schools attended by the trainee
c. A list of college credits associated with all formal training cour


D: A LIST OF THE MOST COMMON TASK, KNOWLEDGE, AND TECHNICAL REFERENCES NECESSARY TO PERFORM THE DUTIES IN THE 3,5, AND 7 SKILL LEVEL
What Air Force instruction establishes the occupational structure of the Air Force?
a. AFI-36-10 Mission Ready Training Program
b. AFI-36-8001 Education and Training Management
c. AFI-36-2201 Enlisted Personnel Classification and Training
d. A



D: AFI-36-2101 CLASSYFING MILITARY PERSONNEL (OFFICER AND ENLISTED)
What is the basic grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications?
a. Air Force specialty code
b. Air force duty classification
c. Classification of force education and training plan.
d. Classification codes for enlisted per



A: AIR FORCE SPECIALTY CODE
How are Air Force specialties further subdivided to identify specialization in a specific type of equipment or functions?
a. alphabetic shredouts
b. numerical air force specialty codes
c. alphabetical air force specialty codes
d. alphabetical



A: ALPHABETICAL SHREDOUTS
Which of the following duties is considered a function of the 2W0X1 career field?
a. loads, unloads, and positions munitions on aircraft
b. upload and download trailers used to transport nuclear weapons
c. store, handle, and transport nuclear wea


C: STORE, HANDLE, AND TRANSPORT NUCLEAR WEAPONS AND NUCLEAR WEAPONS SHAPES.
When is a special experience identifier removed from your Air Force specialty code?
a. after completing on the job training
b. after completing 7 level upgrade training
c. after completing 5 level upgrade training
d. they are retained througho



D: THEY ARE RETAINED THROUGHOUT THE DURATION OF YOUR CAREER
Which skill level of technician is expected to anticipate all the needs of a section and take steps to provide for them?
a. 2W131
b. 2W151
c. 2W171
d. 2W191



D: 2W191
Which of the following is considered a duty of a 2W171 only?
a. Examining system components for visual defects and proper installation.
b. modifying munitions launch, release, suspension, and monitor systems to improve efficiency
c. performing se


B. MODIFYING MUNITIONS LAUNCH, RELEASE, SUSPENSION, AND MONITOR SYSTEMS TO IMPROVE EFFICIENCY.
Which of the following commands uses 2W1 personnel to perform maintenance in an Aircraft Armament flight?
a. air force space command (AFSC)
b. air force material command (AFMC)
c. air force reserve command (AFRES)
d. air force special operatio



C: AIR FORCE RESERVE COMMAND (AFRES)
IN which command can 2W1 personnel be expected to service search and rescue helicopters?
a. air force space command (AFSC)
b. air force material command (AFMC)
c. air force reserve command (AFRES)
d. air force special operations command (AFSOC



D: AIR FORCE SPECIAL OPERATIONS COMMAND
What publication was developed by the air force to preclude the loss of operating efficiency, ensure maximum production in minimum time, and to obtain a complete picture of where and when difficulties occur in maintaing equipment?

B: AFI21-101 AIRCRAFT AND EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE MANAGEMENT.
An effective air force maintenance management system must have
a. a large number of specialists and a large inventory of equipment
b. strict control of equipment and facilities and a free flow of information
c. supervisors trained in all aspects


D: A WELL ORGANIZED MANAGEMENT STRUCTURE, LATITUDE FOR MAJCOMS TO TAILOR AND STREAMLINE COMMAND MANAGEMENT POLICY, AND A METHOD OF REPORTING MAINTENANCE DATA.
If possible, maintenance should be accomplished on what basis?
a. planned
b. scheduled
c. as needed
d. unscheduled



B: SCHEDULED

In conjunction with using qualified technicians to evaluate personnel and equipment, what other method do organizations use to achieve standardization?
a. scheduling maintenance
b. non-judicial punishment
c. repetitive equipment testing
d. tra



D: TRAINING TECHNICIANS TO USE STANDARD PRACTICES AND TO STRICTLY COMPLY WITH TECHNICAL DATA
What type of maintenance is generated during the process of using equipment?
a. corrective
b. preventative
c. precautionary
d. prescheduled



A: CORRECTIVE
what type of maintenance is performing work associated with time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) considered?
a. corrective
b. scheduled
c. unscheduled
d. preventative



B: SCHEDULED
What type of maintenance refers to unpredictable maintenance requirements not previously planned or programmed?
a. scheduled
b. emergency
c. unscheduled
d. preventative



C: UNSCHEDULED
What are the two categories of maintenance?
a. Depot and home station
b. flight line and back shop
c. scheduled and unscheduled
d. on-equipment and off equipment





D: ON EQUIPMENT AND OFF EQUIPMENT
On equipment maintenance refers to maintenance performed on what piece of equipment?
a. aircraft
b. any end item
c. equipment with an X in the ERRC code
d. equipment valued at more than one million dollars



B: ANY END-ITEM
Who is considered the key individual in the application of maintenance resources to meet mission requirements?
a. base commander
b. wing commander
c. squadron commander
d. production flight NCOIC



B: WING COMMANDER
Who is the wings focal point for all weapons loading and armament systems related matters?
a. wing safety
b. wing quality assurance
c. wing weapons manager
d. wing weapons director of operations



C: WING WEAPONS MANAGER
What organization is formed under the wing weapons manager and is compromised of the superintendent, the Loading Standardization Crew (LSC), academic instructors and lead crews?
a. load barn
b. weapons safety
c. quality assurance
d. weapons s



D: WEAPONS STANDARDIZATION

What is the minimum rank of a loading standardization crew (LSC) Chief?
a. ssgt
b. tsgt
c. msgt
d there is no minimum rank



B: TSGT
Who is primarily responsible for monitoring certification and recurring training documents to ensure all load crew members complete required proficiency and academic training?
a. wing weapons manager
b. standardized load crews
c. weapons section


D: LOADING STANDARDIZATION CREW
A weapons section is normally divided into what two functional areas?
a. flight line and back shop
b. loading and maintenance
c. deployable and non deployable
d. on equipment and off equipment



B: LOADING AND MAINTENANCE
2W1s are generally assigned to what flight in the helicopter units?
a. specialist
b. armament
c. logistical support
d. munitions support



A: SPECIALIST
What staff function requests services, such as fire fighting activity standby, snow removal, fueling and defueling service, engineering support, or control tower clearances for ground movement of aircraft and equipment?
a. weapons expeditor
b. munit

D: MAINTENANCE OPERATION CENTER
What staff function plans and schedules of the entire workload and work effort for the maintenance organization?
a. production superintendent
b. maintenance supply liaison
c. maintenance operation center
d. plans, scheduling, and documentation



D: PLANS, SCHEDULING, AND DOCUMENTATION
What staff function determines aircraft and equipment condition and personnel proficiency and to increase reliability and maintainability?
a. quality assurance
b. maintenance supply liaison
c. maintenance operation center
d. plans scheduling,



A: QUALITY ASSURANCE

What is the quality assurance program?
a. a condition and status system to improve utilization
b. a dynamic inspection system to improve combat capability
c. an aircraft utilization program to improve combat utilization
d. an equipment utiliza



B: A DYNAMIC INSPECTION SYSTEM TO IMPROVE COMBAT CAPABILITY
What staff function manages the material dificiency reporting and TO improvement reporting programs, tracvhs technical data currency, applicability and usability, and maintains a central TO file?
A: QUALITY ASSURANCE
What system functions as a single database that accesses maintenance information, scheduling data, historical records, and logistical data?
a. core automated data system
b. core managed logistics
c. integrated maintenance data system
d. core a



C: INTEGRATED MAINTENANCE DATA SYSTEM
What system purpose is to store maintenance data needed by major commands and other agencies to manage and track maintenance resources worldwide?
a. Core automated data system
b. integrated maintenance data system
c. core managed logistics data s


B: INTEGRATED MAINTENANCE DATA SYSTEM
What sort of interface is used by the integrated maintenance data system?
a. punch cards
b. a graphic user interface
c. a dedicated system interface system
d. multi-user dedicated support platform



B: A GRAPHIC USER INTERFACE
What aircraft are supported by the integrated maintenance information system?
a.f-22 only
b. all aircraft
c. b-2 and f-22
d. nuclear capable aircraft



A: F-22 ONLY
What is the central component of the integrated maintenance information system?
a. maintenance server unit
b. portable maintenance aid
c. integrated maintenance data system
d. core automated maintenance system mainframe



A: MAINTENANCE SERVER UNIT
To select an application on the integrated maintenance information system desktop, the user can tab through the applications or
a. enter the desired screen number
b. select application using the mouse
c. enter the selected application url
d.



B: SELECT APPLICATION USING THE MOUSE
What device is used to display technical manuals used on the F-22?
a. portable digital assistant
b. maintenance server unit
c. portable maintenance aid
d. maintenance data retrieval aid



C: PORTABLE MAINTENANCE AID
How many times a day must the portable maintenance aid be docked to the maintenance server unit to ensure the most up to date information is available to all users?
a. weekly
b. once daily
c. multiple times during the day
d. it does not direct



C: MULTIPLE TIMES DURING THE DAY
The maintenance data collection (MDC) system is designed as a tool
a. solely for spare parts procurement
b. for the management of maintenance resources
c. for the tracking of disciplinary action on maintainers
d. for procuring the most recent



B: FOR THE MANAGEMENT OF MAINTENANCE RESOURCES
What is initiated by the air logistic center when an equipment problem is indicated by the maintenance data?
a. an emergency action notice
b. a time compliance technical order
c. a technical order data change request
d. afto form 22 technical



B: A TIME COMPLIANCE TECHNICAL ORDER
What F-22 computer related support system will automatically communicate with relevant maintenance data collection system programs required by a given write up to ensure that system has up to date information?
a. integrated maintenance data system
b

D: INTEGRATED MAINTENANCE INFORMATION SYSTEM
What paper afto form is used to document each discrepancy discovered by the pilot or maintenance personnel and to document any corrective action you complete to correct a discrepenacy?
a. 781A
b. 781H
c. 781K
d. 781R



A: 781A
Where is all F-22 aircraft status and discrepancy information stored?
a. on the 781 series aircraft forms
b. in the portable maintenance aid
c. in the integrated maintenance data system
d. in the integrated maintenance information system



D: IN THE INTEGRATED MAINTENANCE INFORMATION SYSTEM
What document is used for maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items?
a. afto form 350
b. afto form 781A
c. afto imt form 95
d. afto form 244/245



C: AFTO IMT FORM 95
What form is used to document information and maintenance actions pertaining to aerospace ground equipment?
a. afto 350
b. afto form 781A
c. afto imt form 95
d. afto form 244/245



D: AFTO FORM 244/245
Which condition tag is used to identify unserviceable (condemmed_ material?
a. dd form 1574 (gold)
b. dd form 1575 (brown)
c. dd form 1577 (red)
d. dd form 1577-2 (green)



C: DD FORM 1577 (RED)
which condition tag is used to identify unserviceable (repairable) material?
a. dd form 1574 (gold)
b. dd form 1575 (brown)
c. dd form 1577 (red)
d. dd form 1577-2 (green)



D: DD FORM 1577-2 (GREEN)
all condition tags and labels must be used in conjuction with what other form/tag?
a. afto 350
b. afto form 781A
c. afto imt form 95
d. afto form 244/245



A: AFTO 350
What term is used to identify items that are either consumed in use or become a part of another assembly?
a. usable
b. expendable
c. inexpensive
d. consumable



B: EXPENDABLE
What term is used to identify items that are required on a recurring basis within the near or immediate work area?
a. scrounge
b. consumables
c. bench stock supplies
d. demand processing unit supplies



C: BENCH STOCK SUPPLIES
What section of supply is responsible for the adequate control and maximum use of equipment?
a. bench stock
b. base service stores
c. demand processing
d. equipment management





D: EQUIPMENT MANAGEMENT
What is the purpose of a special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance account?
a. for storage of XD items
b. for holding items for future use
c. to assist maintenance in accomplishing the mission
d. to store items for future placement on



C: TO ASSIST MAINTENANCE IN ACCOMPLISHING THE MISSION
What category of equipment is listed on the allowance standar/
a. usable
b. expendable
c. consumable
d. non expendable



D: NON EXPENDABLE
What is the record of nonexpandable equipment accounted for by the chief of supply?
a. allowance standard
b. non expendable equipment listing
c. equipment authorization inventory data
d. custodian authorization/ custody receipt listing



C: EQUIPMENT AUTHORIZATION INVENTORY DATA
What 13 digit number is assigned to all items in the supply system?
a. part number
b. national stock number
c. federal supply classification
d. national item identification number



B: NATIONAL STOCK NUMBER
The national stock number is established by combining which two numbers?
a. part number and the federal supply classification
b. part number and the national item identification number.
c. part number and the national codification bureau logisti


D: IDENTIFICATION NUMBER AND THE FEDERAL SUPPLY CLASSIFICATION
How long does base supply have to deliver an on hand item with a priority of 01 or 02?
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 120 minutes



B: 30 MINUTES
Through what system does the integrated maintenance information system order parts?
a. base information technology network
b. integrated maintenance data system
c. core automated maintenance system
d. national codification bureau informational



B: INTEGRATED MAINTENANCE DATA SYSTEM
Which form, along with the dd form 1348-1A, is used to control a repairable item through the repair cycle?
a. afto form 350, part 1
b. afto form 350, part 2
c. afto form 469
d. afto form 988



B: AFTO FORM 350, PART 2
What term refers to the amount of items packaged together when ordered?
a. unit of issue
b. item set size
c. issue quantity
d. purchase quantity



A: UNIT OF ISSUE
What are two ways of being relieved of the responsibility for government property?
a. turn in and recall
b. turn in and transfer
c. turn in and expenditure
d. transfer and expenditure



B: TURN IN AND TRANSFER
What kind of inspection must maintenance personnel perform on all newly assigned aircraft and equipment?
a. Isochronal inspection
b. acceptance inspection
c. basic scheduled inspection
d. programmed depot maintenance



B: ACCEPTANCE INSPECTION
What term identifies completely new editions of a publication that bear a new publication date?
a. change
b. appendix
c. revision
d. supplement



C: REVISION
Personal protective equipment greatly
a. increases accidents
b. decreases accidents
c. increases the cost of protection
d. decreases the cost of protection



B: DECREASES ACCIDENTS
What should you refer to when checklists do not cover local variations?
a. safety engineering
b. operations engineering
c. career development courses
d. maintenance operating instructions



D: MAINTENANCE OPERATING INSTRUCTIONS
How many inches wide should walkways be to permit free movement of workers, equipment, and supplies?
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 36



D: 36
When may first aid kits be kept in a maintenance shop?
a. when authorized by the base surgeon
b. when the shop contains flammable material
c. when the shop contains electrical equipment
d. when authorized by the squadron commander



A: WHEN AUTHORIZED BY THE BASE SURGREON
Rubber gloves and face shields are necessary in a maintenance shop to
a.prevent electrical shocks or burns
b. prtoect the skin and eyes from sawdust
c. protect the skin and eyes from cleaning agents
d. prevent noxious fumes from penetrating th



C: PROTECT THE SKIN AND EYES FROM CLEANING AGENTS
What governs the size, style, and design of the shadow boards and toolboxes?
a. afi33-2210 tool control and maintenance
b. afi33-2210 composite tool program management
c. the needs of your section and the materials it has at its disposal
d. af



C: THE NEEDS OF YOUR SECTION AND THE MATERIALS IT HAS AT ITS DISPOSAL
What type of accident prevention sign has yellow lettering on a black background?
a. caution
b. danger
c. directional
d. general safety



A: CAUTION
What type of accident prevention sign will generally have black letters on a white background on the lower panel?
a. caution
b. danger
c. directional
d. general safety



C: DIRECTIONAL
What information is contained on a material safety data sheet (msds)?
a. all hazards involved with handling the material
b. safety measures to follow while handling the material
c. all hazards involved with handling the material and safety measur


C: ALL HAZARDS INVOLVED WITH HANDLING THE MATERIAL AND SAFETY MEASURES TO FOLLOW WHILE HANDLING THE MATERIAL
Which of the following is not a goal of the hazard communication standard?
a. identifying and evaluating chemical hazards
b. reducing the incidence of injury and illness caused by hazardous chemicals in the workplace
c. ensuring environmental pro


C: ENSURING ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY (EPA) APPROVED METHODS OF DISPOSAL FOR HAZARDOUS MATERIALS
Who is responsible for adding new information to the msds on the hazards of a chemical....
a. air force office of safety and health
b. the chemicals manufacturer or importer
c. occupational safety and health administration
d. occupational safe



C: THE CHEMICALS MANUFACTURER OR IMPORTER
What agency should you contact if you suspect your lighting is inadequate in a work area?
a. wing safety office
b. air force office of safety and health
c. base bioenvironmental engineering office
d. Occupational safety and health administrat



C: BASE BIOENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING OFFICE
Dust, gas, vapor, fumes, and mist are examples of what type of contaminants?
a. atmospheric
b. chemical
c. physical
d. skin



A: ATMOSPHERIC
Which type of atmospheric contaminates produce a narcotic or drug like effect?
a. asphyxiates
b. anesthetics
c. irritants
d. poisons



B: ANESTHETICS
A flammable liquid is any liquid with a flash point below
a. 100F
b. 200F
c. 212F
d. 100C



A: 100F
The flashpoint of a liquid can be most easily avoided by
a. less ventilation and elimination of spark devices
b. good ventilation or elimination of spark devices
c. controlling the liquid temperature above the flash point
d. diluting the liqui



B: GOOD VENTILATION OR ELIMINATION OF SPARK DEVICES
What does the numerical rating of fire extinguishers serve as a guide for?
a. type of extinguishing agent
b. MSDS of the fire fighting agent
c. type of fire the extinguisher is effective against
d. amount of fire the extinguisher can extinguis



D: AMOUNT OF FIRE THE EXTINGUISHER CAN EXTINGUISH
Which fire classification covers flammable liquids?
a. class a
b. class b
c. class c
d. class d



B: CLASS B
What type of extinguishing agent needs to be used on class D fires?
a. carbon dioxide
b. dry powder
c. halon 1211
d. water



B: DRY POWDER
Which class of fire extinguishers is never assigned numerical ratings, nor are they given a multi-purpose rating?
a. class a
b. class b
c. class c
d. class d



D: CLASS D

What is the primary factor to be considered when dealing with the potential harm caused by an electrical shock?
a. resistance or ohms
b. current flow or amperage
c. electrical pressure or volts
d. potential difference or electro motive force



B: ELECTRICAL PRESSURE OR VOLTS
What amount of current flow usually results in the victim cannot normally recover without medical intervention?
a. 0.1 milliampere
b. 1 milliampere
c. between 25 and 50 milliampere
d. between 100 and 300 milliampere



D: BETWEEN 100 AND 300 MILLIAMPERE
What effect do burns have on current flow through the skin?
a. greatly reduce the skins resistance to current flow
b. greatly increase the skins resistance to current flow
c. have no effect on the skins resistance to current flow
d. marginally



B: GREATLY INCREASE THE SKINS RESISTANCE TO CURRENT FLOW
As a general rule, electrical items should
a. never have power on for testing only
b. have maintenance performed with power on
c. have maintenance performed with power off
d. never have power on for testing or maintenance



C: HAVE MAINTENANCE PERFORMED WITH POWER OFF
When do you use compressed air for cleaning electrical equipment?
a. only as a last resort
b. after using dry cleaners
c. only when oil is applied
d. after using chemical cleaners



A: ONLY AS A LAST RESORT
What do you do before testing and following repair actions of electrical equipment?
a. visually check equip
b. electrically check equip
c. mechanically check equip
d. operatonally check equip



A: VISUALLY CHECK EQUIP
Bonding is simply the placement of a
a. low resistance wire between two metal objects
b. high resistance wire between two metal objects
c. low resistance wire between a metal object and the ground
d. high resistance wire between a metal objec



A: LOW RESISTANCE WIRE BETWEEN TWO METAL OBJECTS
What effect does bonding have on static electrical charges?
a. dissipates them
b. equalizes them
c. increases them
d. rounds them



B: EQUALIZES THEM
The national department of defense hazard classification system is based on the system recommended for international use by what organization?
B: UNITED NATIONS
What hazard class and division contain nuclear weapons?
a. class 1, division 1
b. class 2, division 2
c. class 3, division 3
d. class 4, division 4



A: CLASS 1, DIVISION 1
Which hazard class division wold include items such as pistol and rifle ammunition or impulse cartridges?
a. class 1, division 1
b. class 1, division 2
c. class 1, division 3
d. class 1, division 4



D: CLASS 1, DIVISION 4
Four different fire symbols are needed to
a. represent the hazards explosives present
b. represent the different fire extinguishers needed
c. indicate how well the storage building is ventilated
d. indicate how far apart the explosives are req



A: REPRESENT THE HAZARDS EXPLOSIVES PRESENT
What symbols are used to identify operating buildings and storage facilities containing pyrotechnic and chemical munitions or agents and other hazardous materials?

B: CHEMICAL HAZARD SYMBOLS
Who has the responsibility to post or change warning and hazard symbols in storage areas?
a. commander
b. base fire department
c. first person to enter the storage area
d. person in charge of the storage area



D: PERSON IN CHARGE OF THE STORAGE AREA
What precaution must be taken by personnel who work with toxic chemicals before smoking?
a. they must wash their hands
b. no precautions necessary
c. they must use only electric lighters
d. they must wear gloves while smoking



A: THEY MUST WASH THEIR HANDS
Stocks of flammable liquids used for cleaning in an explosive area must not exceed a
a. 1 day supply
b. 2 day supply
c. 3 day supply
4. 5 day supply



A: 1 DAY SUPPLY
Parking areas for government vehicles may not be any closer than how many feet to an explosive area?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 50



C: 25
How many feet away must you remove support equipment from explosives before refueling them?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 250



C: 100
What is the minimum withdrawal distance for a fire symbol 2 fire?
a. 4000 feet
b. 2500 feet
c. 600 feet
d. 350 feet



B: 2500
For whom are the nuclear safety standards the go/no-go gauges?
a. conventional weapons personnel
b. nuclear weapons disposal personnel
c. designers, manufacturers, and users
d. procurement and disposal personnel



C: DESIGNERS, MANUFACTURERS, AND USERS
What type of personnel reliability program position does not require a person to have entry into areas or technical knowledge pertaining to a nuclear weapon system?

D: CONTROLLED
The two person concept is covered by what regulation?
a. afi 91-101
b. afi 91-102
c. afi 91-104
d. afi 91-105



C: AFI 91-104 NUCLEAR SURETY TAMPER CONTROL AND DETECTION PROGRAM
the no lone zone requires adherence to the requirements of the
a. convoy concept
b. two person concept
c. deficiency detection program
d. personnel reliability program





B: TWO PERSON CONCEPT
A good seal on a nuclear component depends directly upon
a. the type of seal used
b. a good sealing program
c. the type of equipment used
d. a good maintenance program



A: THE TYPE OF SEAL USED
What code name covers a nuclear weapon is lost, stolen, seized, or destroyed?
a. broken arrow
b. empty quiver
c. bent spear
d. dull sword



B: EMPTY QUIVER
A nuclear mishap formal report must be submitted within what time frame after the investigation?
a. 10 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 10 days
d. 30 days



D: 30 DAYS
Under OPSEC, you should be looking for what communications intelligence indicator?
a. any use of autodin
b. any use of secure voice
c. use of unchanging or infrequently changing call signs or radio freq.


C: USE OF UNCHANGING OR INFREQUENTLY CHANGING CALL SIGNS OR RADIO FREQUENCE
In what risk category might bomb fuzes be assigned?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5



C:4
Which of the following is an example of a risk category 1 munition item?
a. explosives in demolitions
b. man portable missiles and rockets
c. caliber 50 ammo with explosive filled projectile
d. light, automatic weapons...



B: MAN PORTABLE MISSILES AND ROCKETS
Which of the following choices correctly reflects basic atomic particle placement in an atom?
a. protons and electrons in the nucleus
b. protons and neutrons in the nucleus
c. neutrons and electrons in the nucleus
d. protons in the nucleus



B: PROTONS AND NEUTRONS IN THE NUCLEUS
To be classified as stable, the atom must have a balance between the number of
a. electrons and neutrons
b. electrons and protons
c. protons and neutrons
d. ions and protons in the nucleus



B: ELECTRONS AND PROTONS
An electrically unbalanced atom is called
a. an ion
b. a proton
c. a neutron
d. an electron



A: AN ION
Haphazard alignment of the individual molecules causes the effects of their magnetic poles to
a. cancel out
b. become stronger
c. generate current
d. create a static charge



A: CANCEL OUT
If all the individual magnetic dipoles stay aligned when the magnetizing force is removed, a steel bar becomes
a. ionized
b. static charged
c. a permanent magnet
d. a non permanent magnet



C: A PERMANENT MAGNET
Magnetic lines of force never
a. cross; they bend
b. bend; they cross
c. attract, they join
d. repel; they attract



A: CROSS; THEY BEND
Which of the following substances is an insulator?
a. iron
b. gold
c. glass
d. silver



C: GLASS
A three terminal variable resistor is a
a. rheostat
b. fixed resistor
c. potentiometer
d. tapped resistor



C: POTENTIOMETER
What is a mechanical device used to connect and disconnect a circuit at will?
a. circuit breaker
b. rheostat
c. switch
d. fuse



C: SWITCH
What is the moveable part of the switch that is manipulated to complete or open the electrical circuit or circuits to allow or inhibit the flow of electrons?
a. actuator
b. contact
c. throw
d. lever



A: ACTUATOR
Fuses in electrical systems are rated according to the
a. power they dissipate for the circuit
b. resistance they produce in the circuit
c. voltage load they can carry without blowing
d. ampere load they can carry without blowing



D: AMPERE LOAD THEY CAN CARRY WITHOUT BLOWING
What type of circuit breaker is opened by a coil when the current exceeds the value set at the factory?
a. thermal
b. magnetic
c. fast blow
d. slow blow



B: MAGNETIC
What type of circuit breaker is opened by a bimetallic strip when excess current is experienced in a circuit?
a. thermal
b. magnetic
c. fast blow
d. slow blow



A: THERMAL
which type of circuit breaker can be opened as well as closed by the operator?
a. toggle type thermal c/b
b. switch type thermal c/b
c. magnetic type thermal c/b
d. bimetallic strip type thermal c/b



A: TOGGLE TYPE THERMAL CIRCUIT BREAKER
What is included on switch type circuit breakers to indicate an open condition?
a. orange trip flag
b. colored indicator collar
c. red "o" on a white background in the inspection window
d. red indication on the face of the circuit breaker indi



B: COLORED INDICATOR COLLAR
What is the unit of measure of electro motive force?
a. volt
b. watt
c. amp
d. ohm



A: VOLT
What does the term current refer to?
a. total resistance present in a circuit
b. amount of electrical pressure in the circuit
c. amount of power being transmitted through a conductor in 1 second
d. quantity of electrons flowing past a given po



D: QUANTITY OF ELECTRONS FLOWING PAST A GIVEN POINT DURING 1 SECOND
The temperature coefficient refers to the
a. change in magnetic field in relation to temperature change
b. amount of resistance change in relation to temperature change
c. amount of temperature change that can be expected when a current flows th


B: AMOUNT OF RESISTANCE CHANGE IN RELATION TO TEMPERATURE CHANGE
What is the unit of measurement for resistance to current flow?
a. volt
b. watt
c. amp
d. ohm



D: OHM
Any time that a conductor serves as the path for electrons to flow, it
a. becomes ionized
b. develops a static charge
c. develops a magnetic field
d. temperature coefficient changes



C: A DEVELOPS A MAGNETIC FIELD
What effect does arranging the conductor into a coil have on the magnetic lines of force?
a. it forces them to cross
b. they are weakened
c. they are concentrated
d. a coil has no effect on magnetic lines of force



C: THEY ARE CONCENTRATED
What effect will in creasing the current have on an electro magnet?
a. strengthens the magnetic field
b. raises the temperature coefficient
c. lowers the temperature coefficient
d. raises the resistance offered by the conductor.



A: STRENGTHENS THE MAGNETIC FIELD
What are the 3 basic components of a chemical battery?
a. anode, diode, and cathode.
b. electrolyte, diode, and anode
c. electrolyte, diode, cathode
d. electrolyte, cathode, anode



A: ANODE, DIODE, AND CATHODE
Which component of a battery generates the negative charge during operation?
a. cathode
b. anode
c. diode
d. electrolyte



A: CATHODE
Which component of a battery generates the positive charge during operation?
a. cathode
b. anode
c. diode
d. electrolyte



B: ANODE
The flow of electrons in a battery is always from the
a. cathode to the anode
b. anode to the cathode
c. diode to the anode
d. anode to the diode



ANODE TO THE CATHODE
If a conductor is passed through a magnetic field so that it will pass through the magnetic lines of force, it will generate
a. electrical current
b. electrical resistance
c. magnetic resonance
d. thermal coefficient changes



A: ELECTRICAL CURRENT
Static electricity refers to
a. electricity at rest
b. variable electricity
c. balanced electricity
d. continually moving electricity



A: ELECTRICITY AT REST
Static charges tend to remain in the localized area of contact for long periods in
a. resistors
b. insulators
c. capacitors
d. conductors



B: INSULATORS
The conductivity of some insulating materials is increased by the absorption of
a. air under low humidity conditions
b. heat under high humidity conditions
c. moisture under high humidity conditions
d. moisture under low humidity conditions



C: MOISTURE UNDER HIGH HUMIDITY CONDITIONS
What is the most common type of resistor used in electronics?
a. mica
b. bakelite
c. wire wound
d. carbon composition



D: CARBON COMPOSITION
Wire wound resistors are more accurate than carbon composition resistors because
a. of their large size
b. of their extreme cost
c. of their large current carrying capacity
d. the length of wire can be adjusted during manufacture



A: OF THEIR LARGE SIZE
a two terminal variable resistor is a
a. rheostat
b. ananomiter
c. potnetiometer
d tapped resistor



A: RHEOSTAT
An electrical device used to mechanically switch electrical circuits is
a. relay
b. diode
c. resistor
d. capacitor





A: RELAY
Relays are made to operate on a
a. small amount of current
b. large amount of current
c. small amount of voltage
d. large amount of resistance



A: SMALL AMOUNT OF CURRENT
What kind of relay has two de-energized states?
a. ratcheting
b. positional
c. latching
d. reed



C: LATCHING
Reed relays filled with inert gas to
a. prevent arcing
b. prevent corrosion
c. prevent heat buildup
d. act as a restoring force



B: PREVENT CORROSION
What restores a reed relay to its de energized state?
a. separate spring
b. restoring force
c. re loading mechanism
d. spring force of the reeds themselves



D: SPRING FORCE OF THE REED THEMSELVES
What is the movable part of a solenoid called?
a. armature
b. actuator
c. plunger
d. slide



C: PLUNGER
What restores a solenoid to its de energized state>
a. spring
b. counter weight
c. re loading mechanism
d. pressurized gas cartridges



A: SPRING
What 3 components are found in all circuits?
a. power source, load, and resistors
b. power source, load, and conductor
c. power source, wires, and conductors
d. power source, resistors, and conductor



B: POWER SOURCE, LOAD, AND CONDUCTOR
In instances where the schematic symbol represents a multi cell battery it can mean either multiple cells in a single case or
a. a single powerful battery
b. a generator providing dc power
c. a generator providing ac power
d. an array of singl



D: AN ARRAY OF SINGLE CELL BATTERIES ARRANGED TO FUNCTION LIKE A MULTI CELL BATTERY
In schematic diagrams push button switches are shown in their normal or
a. open
b. closed
c. biased positions
d. regulated position



C: BIASED POSITIONS
Light emitting diodes are primarily used in weapons system applications as
a. current restrictors
b. heating elements
c. status indicators
d. light sources



C: STATUS INDICATORS
Which technical order contains inspection and repair information that applies across all aircraft wiring systems?
a. 1-1A-14
b. 14-1A-1
c. 1-11A-14
d. 11-1A-14



A: 1-1A-14
To prevent chafing, the slack in a wiring harness between two support points normally should not exceed
a. 1/4 inch
b. 3/8 inch
c. 1/2 inch
d. 5/8 inch



C: 1/2 INCH
When installing a connector on coaxial cable, you must use care in starting the braid clamp nut in order to prevent
a. cross threading
b. damage to the center pin
c. damage to the center socket
d. damage to the cable dielectric



A: CROSS THREADING
Maintenance on energized circuits a safety observer if the voltage applied to an item exceeds
a. 120 volts
b. 210 volts
c. 220 volts
d. 300 volts



D: 300 VOLTS
What must be done to salvage protective boot before reinstallation?
a. heated to restore is pliability
b. clean w/ solvent then heat
c. clean w/ solvent then coated
d. clean w/ solvent inspected



C: CLEANED WITH A SOLVENT AND THEN COATED WITH AN ADHESIVE WHEN THOROUGHLY DRY
When shrinking a protective boot for wiring, work slowly from the
a. inside to the outside
b. connector to the braid end
c. braid end to the connector
d. waxed lacing string



A: INSIDE TO THE OUTSIDE
Extraction tools for solderless are
a. of solid construction
b. for pin contacts only
c. for socket contacts only
d. of different sizes for each contact



B: FOR PIN CONTACTS ONLY

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