cueFlash

Glossary of 7, 8, 9 &10

Start Studying! Add Cards ↓

Created by martm006

Which of these bones is part of the axial skeleton?



rib
A small, flattened articular surface is a



facet
The general term for a depression in a bone is



fossa
What small ridges extend laterally from the external occipital protuberance and serve as points of attachment for several neck muscles?



nuchal lines
The largest foramen in the skull is the



foramen magnum.
The mastoid process and mastoid air cells are part of the



temporal bone.
Which bones articulate with the sphenoid bone?



frontal bone;ethmoid bone; parietal bone and occipital bone
Which part of the mandible articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone?



condylar process
The zygomatic arch consists of processes from the



temporal and zygomatic bones.
Which of these bones form part of the orbit?



frontal ; ethmoid;maxilla and sphenoid

Three bony shelves that project inferiorly in the nasal cavity are called



nasal conchae.
The olfactory foramina are found in the



cribriform plate.
During life, the pituitary gland is located in the



sella turcica.
Sound waves enroute to the eardrum travel through the



external auditory meatus.
Which of these bones is part of the cranial vault?



frontal
occipital
parietal
temporal




Which bones articulate with any other bone?



maxilla
mandible
vertebra
inferior nasal concha




Which vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes and possess articular facets on their lateral surfaces to articulate with ribs?



thoracic
Which statements concerning vertebral column curvatures?

The lumbar curve develops after birth.
Pregnancy is most likely to contribute to which conditions?



lordosis
The openings between vertebrae through which spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord are



intervertebral foramina.
The vertebral arch



consists of two laminae and two pedicles.
The internal gelatinous portion of the intervertebral disk is called the



nucleus pulposus.
The region of the vertebral column that is most susceptible to herniated disks is the



lumbar region.
Normally, there are seven



cervical vertebrae.
On the sacrum, the landmark that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity is the



sacral promontory.
Of the 12 pairs of ribs, ____________ pair(s) is/are vertebrochondral.



3
The articular facet for the transverse process of a vertebra is found on the __________ of a rib.



tubercle
The clavicle articulates with what two bones?



scapula and sternum
Greater and lesser tubercles are found on the __________ , whereas the greater and lesser trochanters are found on the ___________ .



humerus, femur
The head of the radius is __________ ; the head of the ulna is __________ .



proximal, distal
The wrist consists of eight __________ bones, whereas the ankle consists of seven __________ bones.



carpal, tarsal
Two bones that have prominent epicondyles are the



femur and humerus.
The radial notch is found on the



ulna
The depression on the os coxa where the head of the femur articulates is the



acetabulum.
The bumps that a person sits on are their



ischial tuberosities.
The medial and lateral condyles of the femur articulate with the __________ of the tibia.



medial and lateral condyles
This structure on the fibula forms part of what we commonly call our "ankle bone."



lateral malleolus
The average adult skeleton consists of ____ bones, however this number ____ with age.



206, decreases
Which bone markings refers to a small, flat articular surface on a bone?



facet
Which bone features is a smooth, rounded knob on a bone?



condyle
Which bone extensions is massive and located on the femur?



trochanter
What is the primary purpose of a bone process or projection?



points of attachment for ligaments or tendons
Of the following depressions in bone, which one is a socket like that for teeth?



fossa
Of the following holes in a bone, which one is a small pit located on the head of the femur?



fovea
Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a tunnel like that of the inner ear?



meatus
Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a hole that allows for the passage of blood vessels and/or nerves?



foramen
Which is a mucous membrane-lined air space within a bone?



sinus
Which portion of the skeleton is the axial skeleton?



skull, vertebral column, hyoid bone and rib cage
Which bone(s) of the skull would be considered to be the most superior?



parietal
Which bones are joined by squamosal suture?



temporal and parietal
Which bones are joined by the lambdoidal suture?



occipital and parietal
Which bones are joined by the coronal suture?



frontal and parietal
Which bones are joined by the saggital suture?



right and left parietal
Of the bones of the head and neck, which one provides an attachment for the tongue and some neck muscles and does NOT directly articulate with another bone?



hyoid
Which bones does the supraorbital foramen pass through?



frontal
The most superior portion of the ethmoid bones rise up into the cranium through which bone?



frontal
The perpendicular plate is part of which bone?



ethmoid
The sella turcica is part of which bone?



sphenoid
The mastoid process is part of which bone?



temporal
What anatomical structure lies within the sella turcica?



pituitary gland
The crista galli is part of which bone?



ethmoid
The external auditory meatus passes through which bone?



temporal
The crista galli, perpendicular plate, and nasal concha are all part of which bone?



ethmoid
Which bones has greater and lesser wings?



sphenoid
Which bones has condyles that articulate with the vertebral column?



occipital
Which bone(s) have/has the following foramina: ovale, rotundum, and spinosum?



sphenoid
The jugular foramen lies between two bones.
temporal and occipital
The foramen lacerum lies between two bones.
sphenoid and temporal
Which bones has the hypoglossal canal?



occipital
Which bones has a cribiform plate?



ethmoid
What bone lies as a connecting bridge between the maxilla and the temporal bone?



zygomatic
which bone lie in the orbit?



frontal
maxilla
sphenoid



Which bone lies directly inferior to the perpendicular plate?



vomer
Which bones of the orbit houses a foramen for a tear duct?



lacrimal
The mandible articulates, via a highly moveable joint, with which of the following bones?



temporal
pairs of foramina are in the mandible?



mental and mandibular
The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is known as the



petrous portion
The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is part of which of the following bones?



temporal
The optic foramen passes through which of the following bones?



sphenoid
pairs of bones form the roof of the mouth?



palatine and maxilla
correct listing of paranasal sinuses?



ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary
Which bones houses the foramen magnum?



occipital
The head of the humerus articulates with the



glenoid cavity
The superior most portion of the ethmoid bone rises up through which of the following bones?



frontal
The middle and superior nasal conchae are projections of which bone?



ethmoid
The inferior most portion of the sphenoid bone is the



pterygoid processes
Which bones has wings?



sphenoid
The nasal septum is made up of which of the following pairs of bones?



vomer and maxilla
The ramus and the angle are parts of which bone?



mandible
Which groups correctly lists the auditory ossicles?



stapes, malleus, and incus
Which two bones of the skull contribute to both the neurocranium and the viscerocranium?



ethmoid and frontal
Nuchal lines and the mastoid process both provide points of attachment for muscles of



the neck
Temporal lines and the coronoid process provide points of attachment for muscles of



mastication
What is the only bone of the skull that is freely movable relative to the rest of the skull bones?



mandible
How many cervical vertebrae are there?



7
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?



12
The first cervical vertebrae is known as the



atlas
The second cervical vertebrae is known as the



axis
The opening in the middle of a vertebra for the spinal cord is known as the



vertebral foramen
Two of the bony ridges that surround the spinal cord are the



pedicle and lamina
Which vertebra is immediately inferior to C-7?



T-1
Which vertebra is immediately inferior to T-12?



L-1
How many pairs of vertebrosternal ribs are there?



7
The sacrum is composed of how many fused bones?



5
The most inferior portion of the sternum is the



xiphoid process
The most superior portion of the sternum is the



manubrium
How many pairs of vertebral ribs are there?



2
How many pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are there?



3
The openings between vertebrae that allow for the spinal nerves to enter and exit are known as



intervertebral foramen
Which are the cartilages that attach the ribs to the sternum?



costal cartilages
The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae partially fuse to form which structure?



medial sacral crest
The superior articular process of T-1 articulates with which process?



inferior articular process of C-7
Which two parts of a rib articulate with the vertebrae?



head and tubercle
A distinctive feature of the first cervical vertebrae is that it



does not have a body
A distinctive feature of the second cervical vertebrae is that it



has a dens
A distinctive feature of all cervical vertebrae is that they



all have transverse foramina
A distinctive feature of all thoracic vertebrae is that they



all have facets for ribs
What is the most posterior portion of a vertebra?



spinous processes
Which serve as points of articulation between adjacent vertebrae?



articular facets
What attaches to spinous processes and transverse processes?



muscles
What passes through the foramen magnum?



the spinal cord
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as



scoliosis
An abnormal curvature of the lumbar spine that results in an exaggeration of the convex curve of the lumbar region is known as



lordosis
Which of the following is a surgical removal of the posterior arch of a vertebra?



laminectomy

Coronoid processes are found on which pair of bones?










mandible and ulna
Which of the following bone extensions is a rough surface found on the tibia?



tubercle
The pectoral girdle is composed of which bones?



scapula and clavicle
The sternoclavicular joint is between which of the following pairs of bones?



sternum and clavicle
The glenohumeral joint is between, which of the following pairs of bones



scapula and humerus
The two bones most inferior to the humerus are the



radius and ulna
Medially the clavicle articulates with the



sternum
Laterally the clavicle articulates with the



scapula
The two processes on the superior - lateral portion of the scapula are the



coracoid and acromion
Which of the following bones is immediately proximal to the radius?



humerus
How many carpal bones are there in one hand?



8
How many phalanges are there in one hand?



14
How many phalanges does one thumb have?



2
The carpal bones are arranged in which patterns?



two rows of 4
The end of the first finger (the one used for pointing) has a phalanx in it identified as which of the following?



second distal phalanx
On the "pinky", the last digit is referred to as the



5th distal phalanx
Styloid processes are found on which bones?



temporal, radius, and ulna
What is the structure commonly referred to as the elbow?



olecranon process of the humerus
Which of the bones is found in the proximal row of carpals?



scaphoid; lunate ;triquetrum

Which bones is found in the distal row of carpals?



hamate; trapezoid ;pisiform

The first groove beneath the head of the humerus is the



anatomical head
Of the bony parts, which one has the deltoid muscle attachment?



deltoid tuberosity
Where is the olecranon fossa located?



posterior and distal portion of the humerus
The structure that articulates with the olecranon fossa is the olecranon process of the



ulna
The structure that articulates with the coronoid fossa of the humerus is the coronoid process of the



ulna
When resting our elbows upon the table, the bony projection on the back of our arms, that rests on the table, is the



olecranon process
The distal most bony projections of the radius and the ulna are the __________ processes.



styloid
The ulna rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?



trochlea
The head of the radius rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?



capitulum
An accessory bone often found in the palm of the hand, is known as a(n) _______ bone.



sesamoid
The term "phalanges" is the plural of which of the following?



phalanx
The structure that articulates with the glenoid cavity is the head of the



humerus
Which of the following rotates on the capitulum?



radius
The joint between a coxal bone and the sacrum is known as the



sacroiliac joint
The joint between the pubic bones is known as the



symphysis pubic
Which is a large sesamoid bone in the leg?



patella
The fibula in relation to the tibia is



lateral to the tibia
The upper (superior) most portion of the ilium, where we rest our hands on hips, is the



iliac crest
The visible anterior protrusions of the ilium are which of the following?



anterior superior iliac spine
The head of the femur articulates in which of the following?



acetabulum
Which is the large opening in the bones between the ilium and ischium?



obturator
In general, the female pelvis differs from the male pelvis by which of the following?



Females have a broader and more shallow pelvic outlet.
The tarsal region of the body is which of the following?



ankle to the foot
Which is a long line down the posterior side of the femur for attachment of muscles?



linea aspera
Which is a large bony ridge along the side of the femur?



greater trochanter
The most superior portion of the tibia is the
intercondylar eminence
Which is the large bump on the medial side of the ankle?
malleolus of the tibia
The distal most portion of the tibia lies on which of the following bones?



talus
Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most posterior?



calcaneus
Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most distal and lateral?



cuboid
There are three tarsal bones of the same name. Which of the following are the three?



cuneiforms
What bones are frequently beneath the distal end of the first metatarsal?



sesamoid
How many tarsal bones are there in one foot?



7
How many phalanges are there in one foot?



14
How many phalanges does one big toe have?



2
How many total phalanges are there in the human body?



56
The last digit of the little toe is known as the
5th distal phalanx
Of the following anatomical parts, the head of the _________articulates in the acetabulum?



femur
Which structure(s) of the femur articulate(s) with the tibia?
lateral and medial condyles
Which projections of the femur does NOT provide for muscular attachment?



medial condyle
Which articulate with the femur

coxal bone;patella ;tibia


Watch for word clues staments like _______________are usually false.
all, always, exactly, none, and never.
cclavicle is part of the



appendicular skeleton
A knoblike lump on a bone is called a



tuberosity.
The superior and middle nasal conchae are formed by projections of the



ethmoid bone.
The crista galli



is an attachment site for the membranes that surround the brain.
The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____________ form the nasal septum.



vomer
Which bones contain a paranasal sinus?



styloid process; occipital condyle. zygomatic arch. medial pterygoid.

The nerves for the sense of smell pass through the



cribriform plate.
The major blood supply to the brain enters through the



foramen magnum and carotid canals.

The site of the sella turcica is the



sphenoid bone.
Which bones is in contact with the sphenoid bone?



maxilla; ethmoid;
parietal;
vomer



The thoracic curvature becomes exaggerated in .
kyphosis
The lumbar curvature becomes exaggerated in .
lordosis
The sacral curvature develops before
birth.
The lumbar curvature develops as an
infant learns to sit and walk.
A herniated disk occurs when



the annulus fibrosus ruptures.
The weight-bearing portion of a vertebra is the



body.
Transverse foramina are found only in



cervical vertebrae.
Articular facets on the bodies and transverse processes are found only on



thoracic vertebrae.
Medially facing, superior articular processes and laterally facing, inferior articular processes are found on



lumbar vertebrae.
The true ribs attach directly to
the sternum with costal cartilage.
The point where the scapula and clavicle connect is the



acromion process.
The distal medial process of the humerus to which the ulna joins is the



trochlea.
The depression on the anterior surface of the humerus that receives part of the ulna when the forearm is flexed (bent) is the



coronoid fossa.
which point of muscle attachment on the pectoral girdle or upper limb
epicondyles;
radial tuberosity;
spine of scapula;
greater tubercle




arm parts with the number of bones



1
foreman parts with the number of bones



2
palm of hand parts with the number of bones



5
fingers parts with the number of bones



14
The bone of the foot that the tibia rests upon is the



talus.
A place where nerves or blood vessels pass from the trunk to the lower limb is the



greater sciatic notch.
A projection on the pelvic girdle that is used as a landmark for finding an injection site is the



anterior superior iliac spine.
When comparing the pectoral girdle to the pelvic girdle,



The pelvic girdle is more firmly attached to the body than the pectoral girdle.
When comparing a male pelvis to a female pelvis,
The ischial spines in males are closer together.
A site of muscle attachment on the proximal end of the femur is the



greater trochanter.
A process that forms the outer ankle is the lateral



malleolus.
diarthrosis
freely moveable joint
synarthrosis
joint that has little or no movement
amphiarthrosis
joint that is slightly moveable
synovial
is a joint that has a cavity filled with fluid enclosed in a capsule
fibrous is held together with
collagenous fibers
cartilaginous is held together with
cartilage
The sutures of the skull and the teeth in their sockets are examples of

synarthrosis
Intervertebral discs, the pubic symphysis, and the tibio-fibular joints are
amphiarthrosis
The shoulder, elbow, and knee are examples of
diarthrosis
sutures
forms the joints between the skull bones



gomphoses
attaches the teeth into their sockets
syndesmoses
holds two bones tightly together with a ligament
syndesmoses joint between
the radius and ulna and also between the tibia and fibula
synchondrosis cartilaginous joints
the pubic bones
Sometimes a joint has become fused and now is one
synostosis
Another term for ellipsoidal joints is _________ joints.



ball-and-socket

articular disks



fluid-filled sac found in a synovial joint




biaxial
a movement that is in two planes
the types of synovial joints that is the most freely moveable?



ball and socket
condyloid is found
between the metacarpal bones and the carpal bones

In which types of synovial joints does one bone have a projection that fits into a ring-like ligament on the other, enabling one bone to revolve on the other?



pivot
saddle is the
trapeziometacarpal joint at the base of the thumb
Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a simple moving of the lower arm up and down?





flexion and extension
Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement away from the midsagital line (as in standing spread legged)?



abduction
of diarthrotic movements, which one is the movement of spreading the fingers?

abduction
Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of a bone anteriorly in a gliding motion?



protraction
Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement in which one limb makes circular movements?



circumduction
Of the diarthrotic movements, which one occurs when one grinds the teeth?



lateral and medial excursion
Of the diarthrotic movements, which ones are movements of the thumb against the fingers and then away from the fingers?



opposition and reposition
Of the diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of rotating the palm up and down?



protraction and retraction
Of the diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of tilting the soles of the feet inward and then outward?



inversion and eversion
Of the diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of raising and lowering the toes?



dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
Which one of diarthrotic movements moves a bone superiorly?



elevation
Which of the diarthrotic movements is shrugging the shoulders?



elevation
Which of the diarthrotic movements is the pitcher's arm in a baseball game?



circumduction
Which of the movements occurs in ballet, when dancers point their toes?



plantar flexion
Which of the movements occurs when turning a doorknob clockwise or driving a screw into a piece of wood?



supination
Where is the talocrural joint?



ankle
The rotator cuff is located in which joints?



shoulder
The collateral and cruciate ligaments are found in which joints?



elbow
The iliofemoral ligament is found in which joint?



hip
sprain is a

torn ligament or tendon

The classic ACL injury that occurs in sports involves which joint?



knee
gout is a
is a hereditary disease in which uric acid crystals build up in the joint space and cause pain

osteoarthritis is the
most common form of arthritis referred to as "wear-and-tear" arthritis

Which conditions is a severe form of arthritis that is an autoimmune attack against the joint tissue?



rheumatoid arthritis
Which is an inflammation of the bursa within a synovial capsule?



bursitis
Severely damaged joints can be replaced with artificial joints. The correct term for this procedure is
arthroplasty
Which is a bacterial disease spread by the bite of a tick that can affect joints?



lyme disease
The term "suppurative arthritis" refers to arthritis that results from



infectious agents
tuberculosis arthritis is an example of
suppurative arthritis"?
In people that wear pointed shoes, the great toe can be deformed and displaced laterally. This condition is known as



hallux valgus
the symphysis pubis is between the
two pubic bones
describes a muscle motor unit?



one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by that nerve
Which types of joints are bones united by fibrous connective tissue, with no joint cavity, and with little or no movement?
syndesmosis
A wide area between sutures in a newborn is called a



fontanel.
The radioulnar joint, or interosseus membrane, is an example of a



syndesmosis
When the epiphyseal plate becomes the epiphyseal line, the synchondrosis joint becomes a



synostosis
The articulations between the teeth and the alveolar processes are



gomphoses
The articulation between the first rib and the sternum is a



synchondrosis.
Which types of joints exhibits the greatest amount of movement?



synovial joints
Most joints that unite the bones of the appendicular skeleton are



synovial joints.
Synovial joints are always enclosed by a



joint capsule.
Articular surfaces of bones within synovial joints are covered with



articular cartilage.
Synovial fluid is secreted by



the synovial membrane.
In synovial joints, blood vessels and nerves do not enter the



articular cartilage and joint cavity

A pocket, or sac, filled with synovial fluid that extends for a distance away from the rest of the joint cavity is called



a bursa.
Which structures is covered with synovial membrane?



bursa;
joint cavity;
tendon sheath



An example of a plane, or gliding, joint is the



articular processes between vertebrae.
The joint between the dens of the axis and the atlas is a(n)



pivot joint.
The joint between the occipital condyles and the atlas (atlantooccipital joint) is a(n)



ellipsoid joint.
Raising your arm to point at something straight ahead of you involves



flexion of the arm.
Moving your arm laterally away from your body is



abduction.
Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your thigh?



flexion
Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your leg?



extension
When a suspect is arrested by the police, typically they are handcuffed behind their back. In this position, the suspect's arms are



extended.
When someone is going to place something in the palm of your hand, your hand must be



supinated
To walk on her toes, a ballerina must be able to __________ her feet for long periods of time.



plantarflex
You are sitting on a chair. To stand up, you must __________ your thighs and __________ your legs.



extend, extend
Tilting the head posteriorly to look up at the sky requires



extension of the neck.
Touching the thumb with the little finger is called



opposition.
A person who is standing and bends to tie their shoe is __________ their trunk.



flexing
A person who is standing in the anatomic position has their hands __________ and their forearms __________.



supinated, extended
A baby in the fetal position has most of its joints



flexed
Shrugging your shoulders to indicate you don't know the answer to a question involves



elevation of the scapulae.
Which movements required for a person in the military to salute?



flexion of the forearm; abduction of the arm

Sometimes people with TMJ disorders bruxate (grind side-to-side) their teeth at night. This movement is



lateral excursion of the mandible.
The temporomandibular joint is predominately a(n)



ellipsoid joint.
The ligamentum teres is found in this joint in 80% of the population.



hip
Which joints has the largest number of ligaments and bursae?



knee
Which joints has neither fibrocartilage articular disks nor a labrum to support the joint?



ankle
Which movements of the foot causes ankle sprains most frequently?



inversion
Which is commonly used for classifying joints in the body?



the connective tissue that binds the bones together and the degree of motion at each joint

Given these types of joints:
1. gomphosis
2. suture
3. symphysis
4. synchondrosis
5. syndesmosis
Choose the types that are held together by fibrous connective tissue.









1,2,5
Given these types of joints:
1. gomphosis
2. suture
3. symphysis
4. synchondrosis
5. syndesmosis
Choose the types that are held together by cartilage.









3,4
matched with the correct joint type? parietal bone to occipital bone
suture
matched with the correct joint type? between the coxae
symphysis
matched with the correct joint type? humerus and scapula
synovial
matched with the correct joint type? teeth in alveolar process
gomphosis
The epiphyseal plate can be described as a type of joint. Term that describes the joint before growth in the length of the bone has ended.



synchondrosis
Which joints are often temporary, with bone replacing them?



synchondroses
Which joints are the most movable?



synovial
In which joints are periodontal ligaments found?



gomphoses
The intervertebral disks are an example of



symphyses
Joints containing hyaline cartilage are called ______________, and joints containing fibrocartilage are called ______________.



synchondroses; symphyses
The inability to produce the fluid that keeps most joints moist would likely be caused by a disorder of the



synovial membrane.
Which bone is associated with synovial joints?



fibrous capsule;synovial membrane; synovial fluid; bursae

All of the costochondral joints, except for the first, usually develop into



synovial joints.
Assume that a sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From this list of structures:
1. tendon or muscle
2. ligament
3. articular cartilage
4. fibrous capsule (of joint capsule)
5. skin
6. synovial membrane (of joint capsule)
Choose the order in






5,1,2,4,6,3
Which hinge joints and saddle joints have in common?



Both are synovial joints.
matched with the type of joint? tibia to talus



hinge

Once a doorknob is grasped, what movement of the forearm is necessary to unlatch the door, that is, turn the knob in a clockwise direction? (Assume using the right hand.)



supination
After the door is unlatched, what movement of the elbow is necessary to open it? (Assume the door opens in, and you are on the inside.)



flexion
After the door is unlatched, what movement of the shoulder is necessary to close it? (Assume the door opens in, and you are on the inside.)



extension
When grasping a doorknob, the thumb and little finger undergo



opposition.
Spreading the fingers apart is



abduction.
A runner notices that the lateral side of her right shoe is wearing much more than the lateral side of her left shoe. This could mean that her right foot undergoes more ______________ than her left foot.



inversion
For a ballet dancer to stand on her toes, her feet must



plantar flex.
A meniscus is found in the



knee joint.
A lip (labrum) of fibrocartilage deepens the joint cavity of the



shoulder joint.
Which joints has a tendon inside the joint cavity?



shoulder joint
Which structures help to stabilize the shoulder joint?



rotator cuff muscles
Bursitis of the subacromial bursa could result from



overuse of the shoulder joint.
Which does occur with the aging of joints?



decrease in production of new cartilage matrix; decline in synovial fluid production; weakening of muscles; increase in protein cross-linking in tissues

The tissue surrounding an entire muscle is known as



epimysium
The tissue that surrounds a muscle cell (myofiber) is known as



endomysium
Muscle fibers are bundled into groups known as





fascicles
Bundles of muscle fibers (fascicles) are wrapped by a tissue known as





perimysium
A connective tissue on the surface of muscles (that extends onto the tendon and bone) is known as



fascia
One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has conductivity. describes this characteristic?



Muscles can stretch when needed.
One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has excitability. describes this characteristic?



Muscles contract when stimulated.
Which groups are considered to be parts of the series-elastic components of muscle?



endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, fascia, and tendons
describes the function of the series-elastic component of muscle?



These are not excitable or contractile, but are extensible and elastic.
What part of a muscle is the muscle fiber?



muscle cell itself
The outer membrane of the muscle fiber is known as the



sarcolemma.
The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber is known as the



sarcoplasm.
The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber contains a molecule to distribute oxygen within the cell. This molecule is known as



myoglobin
The molecule within the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber that supplies quick energy for contraction is



glycogen.
The myofilaments within the muscle fiber are composed of three integral items. Which of the following lists the components correctly?



myosin, actin, and elastic (titin) filament.
Thick filaments within the myofibril are composed of



myosin
Thin filaments within the myofibril are composed primarily of



actin
The elastic filaments within a myofibril are composed of molecules known as



titin
The elastic filaments within a myofibril are attached to and wound around, which of the following?



myosin
In the myofibril, ATP is used for which of the following?



muscle tone; muscle contraction; muscle relaxation

Which tissues has the greatest ability to repair itself?



smooth muscle
Of the muscles types, which one has long, cylindrical-shaped cells?



skeletal muscle
Of the muscle types, which one has only one nucleus?



smooth muscle
Of the muscle types, which one does NOT have striations?



smooth muscle
Of the muscle types, which one have striations?



skeletal muscle; cardiac muscle

Of the muscle types, which one is usually voluntary?



skeletal muscle
Objects that move through organs that are surrounded by smooth muscle are often moved by means of



peristalsis.
Of the muscle types, which one is found in the middle layer of the aorta?



smooth muscle
The "all-or-none" concept of skeletal muscle contraction means that



muscle fibers contract completely.
describes the use of muscle tone in the body?



It keeps our backs straight and our heads up.
Action potential frequency is best described as:



The number of action potentials produced per unit of time.
Triads in skeletal muscle consist of which of the following?



two terminal cisternae and a T-tubule.
When acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, what happens to the choline?



It is reabsorbed at the presynaptic terminal and combined with more acetic acid to make acetylcholine.
The recovery stroke in muscle contraction involves which of the following?



return of the myosin head to its original position after the cross bridge releases
Which of the following is one of the primary functions of muscle tissue?



heat production
The ability of a muscle to be stimulated is called



excitability
Which muscles is involuntary and is the most widely found throughout the body?



smooth
Which types of muscles contain intercalated discs and branching fibers?



cardiac
Which muscle types contains peripherally located, multiple nuclei in its cells?



skeletal
The striations in striated muscle correspond with actual molecular structures. Which is the Z line?



an attachment point for actin molecules
The striations in striated muscle correspond with actual molecular structures. Which is the I band?



a band where only actin molecules are found
The striations in striated muscle correspond with actual molecular structures. Which is the H band?



a band where only myosin molecules are found
Which is the A band within a myofibril?



myosin myofilaments in profile
Which is the unit in a myofibril from Z line to Z line?



sarcomere
On the surface of the sarcolemma, the voltage may shift up and down rapidly. This change in electrical potential caused by shifts in ions across the membrane is known as a(n)



action potential
During an action potential, calcium is released into the sarcoplasm, near the actin and myosin molecules. explanation of what the calcium does?



The calcium removes the tropomyosin block.
When the myosin head (of the thick filament) flexes into a bend, while releasing ADP and inorganic phosphate, pulling the thin filament along with it, this is called the



power stroke
When the thick and the thin filaments pull together



The sarcomere gets shorter.
The tissues of cardiac muscle have unique structures known as



intercalated discs
Intercalated discs are capable of doing which of the following?



pass electrical stimulation to other cardiac cells
Which is unique about cardiac muscle tissue?



The cells have large mitochondria.
cardiac tissuem has abundant



glycogen and myoglobin and is aerobic
Joints are classified according to the
struture of the joint
Which proteins attaches Z discs to myosin myofilaments?



titin
The functional connection between a nerve fiber and a muscle fiber is called a(an)



synapse.
When the neuron stimulates a muscle fiber, what molecule diffuses across the gap between them?



acetylcholine
Once a signal molecule has left the neuron and binds to a receptor molecule on the surface of the muscle fiber, a sodium channel opens, allowing entry of sodium into the muscle fiber. Which substance is then released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?



calcium
Muscle fibers and neurons are called electrically excitable cells because



their plasma membranes exhibit voltage changes in response to stimulation
Movement of proteins causes exposure of the active sites on the actin molecule?



tropomyosin
What type of molecule is acetylcholine?



It is a neurotransmitter.
Binding of acetylcholine with its receptor on muscle cells causes



opening of a ligand-gated sodium channel
What kind of molecule is ACh?



protein
In the muscle fiber, what is the function of acetylcholinesterase?



It deactivates acetylcholine.
What is the voltage of the resting potential of the sarcolemma?



-70 mv
Which is a molecule that binds to a receptor?



acetylcholine
Which assures quick removal of neurotransmitter at the junction between a nerve and a muscle?



acetylcholinesterase
A buildup of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft without breakdown may cause which of the following?



spastic paralysis
In a muscle twitch, which represents the time between application of a stimulus and the beginning of contraction?



lag
Which determines the height of the peaks in multiple motor unit summation?



the amount of tension produced by the number of motor units responding
Which would represent incomplete tetanus?



multiple contractions with slight relaxation
Explain why treppe takes place in muscle contractions?



increased calcium levels around the myofibrils
isometric muscle contraction is
The amount of tension increases during the contraction.
Eccentric muscle contractions occur when



a person slowly lowers a heavy weight
muscle
exists for long periods of time; helps maintain the head upright and Tension in the whole muscle remains constant
Smooth body movements result from



both incomplete and complete titanic contractions of motor units contracting out of phase with each other.
The sum of active and passive tension is called



total tension.
Which types of muscle fatigue represents depletion of ATP?



muscular
Which types of fatigue is caused by the release of more acetylcholine than can be produced to replace it?



synaptic
Muscle soreness can be produced by which of the following?



muscular fatigue;
enzymes in the extracellular; fluid commonly found within muscle;
collagen in the extracellular fluid



Which represents extreme muscular fatigue when the muscle is incapable of either contracting or relaxing?



physiological contracture
Which energy storages source is most commonly used during the first 10 seconds of exercise?



2 ATP
Which represents the amount of oxygen that is necessary for the body to recover from anaerobic respiration?



oxygen debt
characteristics of slow-twitch fibers
slow contraction.good blood supply, and many mitochondria.

characteristics fast-twitch fibers
high amount of myoglobin.
Which about distribution of fast and slow-twitch fibers in the body?



Slow-twitch fibers are usually more resistant to fatigue.
A person with an arm immobilized in a cast for 6 weeks will



develop muscular atrophy.
Which effects of exercise elevate the body temperature?



elevated metabolism from the oxygen debt; vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin;
skeletal muscle contractions


Unitary smooth muscle is found in which locations in the body?



digestive tract;reproductive tract;urinary tract

smooth muscle
The resting membrane potential is less negative than in skeletal muscle.
Which are the most common neurotransmitters in smooth muscle?



acetylcholine and norepinephrine
properties of cardiac muscle
intercalated discs
;involuntary
;branching fibers



an effect of aging on skeletal muscle?



increased time for muscle to respond to stimuli; increased recovery time; loss of muscle fibers
Which exercises slows the loss of muscle fibers in older people?



swimming
Which is true about skeletal muscle fibers in aging people?



The number of fibers decreases.There is a decreased density of capillaries that supply muscle cells.The number of motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle decreases.
A type of muscle that extends a joint is known as a(n)



extensor
When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the relatively stationary end of attachment of the muscle is termed its



origin
When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the more movable end of attachment of the muscle is termed its



insertion
When a muscle contracts, it usually has an opposing muscle that can cause movement in the opposite direction. Such a muscle is called a(an)



antagonist
For the following muscle shapes, which one is thick and tapered like the biceps brachii muscle?



fusiform
For the following muscle shapes, which one is feather shaped, like the muscles of the palm?



pennate
For the following muscle shapes, which one is fan shaped like the chest muscles?



convergent
When a muscle contracts, there may be another muscle that contracts along with it. Which of the following terms describes that type of muscle?



synergist
Of the following muscles of the head, which one encircles the outer border of the orbits?



orbicularis oculi
Of the muscles of the head, which one aids in chewing?



masseter
Of the muscles of the head, which one is on the side of the head?





temporalis
Of the muscles of the head, which one wraps around the mouth?





orbicularis oris
Of the muscles of the head, which one is on the nose?



nasalis
Of the muscles of the head, which one is on the cheek?



zygomaticus major
Of the muscles of the head, which one is over the temporal bone?



temporalis
Of muscles of the head, which one is in the back of the head?



occipitalis
Which muscles of the head draws in the corner of the mouth, as in grimacing?



depressor labii
Which muscles of the head opens the eyes and raises the upper eyelid?



levator palpebrae superioris
Which muscles of the head elevates and protrudes the lower lip, as in pouting?



mentalis
Which muscles is (are) attached to the tongue?



genioglossus;
hypoglossus
;styloglossus



Which muscles of the neck tilts the head down and toward the side?



sternocleidomastoid
Which muscles of the neck flexes the neck laterally?



scalenes
Of the back muscles , which is the largest?



trapezius
Which muscles of the back has its origin on the occipital bone?





trapezius
Which muscles of the back adducts, and rotates the arm laterally?



infraspinatus
Which muscles of the back has its insertion on the humerus?



latissimus dorsi
Which muscles of the lower back inserts on the humerus and helps to move the arm?



latissimus dorsi
Which muscles of the back attaches to thoracic and lumbar vertebrae up and down the spine?



longissimus thoracis
Which muscles elevate the ribs for inspiration?



scalenes;
external intercostals
;serratus posterior (superior part



Which muscles is the major muscle for respiration?



diaphragm
Which is the deepest abdominal muscle?



transversus abdominis
Which muscles depresses the ribs in respiration?



internal intercostals
Which muscles inserts at the mid-humerus?



deltoid
Which muscles moves the arms up, as in asking a question in class?



deltoid
Which muscles inserts on the radius?



biceps brachii
Which muscles extends the forearm and inserts on the ulna?



triceps brachii
Which muscles is an extensor?



triceps brachii
Of the muscles of the forearm, which one rotates the forearm laterally?



supinator
Of the muscles that work the hand, which one flexes and abducts the wrist?



flexor carpi radialis
Of the muscles that work the hand, which one runs along the lateral side of he forearm, and extends and abducts the wrist?



extensor carpi radialis longus
Of the muscles that work the hand, which one is a large muscle that connects the ulna to the distal phalanges? It flexes the distal joints of the fingers.



flexor digitorum profundus
Of the muscles that work the hand, which one runs medially along the forearm and connects the humerus to the middle phalanges?



flexor digitorum superficialis
Of the muscles that work the hand, which one is a slender muscle connecting the distal end of the humerus to the fascia of the palm? It flexes the wrist.



palmaris longus
Of the muscles that work the hand, which one runs from the humerus to the phalanges and extends the fingers and wrist?



extensor digitorum
Of the muscles of the forearm, which one has its origin on the mid-humerus and its insertion on the coronoid process of the ulna? It flexes the forearm at the elbow.



brachialis
A place where two or more bones come together is an
joint and an articulation.
The sagittal suture is between the
two parietal bones
The sacroiliac joint is between the
sacrum and coxa
A joing that has no joing cavity and exhibits little or no movement would be classified as a
fibrous joint
The joint between the teeth and the mandibular alveolus is an example of a
gomphosis
Cartilaginous joints
unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage.
Synovial joints are different from both fibrous and cartilaginous joints because synovial joints
are enclose by a joint capsule
synovial fluid
decreases friction between bones
joint that is most movable?
synovial

Articular cartilage
covers the ends of bones in synovial joints.
The function of a bursa is to
provide a fluid filled cushion
ball and socket joint are
multiaxial allowing a wide range of movement
The cubital or elbow joint is an example of a
hinge joint.
Of the muscles of the thigh, which one is on the posterior side?



biceps femoris
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the anterior midline?



rectus femoris
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the medial side of the thigh and pulls the leg inward?



adductor magnus
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is NOT part of the quadriceps group?



biceps femoris
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one does NOT pull the leg forward?



biceps femoris
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is the most superior?



iliacus
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is a narrow band that is on the medial side and moves from the pubis to the tibia?



gracilis
Of the following muscles, which one attaches to the spine of the lesser trochanter?



psoas major
Of the following muscles, which one has its origin on the pubic bone and its insertion on the posterior surface (linea aspera) of the femur?



adductor longus
Of the following muscles of the thigh which one has its origin on the ilium, sacrum and coccyx and its insertion on the posterior surface of the femur?



gluteus maximus
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one inserts on the head of the fibula?



biceps femoris
Of the following muscles of the thigh which one is on the medial side of the anterior thigh?



vastus medialis
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one has its origin on the ischial tuberosity and inserts on the medial surface of the tibia?



semitendinosus
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one has its origin on the ischial tuberosity and inserts on the medial condyle of the tibia?



semimembranosus
Which muscles would be considered an antagonist to the rectus femoris?



biceps femoris
Which muscles would be considered an antagonist to the gluteus maximus?



rectus femoris
Which muscles inserts on the linea aspera of the femur?



adductor magnus
Of the muscles of the lower leg, which one is on the anterior side?



tibialis anterior
muscles of the leg, which one inserts on the calcaneus
gastrocnemius
muscles of the leg, which one attaches to the heel by way of the calcaneal tendon?
soleus
Of the following muscles of the leg, which one is an antagonist to the soleus?



tibialis anterior
Of the following muscles, which one flexes the toes?



flexor digitorum longus
Of the following muscles, which one pulls the heel up?



soleus
Which of the following muscles flexes the hip and extends the knee?



rectus femoris
Which of the following muscles causes flexion at both the knee and hip, and allows a person to cross the legs while seated?



sartorius
Which of the following muscles adducts the leg at the hip?



gracilis
Which of the following muscles inverts the foot?



tibialis anterior
Which of the following muscles is considered a "lateral hamstring," based on its insertion?



biceps femoris

Add Cards

You must Login or Register to add cards