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Glossary of 3e452 UREs

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Created by waterhead42

class 2 liquids are liquids with a flash point of what?
at or above 100 degrees and below 140 degrees F
what is the minimum flash point of jp-8 jet fuel?
100 degrees f
the density of a fuel is its what?
weight per unit volume
static dissipater additive is added to JP-8 to do what?
increase conductivity
what is the human response to fuel vapor exposure at 10,000 ppm for 10 minutes?
intoxication
when you are filling a cone roof with floating pan what is the maximum fill rate?
3 feet per second until the pan is floating
what type of outer garments should you wear around fueling operations to reduce the risk of static charges?
combination blends of 50 percent cotton and 50 percent polyester.
after use, fuel soaked rags should be placed in what?
self closing metal containers.
what class fire is a jp-8 pipeline fire?
Class B
how far from an underground fuel storage tank vent must you post danger signs?
50 feet
how many yellow bands will be displayed on an eight inch jp-8 pipeline?
three
how much lighting is required for a jp-8 tank catwalk?
2 foot candle power.
how far must an emergency shutoff switch be from a diesel fuel fillstand?
no closer than 25 feet
fire reporting telephone stations should be located within what?
300 feet of all fixed fueling systems.
what is the actual cause of electrical shock?
current
as an exception to air force directives, under what circumstances may you work on an energized circuit?
if it is to prevent possible injury to others or if critical missions will be jeopardized by interruption of service.
what form is used to block and tag switches during electrical work for the protection of personnel?
af form 979
what publication provides detailed procedures on blocking and tagging electrical circuits?
AFI 32-1064
how often must employees receive respirator training?
annually
with a second degree burn, the skin is best described as what?
blistered
what should you do for a person suffering from heat cramps?
give the victim large amounts of water.
the greatest danger when the heart stops beating is lack of what?
oxygen to the brain.
when performing one person CPR, how many complete cycles of 15 chest compressions and two ventilations should be performed before rechecking the victim for a pulse?
four
how far should you depress the breastbone when performing CPR?
1_1/2 to 2 inches
what is the key to waste reduction?
source reduction.
what are the unbalanced forces that close an automatic valve that has been opened by force pushed against its diaphragm?
gravity and spring tension
which law is used to help determine the size pump required to move liquid?
newtons second law
how is mechanical advantage determined?
ma=resistance/effort
what would the mechanical advantage be if you used a block and tackle with seven supporting ropes, counting the rope you use to pull on?
6-1
what determines the ease with which a screw can be turned?
depth of pitch
what formula is used to determine power?
power=work/time
what does a drive pump generally use to absorb vibration?
flexible coupling.
what is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?
a liquid is far less compressible than a gas.
using pascal's principle determine the pressure exerted in an enclosed 10 inch cylinder when a connected 1 inch cylinder has 15 psi applied to it?
150 psi.
what would be the net difference between the opposing forces of an automatic valve that has a 2 inch seat, an effective diaphragm area of 6 inches, and an inlet pressure of 50psi?
200 psi
what is the lifting force of a liquid called?
buoyance.
what unit of measurement would indicate volume of flow?
barrels per hour
which physical factors affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?
gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces.
what happens to fuel's kinetic energy and the pressure it will exert when it passes through a venturi?
energy increases and pressure decreases.
a complete cycle of pressure waves and reversals of flow during hydraulic shock occupies the time requirede for what?
2 round trips.
what determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water hammer wave?
the amount of extinguished velocity.
which metric prefix equals 1,000?
kilo
how many decigrams make one gram?
10
metric hammers are sized in what?
grams.
metric wrenches are sized in what?
milimeters.
what would probably happen if you use a metric wrench on an SAE bolt?
you will strip the bolt head.
what type screw would you use a crosspoint screwdriver on?
a cross slotted.
how are nonadjustable wrenches sized?
by the distance between the parallel flats of the nut.
what type punch is used to mark a point in metal?
a center punch
what type chisel is most commonly used for cutting sheet metal?
a flat chisel.
a hacksaw's adjustable frame will accommodate what size blades?
8-16 inches in length.
when cutting tubing with a tubing cutter, how much pressure should you apply to the adjusting wheel after each turn of the cutter?
1/4 turn on the adjustment wheel.
to produce a correct size flare, how far should you insert the tubing into the flaring block?
equal to the depth of the bevel in the flare block.
what is the minimum radius that tubing may be bent?
five times the diameter of the tubing.
required commercial publications not in the AF publication system are purchased how?
through local procurment.
how do you file commercial publications that are purchased locally?
on a designated shelf file, in some logical order.
how are commercial technical publications filed with regular TOs?
they are filed separately with their own index and are made available to everyone.
when is project documentation due to DESC for the following program year?
1 February.
most DESC emergency projects involve a leak or spill and are of what nature?
Environmental.
the purpose of AF form 980, caution tag, is to do what?
identify situations out of the ordinary.
which AF form is used to record all blocking and tagging actions done on primary electrical circuits on AF installations?
AF form 269, Electrical facilities safe clearance.
for how long must safe clearance forms be retained after release?
1 year.
the signature of the supervisor in the released by block of the safe clearance form certifies what?
that all personnel and temporary grounds are clear and all lines and equipment are ready for service.
what must be done immediately after an electrical shock victim is removed from the circuit?
give medical attention.
the reading on a voltmeter indicates what?
electrical pressure.
ohmmeters are used to check for what?
resistance.
when you are using your multimeter in the ohmmeter function, one step would be to do what?
select the scale you need by a switch on the meter.
when using the multimeter as an AV voltmeter, you must do what?
connect the meter in parallel with the circuit.
the most important safety precaution you should apply when using a multimeter is to do what?
refrain from touching the meter leads while the circuit is energized.
the easiest and simplest meter to use for measuring current flow in a circuit is the what?
the clamp on meter.
the smallest part of a substance that has all characteristics of that substance is what?
a molecule.
what best describes a positive ion?
an atom that lost an electron and has more protons.
what effect of current causes and electric motor to produce mechanical energy?
magnetism.
what is the smallest current that can be fatal under certain conditions?
one tenth of 1 amp.
what is used to move a sufficient number of electrons to perform a useful job?
voltage.
electrical resistance is the what?
opposition to current flow.
a 3 horsepower motor consumes how much power?
2,238 watts.
a magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called what?
an artificial magnet.
when do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?
never.
how can a polarity be created and the strength of the magnetic lines of force around a conductor be increased?
by looping the conductor into a coil.
what items are required to construct an electromagnet?
a coil of wire, a core material, and current flow.
what are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?
magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion.
what type of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?
Direct current.
what type drawing shows a cross sectional view of equipment?
a detail drawing.
what type diagram is a simple drawing showing the relationship of system major parts?
a block diagram.
what type diagram makes use of diagram symbols instead of pictures to show components?
a connection diagram.
what best describes a schematic diagram?
sometimes called a one line diagram and is very useful in troubleshooting.
how much current flow is in a circuit with 24 volts applied and with 72 ohms resistance?
.33 amperes.
what is the current flow in a series circuit with a 20 ohm resistor, a 25 ohm resistor, and a 30 ohm resistor connected to a 25 volt power supply?
.33 amperes.
the joint resistance of a parallel circuit is equal to the applied voltage divided by what?
the total current.
what is the power in watts consumed by a circuit with 120 volts applied and a resistance of 12 ohms?
1200 watts
what completes an electrical cycle of an AC generator?
one positive and one negative alternation.
how is the measurement of the apparent power of an AC electrical system expressed?
kilovolt amperes.
what unit of measurement is used when calculating the inductance of a coil?
henry.
what is the capacitance of a 125 uF capacitor when converted to farads?
.000125 F
kirchhoff's voltage law states that...
the algebraic sum of the voltages around a closed loop must equal zero.
a 110 volt AC motor recordes 10 in line amperes, and the inline wattmeter shows only 1936 watts being consumed. what would be the power factor of the AC circuit?
88 percent pf.
the purpose of an electrical generator is to
convert mechanical energy to electrical energy
what type of generator has brushes riding on the commutator to carry the current to an external circuit?
DC type.
what is the open circuit voltage of a lead acid storage battery?
2.2 volts.
what is the primary voltage of a transformer that has a secondary voltage of 240 volts and is rated 1 to 3 turns ratio?
80 volts.
what is not part of a DC motor?
a stator.
in a DC motor, how are coil ends from the armature windings attached to a commutator (riser)?
they are soldered.
in what way does a DC shunt motor have the field coils and armature connected?
in parallel.
what part of a three phase motor is connected to the supply voltage?
the stator.
the magnetic field of a three phase motor rotor is caused by what?
current flow in the rotor.
the internal windings of all three phase motors are what?
either wye or delta connected.
what characterizes three phase motors?
they are either single or dual voltage motors.
the motor that requires some starting means is the what?
single phase AC motor.
the squirrel cage winding has high inductive reactance and is placed beneath the what?
wound rotor section.
what should you connect, and how, to operate a single phase dual voltage motor on high voltage?
run windings in series.
how many basic types of across the line motor controls are there?
two.
the device used in most magnetic across the line motor controllers to reduce chatter is what?
shaded rings.
the methods used to open the contacts on an across the line magnetic controller are what?
spring tension and gravity.
a temperature sensitive device to operate a magnetic across the line starter automatically is a what?
thermostat.
what type of motor enclosure is designed to prevent liquids or solids from entering the motor except at indirect angles?
splash proof.
what type of bearing should be used in a vertically mounted motor?
ball or roller.
when you clean a motor with compressed air, what is the maximum air pressure to use?
25 psi.
what should be your first check on a motor that seems to be overheating?
ventilation.
the endplay of a motor should not exceed what?
1/64th of an inch.
an indication of an open rotor in a squirrel cage motor is what?
the motor slowing down under load.
a motor that operates slowly may have a what?
deficient voltage supply.
a hexagon window on a plug fuse indicates that the amperage rating is between what values?
0.5 and 15 amps.
what is the first step in replacing a fuse?
de energize the circuit.
ce's primary wartime mission is to do what?
furnish operational assistance to a flying wing.
crash and rescue support is provided by who?
the BCE.
what is an active force not assigned to a BCE unit when not deployed?
RED HORSE.
which host nation impacts should civil engineer units assess before deploying to another country?
operations, environment, and populace.
which civil engineer flight plans, develops, submits, and maintains the civil engineer financial programs and financial managment systems?
resources.
while ensuring mission continuity during war and peace, the CE fligh that provides dedicated resources to fully protect life, resources, and the environment from the unfavorable outcomes of fires, natural disasters, and hazardous materials incidents is...
Readiness.
which trades are in the ops flight?
pest management specialist,material control specialist, and professional engineers and technicians.
name the ops flight element that reviews all project designs and coordinates project impact with the appropriate work centers and reviews all projects from the standpoint of enhancing the reliability and maintainability of the facility or system.
maintenance engineering.
the operations flight element that manages the government operated civil engineering supply store, tracking material acquisitions, monitoring work center stock and coordinating adjusted levels, and maintaining the Civil engineer material acquisition syste
material acquisition.
the operations flight element that works closely with base contracting, accounting and finance, base supply, and other agency personnel to ensure maximum logistics support is...
material acquisition.
who introduces, reviews, validates, and priortizes coporate prime BEEF engineer programs and requirements?
readiness board.
who ensures all prime BEEF team members are organized, equipped, and trained to perform their contingency roles and that all equipment is on hand and ready to deploy?
the BCE.
what is the five character, alphanumeric code that uniquely identifies each type unit of the armed forces is...
the UTC.
the focus for deploying prime BEEF forces is to do what?
support aircraft and combat operations.
when contingency vehicles are not normally used during peacetime, how often must prime BEEF personnel receive vehicle qualification training?
every 3 years.
what training pulls together all of the various facets of the bare base field environment to include leadership, innovation, and team effort?
tier 3, silver flag.
what prime Beef mobility bag contains extreme cold weather gear?
B bag.
the weapon requirements for prime BEEF members are what?
one m-16 rifle per team member.
a major command receives special consideration for receiving ANG or AFRC prime BEEF forces when deployment does what?
provides unique contingency skill training.
suffixes are what?
specific to own afsc.
what indicates the craftsman skill level?
7
what identifies the conversion table subgroup as listed in the department of defense occupational conversion manual that groups similar occupations in the military services and civil service?
related DOD occupation subgroup.
the minimum skill level necessary to primarily manage and coordinate work centers or shops is what?
the superintendent.
the part of the civil engineer occupation badge that represents the essence of engineering is the what?
the gear.
the civil engineer occupation badge that has a wreath is the what?
master badge.
which part of the CFETP identifies transition training guide requirements for staff sgt through master sgt.?
part 1
the part of the CFETP that contains our STS is...
part 2.
what part of the CFETP includes major command unique training requirements?
part 2.
what does the airforce use to differentiate between subject knowledge levels?
A, B, C, D.
the proficiency code level that analyzes facts and principles and draws conclusions about the subject is...
level C.
the process of teaching students specific skills to be performed under defined conditions is known as what?
training.
the process of teaching students a body of knowledge designed to prepare them to deal with situations and solve problems not yet defined is known as what?
educating.
the minimum skill level for a task certifier is the what?
5 level.
certest teaches what?
principles and procedures of a subject or task.
why is the operations flight unable to meet all the customers requests?
there are more requirements than resources.
if unable to fulfill a work request, you should do what?
explain constraints to the customer and seek alternatives.
upon notification, what work must be completed within 24 hours?
emergency.
what work must be completed within 5 workdays of receiving materials?
urgent.
what initating document identifies work requirements to correct facility deterioration or health and safety hazards?
AF Form 332, BCE work request.
BCE has an AF Form 332, BCE work request, for work not qualifying for a higher priority. what BCE work priority do we assign to it?
necessary.
to collect reimbursements and gather data for review and analysis use what form?
AF Form 327, BCE work order.
which board determines whether the work is to be accomplished by in service personnel, self help, or contract?
the work request review board.
what do we call work whose costs exceed 15,000$?
a project.
who is responsible for all work performed by self help?
the BCE.
if a person pays for lost or damaged government property, who has ownership?
the US government.
what form does the government use to satisfy pecuniary liability for the lost or damaged government property that is $500 or less?
DD Form 1131, Cash collection voucher.
material left over after the work is complete (but not enough to return to logistics) we keep in what?
shop stock.
which element sends most direct scheduled work requirements to the shop or zone instead of through the planning element?
customer service.
all requisitions no matter who conducts the materials planning goes through where?
logistics.
an example of CE equipment under warranty is what?
an hvac system.
when might the AF decide not to enforce a warranty?
during contingency operations, when equipment is damaged by neglect, or if the equipment is obsolete.
which type of work is not part of the RWP?
utilities operations.
work with a higher priority than RWP is considered what?
urgent and emergency.
the goal of the RWP program assessment is to do what?
balance preventive maintenance against breakdown costs.
what cost center do we use to report labor hours using a weekly schedule?
actual time accounting (ATA)
what form do we use to maintain weekly and daily information for each shop?
AF Form 561, BCE weekly work schedule.
where do we get input for the daily work schedule?
the AF Form 561, BCE weekly work schedule.
the work scheduler generates one daily work schedule for each what?
ATA cost center.
what information does the BCE daily work schedule provide information on?
location of each worker and the status of all work.
what points out flaws in the work plan, prevents confusion between crafts, and provides historical data for use with similar projects?
documentation.
what is the systematic procedure for any job- the sequence for work in order of performance?
job phases.
placing safety suggestions on the bulletin board and passing safety literature to each worker are examples of which type of accident prevention method?
education and training.
what best describes a confined space with a class A classification?
it has an oxygen deficient atmosphere, an explosive or flammable atmosphere, or concentrations of toxic substances exist.
if a worker does not understand the procedures for an assigned task what should the supervisor do?
have the worker state the procedures.
before cleaning or adjusting a power tool, you must do what?
disconnect the power tool from the power source.
when working around moving equipment, you should avoid what?
wearing loose clothing.
if more than one worker is doing maintenance on a piece of powered equipment, which worker should lockout/tagout the equipment?
each journeyman working on the equipment.
which AF program is established to protect people from harmful effects of hazardous noise?
Hearing conservation program.
what determines which organ or body system is affected by chemical vapors?
the specific compound involved.
a chemical agen that produces dermatitis after prolonged contact with the skin is a what?
skin sensitizer.
what environmental protection agency office supervises the administrative law judges, who operate at the agency regional offices?
the chief administrative law judge.
which environmental protection agency office ensures compliance with the davis bacon act and related acts?
the office of civil rights.
name the directives issued by the president of the united states.
Executive orders (EO)
in a case where no final governing standards exist, what publication do we use to develop final governing standards that provides the compliance criteria for use by the AF?
overseas environmental baseline guidance document (OEBGD).
which action qualifies for a categorical exclusing (CATEX) under the environmental impact assessment process?
performing exterior construction within the 5 foot line of a building without changing the land use of the existing building.
which AF environmental quality program pillar reduces health and environmental risks created or caused by past operations?
cleanup.
which workplace hazards include irritants, corrosives, cryogenics, sensitizes, carcinogens, and target organ hazards?
health hazards.
who oversees a state's local emergency planning committees?
the state emergency response commission (SERC)
what resource conservation and recovery act waste is described as ignitable, corrosive, reactive, or toxic?
RCRA characteristic waste.
what hazardous waste is a discarded chemical product (in its pure form) that is an acute hazard?
p- code.
how often must we test high volume hazardous waste streams?
annually.
what are the EPA codes for listed wastes?
F, K, P, and U codes.
which publications are HQ AF level documents?
departmental.
organizations below the HQ AF level issue these publications.
FIELD.
when a unit level publication conflicts with one of its own publications, what is the protocol?
follow the publication with the most current date.
what article under the UCMJ are non punitive publications enforceable under?
Article 92(3)
what does the AF use to measure compliance with policy directives?
metrics.
informational publications that serve to guide, point out, or otherwise facilitate reference are what?
indicies.
concise reference publications on the technical aspects of a particular subject or a compilation of factual data and instructional material not subject to frequent revision are what?
handbooks.
informational publications that are detailed listings that describe or list a collection of information according to some plan are what?
catalogs.
publications of another federal agency, including DOD and its components that are directive on or of interest to the AF are what?
non AF publications.
who issues NIOSH publications that are directive on the AF?
Department of Health and Human Services.
publications that contain mutually agreed upon policies or procedures of the AF and one or more of the military departments or DOD agencies to carry out a common mission or functions are what?
interservice publications.
what do we call the military department or agency that publishes an interservice publication?
the Executive agent.
forms that must be controlled, safeguarded, and accounted for so as not to jeopardize AF installation security or defraud the government are known as what?
accountable.
what are the publication sources for engineering technical letters?
AFCESA and the Army core of engineers.
Technical orders are issued by who?
the secretary of the AF.
where do we get manufacturer technical instructions for equipment or work procedures for which there are no technical orders?
commercial publications.
what is the maximum allowable tow speed for the POL RURK trailer on paved surfaces?
45mph.
how long will it take 3 POL RURK team members to repair an in crater 6" pipeline?
1 hour 45 minutes.
what items critical for support of the POL RURK are not included in the kit?
a fire extinguisher, tow vehicle, and a backhoe.
what can you use to complete the pipe cut if the pneumatic hacksaw fails?
a bow saw.
who should initally approach and circle the crater on foot with the automatic gas alarm?
the team chief.
when you do an in crater repair, what is the minimum amount of undamaged and visibly round pipe you should expose on each side of the damaged pipe section?
3 feet.
how many members are on the in crater repair team?
3
what is the minimum distance between pipe cuts for the type of repair that requires two hard wall hoses?
15 feet.
what can you place on the bypass pit hose assembly to reduce the load on the coupling?
a 90 degree elbow.
when making a bypass repair, on which side of the crater should you make the first cut?
on the pipe end closest to the crater.
if residual fuel cannot be drained by other means, what equipment can you use to drain it?
tapping and fuel suction equipment.
what is the largest diameter hole that can be repaired in an 8 inch pipe?
less than 4 inches.
what is the most serious hazard associated with the contingency fuel recovery system?
jet fuel vapors and mists.
at what oxygen level are supplied air respirators required?
below 19.5%.
at what fuel temperature will the two stage temperature switch shut down the portable fuel transfer unit disel engine?
180 degrees F.
how many emergency stop switches are on the portable fuel transfer unit?
2.
how long should you idle the portable fuel transfer unit to allow warm up?
2 minutes.
how long should you idle the fuel scavenging unit to allow warmup?
2 minutes.
what is the minimum distance the portable fuel transfer unit should be placed from the fuel source?
50 feet.
what is the maximum distance that the fuel scavenging unit should be placed from the pumping site?
140 feet.
fuel flow is initally established throughout the fuel scavenging unit system when what is done?
the dead man switch is activated.
how are the portable fuel transfer unit and fuel scavenging unit shut down in an emergency?
by activating their respective emergency buttons.
when you install the portable fuel transfer unit separator, how many foot pounds should you tighten the separator hex nuts?
10ft lbs.
when you install the portable fuel transfer unit separator, how many foot pounds should you tighten the coalescer hex nuts?
10 ft lbs.
what is the first component you should check when the portable fuel transfer unit engine is hard to start?
the battery.
how should the dike capacity compare to the bladder capacity? the dike capacity should be what?
1_1/2 times the bladder capacity.
how much clearance must be maintained between the bladder and dike wall?
2 feet.
what must be the maximum distance from the dikes to the aircraft's fuel receiving adapter?
250 feet.
what is the minimum distance jerry cans and other flammable storage containers should be stored from open flames or ignition sources?
50 feet.
what are the three types of fuel facilities used on any base?
bulk, operating storage, and dispensing.
what is the capacity of the R-22 pump?
900 gpm.
how many R-14 fuel servicing modules does each air transportable hydrant refueling system contain?
3.
what is the size of the army's inland petroleum distribution system aluminum pipe?
6"x 19'
how often must expansion loops be installed in aluminum pipeline?
at least every 1,000 feet of pipeline.
how much deflection does the hinged pipeline coupling allow for between joints?
2%.
the total water storage of a harvest eagle water distribution system is about how many gallons?
50,000 gallons.
the total pumping capacity of the harvest eagle raw water subsystem to the treatment site is what?
250 gpm.
what is the most expansive subsystem of the harvest eagle water distribution system?
potable water subsystem.
the backpressure regulators of the harvest eagle water distribution are designed to keep a minimum system pressure of...
20 psi in the loop.
how many evaporation beds are used in a field kitchen waste disposal system?
seven.
how much potable water is produced by the ROWPU if 1200 gallons of water is pumped through the unit?
400 gallons.
a pipe carrying steam is saftey color coded what color?
gray.
a pipe carrying liquid oxygen is safety color coded what color?
green.
how do you repair a leaking plastic pipe joint in a waste system?
replace the fitting.
which type of tent heater uses a siphon to start the fuel flowing from the fuel can to the control valve?
the preway heater.
which burner is used in a preway tent heater?
vaporizing pot burner.
what is the minimum height above the highest point of the tent you install the smokestack on the preway heater?
18 inches.
how many strokes are required to prime a preway heater?
4 to 6 strokes.
when lighting a preway heater, you first press the reset lever of the fuel control valve down and turn the control knob to what setting?
high fire.
you increase the heat output on a preway heater by turning the control knob what direction?
counterclockwise.
you clean the siphon assembly on a preway heater by flushing it with what?
clean fuel oil.
what conditions could cause a fluctuating flame in a preway heater?
water in the oil.
which of the following conditions could be the cause of high draft in a preway heater?
additional lengths of stove pipe or high winds.
how are confined spaces classified?
by oxygen content, flammability, and toxicity.
who is not a member of the confined space program team?
the entry supervisor.
who must maintain all confined space records?
ground safety.
who is responsible for evaluating confined spaces for flammable, explosive, or oxygen enriched atmospheres when permitting entries that are not covered by a master entry plan?
the fire chief.
what AF form is used to authorize entry into a confined space?
AF Form 1024
what is not a function of the confined space master entry plan?
to describe unacceptable entry conditions, under which permits may not be issued.
using the master entry plan as a guide, who may authorize entry into the confined space by his or her signature on the entry permit?
the entry supervisor.
who may reclassify a permit required confined space to a non permit confined space, at the time of entry, if testing shows the space to be free of all hazards?
the entry supervisor.
as a minimum, how often must a non permit required confined space be reviewed to make sure conditions have not changed enough to create a potential for hazards and a need for a change in classification?
annually.
in the confined space entry program, who is responsible for making sure employees use personal protective equipment?
the supervisor.
in the confined space entry program, who develops a structured and effective training program to establish safe work practices and techniques?
the supervisor.
in the confined space entry program, who is the approval authority for the color of protective helmets?
ground safety.
in the confined space entry program, whom should you contact with questions concerning the hearing protection program?
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
in the confined space entry program, at what height is fall protection required?
over 6 feet.
in the confined space entry program, how often must fall arrest equipment be inspected?
before each use.
who among the confined space rescue team must be familiar with toxic effect or symptoms of exposure to anticipated hazardous materials?
all entrants.
who normally provides rescue service for operations requiring entry into permit required confined spaces?
CE base fire department.
how often must organizational rescue team members receive hands on rescue training after initial training?
annually.
who determines how many fuel tanks are required at each base?
the defense energy support center.
what size water drawoff line is installed on a cone roof tank, and what is it piped to?
3/4", a 55 gallon product recovery system.
what size pipe is used as the gauge well on a cone roof tank with floating pan?
8 inches.
how and where does the product withdrawal line terminate inside a cone roof tank with floating pan?
in a vertical position 6 inches above the top of the sump.
what is the slope of the stripping line inside an all weather tank, and where does it terminate?
6inches per 10 feet, 4 inches from the sump bottom.
what size is the water draw off line in an all weather tank, and where does it terminate?
3/4", 1/2" from the sump bottom.
at what level does the high level alarm actuate on a cone roof with floating pan?
just before the high level shutoff level.
how many vents are installed on an all weather tank?
3
the wind girder is installed on floating roof tanks to do what?
prevent the collapse of the tank shell.
the roof guide is installed on floating roof tanks to do what?
keep the roof from rotating.
the double check floating roof tank is the most efficient type of roof because the roof has what?
insulating air space between decks.
how is the deck on a pontoon floating roof tank constructed?
the outer edge is double thickness and the center is single thickness.
what underground tank component prevents overfilling?
the high level shutoff valve.
at what level in an underground fuel tank is the low level shutoff set to deenergize the fueling pump?
13 inches.
the 129AF ball float is set to close the main valve when fuel in the underground tank reaches what level?
11 inches.
what size is the cleanout line on an underground tank, and where does it terminate?
3/4" 12 inches above ground level.
how often must you clean a bulk storage tank that has a receiving filter separator within one mile of its location and is internally coated?
at least every 8 years.
how often must you clean an internally coated bulk storage tank that receives fuel directly from a barge?
at least every 5 years.
how often must you clean an operating tank that is not internally coated and does not have a receiving filter separator?
at least every 3 years.
when must an internally coated diesel fuel tank be cleaned?
by direction of the fuels managment office.
at what point is uneven settling first considered dangerous for a floating roof tank?
5 inches.
what is installed on a floating roof tank to help prevent out of roundness?
a wind girder.
how is the product identification displayed on an above ground tank?
yellow bands with white letters on a black background.
how many brands are used to identify jp-8 fuel?
3
a pressure relief valve installed around the inlet block valve of a floating roof tank is adjusted to open at what pressure?
10% above system deadhead pressure.
what is the inspection frequency for a thermal pressure relief valve?
annually.
during freezing weather, what is the inspection frequency of pressure/vacuum vents?
daily
what prevents fuel from entering a roof drain line?
flange gaskets and asbestos ring packing.
in extremely cold climates, what should you do to the roof drain line?
fill it with antifreeze.
when you are inspecting the fabric seal on floating roof tanks, what would indicate a warped sealing ring?
a gap between the metallic sealing ring and the tank shell of 10 to 15 feet long
who will assign a qualified tank entry supervisor to supervise a tank cleaning operation?
the MAJCOM fuels engineer.
who is responsible for removing fuel from the tank to the lowest point possible through existing connections?
the fuels managment office.
who must qualify a contractor for cleaning an AF tank?
the LFM foreman.
to qualify for an AF tank cleaning contract, a contractor must provide proof of having completed similar work on how many previous projects?
at least 3.
who is responsible for inspecting a contractors equipment before cleaning an AF fuel tank?
LFM tank entry supervisor.
which of the following fuels normally contains a higher concentration of benzene?
gasoline.
people entering a fuel tank must wear what type of respirator?
type C.
all electrical equipment to be used within 50 feet of any fuel system must be defined as what class in the National Electrical Code?
Class 1, Division 1, Group D.
what type boot should you wear when entering a tank with 7 inches of fuel still in the tank?
3/4 length.
during tank cleaning, when should you remove heavily contaminated clothing?
immediately, but drench yourself with water first.
a safety harness, used in tank cleaning, is good for a max of how many years from the date stamped on the metal tag located on the back of the harness?
10 years.
lifelines used in tank cleaning have a service life of how many years after their first use?
5 years.
positive mechanical ventilation should be provided for below grade pits that are how deep?
7 feet.
how much time from low battery alarm until the Bacharach 514 shuts down?
2 minutes.
what is the minimum voltage desired for the Bacharach 514?
5.2 volts.
if you suspect an unknown gas, which setting on the Bacharach 514 should you select?
JP-5
during tank cleaning, where must an air compressor be positioned?
upwind, just outside the dike.
artificial lights, other than battery powered safety lanterns, can be used only during tank cleaning after what condition is met?
the tank is vapor free.
who directs the disposal of the fuel water sludge mixture contained in drums during tank cleaning?
the BCE environmental coordinator?
during tank cleaning, how often must you record vapor readings?
15 minute intervals.
what type respirator must be used for inert tank entry?
type C.
what is the preferred method of abandoning a 50,000 gallon tank?
removal.
what must be done to fuel pumps and motors located in a pit if they are to be abandoned?
removed and stored in a dry place.
how many basic designs of gate valves are there?
2
how often do you inspect a gate valve for leaks?
as required.
during repacking, a gate valve should be placed in what position?
closed.
for large gate valves, what type of packing is best?
teflon.
what type of manual valve can be used to control the rate of product flow?
the globe valve.
what manual valve can be repacked while the line is under pressure?
the globe valve.
what type packing is used around the valve stems of globe valves?
teflon string.
how often do you operationally inspect a lubricated plug valve?
quarterly.
what type valve does not have to be removed from the pipeline during hydrostatic testing?
the double block and bleed plug valve.
what prevents leakage past the hub of the resilient liner plug valve?
a diaphragm seal.
how often do nonlubricated plug valves have to be inspected for ease of operation and leaks?
as required.
a 12 inch nonlubricated plug valve will have what type of operator?
worm gear.
what position must a general twin seal plug valve be in so that you can remove the valve operator?
closed.
which of the manual valves is a suitable substitute for a nonlubricated plug valve?
the ball valve.
what type valve used in fuel systems must be fire tested and qualified in accordance with the requirements of API standard 607 and operate from fully closed to fully open with a 90 degree rotation of the ball?
a ball valve.
how often do ball valves have to be inspected for ease of operation and leaks?
as required.
to conform to API Standard 6D, the seat and disc of which valve must be removable without removing the valve from the pipeline?
the check valve.
what type of valve requires the least amount of space?
the butterfly valve.
what type of valve must be fully closed before you can remove it from the pipeline?
the butterfly valve.
whom must you notify before you work on a fuel system that could interfere with the base flying mission?
the resource control center.
what specialized equipment must you have to ensure system integrity when removing a valve from the system?
blind flanges.
where would you find out which valves have to be isolated before removing a manual valve from a pipeline?
the as built drawings.
how much fuel is in a 22 foot section of 6 inch pipe?
33 gallons.
when removing a manual valve from a pipeline, which bolts on the valve should you loosen first to drain the fuel into a drip pan?
the bottom bolts.
when reinstalling a manual valve, which bolts should you insert first?
the bottom bolts.
the system configuration that would not require you to manually bleed air out of the pipeline after a valve is replaced involves pumping where?
directly into a storage tank.
the main difference between the internal gear pump and the external gear pump lies in what?
where the fuel flows.
what type of pump has a built in pressure control valve?
the rotary vane type.
what type of lubricant is used and how is it applied to the Blackmer pump ball bearings?
lithium based grease; with a hand pressure gun.
what is used to remove the seals and bearings from the head of the rotary vane type pump?
a screwdriver.
to adjust a rotary vane pump pressure relief control, you turn it in what direction, with what effect?
counterclockwise; to decrease delivery pressure.
if a centrifugal pump develops 600gpm at 350 feet of head, how much psi is developed at 600gpm when pumping jp-8?
123psi.
what type of impeller in the centrifugal pump is the most efficient and develops the highest pressure?
a closed impeller.
at what rate will a gilbarco self priming pump remove air?
18gpm.
what should you do if the centrifugal pump binds after you have replaced parts in the self priming pump portion of a gilbarco pump?
add a paper thin gasket.
what type pump is the API 610 pump?
single stage centrifugal, radial split case, with end suction and top discharge.
what is the maximum tolerance allowed when aligning an API 610 pump shaft and motor shaft?
.002 inches.
how often is an API 610 pump operationally inspected?
quarterly.
the number of column shaft sections a deep well turbine will have is determined by the what?
distance between the pump tank flange and the tank floor.
when adjusting impeller clearances in a deep well turbine pump, what type of impeller is raised all of the way up and then backed off one full turn?
a closed impeller.
you are replacing a mechanical seal on a deep well turbine with threaded couplings. you turn the couplings in which direction to disconnect it? with what do you cover the shaft threads?
clockwise; with tape.
what action should you take if you notice a slight leak on a mechanical seal you have just installed?
allow reasonable time for the seals to adjust.
the components of the 81AF, nonsurge check valve, are one check valve flow control, a variable position indicator, and what?
two swing check valves.
to speed up the opening time of an 81AF, nonsurge check valve, you must turn the check valve flow control adjusting screw what direction?
clockwise to increase.
which conditions would cause the 81AF, nonsurge check valve, to open too rapidly or have no control of the opening rate?
a swing check valve disc stuck off its seat.
when reverse flow occurs to an 81AF-8, nonsurge check valve, how does fuel get to the cover chamber of the hytrol check valve?
through a drilled passage.
what is the standard opening rate for the 81AF-8, nonsurge check valve?
20 seconds.
what would cause the 81AF-8, nonsurge checkvalve, to fail to open?
a closed downstream manual valve.
the newest filter/separator modification requires how many cartridges total for a 600 gpm filter/separator?
30
in a horizontal filter/separator, what will change positions and to what valve will pressure be directed when the float of the pilot valve assembly is in the TOP position?
the rotary disc; to the fuel discharge valve.
what is the purpose of the liquid level gauge on a vertical filter/separator?
to determine the water level.
when the float in a vertical filter/separator raises to the TOP position, what happens?
the fuel discharge valve closes.
how are the coalescers and separators mounted in an API 1581 filter/separator?
coalescers at the bottom and separators at the top.
coalescers in an API 1581 filter/separator are rated for what minimum gpm per inch of length?
2.27.
the hub of the water drain system is the what?
pilot valve assembly.
when the float of a filter/separator is in its lowest position, supply pressure is directed to what component? will that component be open or closed?
to the water drain valve; and closed.
when the water drain valve is removed from the filter/separator, where is the control tubing that once went to the water drain cover chamber rerouted to?
downstream of the fuel discharge valve.
which component on the 40AF-2A, fuel discharge valve, will stop all flow of fuel in the control tubing when there is excess water in the filter/separator?
the auxiliary hytrol.
if a fuel system has a maximum operating pressure of 125 psi, at what psi should the filter/separator pressure relief be set?
137.5
when removing the KMU-416/F modification kit with nine additional elements, how many elements must you remove from the front side to balance the manifold?
6
when gravity filling a horizontal filter/separator from another horizontal filter/separator, how many minutes must you wait for the two filter/separators to equalize?
10 minutes.
what information must be recorded on a filter/separator after the elements are changed?
the next due date and the maximum allowable differential pressure.
if the 40AF-2A, fuel discharge valve, fails to open, what should you check first?
if there is water in the filter/separator.
the new CFF21 flange control differs from the old pilot valve assembly in that it has what?
a float that floats on fuel.
if required, what mesh strainer is used upstream of pumps?
7.
what is the normal flow of fuel through a strainer?
center to outside.
meters must be within what percent of total flow displaced to meet AF standards?
0.2
what is the most probable cause for a meter to overregister?
air in the line.
how is the register of a meter changed to match the actual fuel dispensed through the meter?
change the gear train ratio.
how much will each notch of the A.O. Smith coarse adjustment lever change the calibration?
138.8 cubic inches per 100 gallons.
the liquid control meter uses what type of movement to register the fuel?
blocking rotor and two displacement rotors.
if you changed the brodie coarse adjustment one position, what change would be made to the register reading?
6 gallons per 1,000 gallons.
if a Brodie meter reads 603 gallons on a 600 gallon run, what adjustments must be made?
push the coarse knob in one groove and pull the fine knob out two grooves.
how many hoses does a master meter have and where are they connected?
2 hoses; on the outlet side.
if the temperature readings of the master meter and the meter you are calibrating are not the same what should both readings be converted to?
60 degrees F.
How often is the master meter calibrated?
6 months or 1,200,000 gallons.
what is happening and what needs to be done if the automatic gauge reads 10 feet 2 inches and the tape and bob shows 10 feet 3_1/2 inches?
underreading; lengthen the cable 1_1/2 inches.
at what level in an underground tank does the low level control usually shut off the pump?
13 inches from the bottom of the tank.
where would a pressure vacuum gauge be found on the TYPE 2 (pritchard) hydrant system?
by the defuel pump.
a differential pressure gauge installed on a filter/separator measures the difference between what?
the higher inlet pressure and the lower outlet pressure.
at a minimum, how often are simple pressure gauges calibrated?
annually.
the dead weight tester is used to calibrate what?
pressure gauges.
tank truck unloading headers will be spaced about how many feet apart?
60 feet.
what type hose is used on an unloading header?
4 inch, API 1529, noncollapsible type.
the usual cause for an OPW swivel joint leak is a what?
worn o ring.
when receiving fuel by pipeline, what is the first component that fuel passes through at the bulk storage area?
the pressure reducing valve.
during an annual pressure test, what is used to pressurize a piping system and for how many hours should the pressure be maintained?
use the installed pumps and hold the pressure for 2 hours.
annual pipeline pressure test records are kept on file for how many years?
5 years.
during the 5 year pressure test, what is used to pressurize a pipeline, and for how many hours should the pressure be maintained?
use a hand pump and maintain pressure for 4 hours.
at what percent of system deadhead pressure will pipelines be tested during the hydrostatic test?
150 percent.
what is the minimum speed for a scraper when cleaning a pipeline?
2 mph.
how many turns should you be able to turn a new fitting by hand if the threads are of proper depth?
2_1/2 to 3 turns.
an impressed current cathodic protection system uses anodes made of what?
carbon.
what do unaccountable fluctuations of the rectifier in a cathodic protection system indicate?
stray current activity.
truck loading and offloading headers are grounded by what size and type of cable?
3/32 inch stainless stee.
what type of grounding rods are used on above ground fuel tanks?
galvanized steel.
how many 10,000 gallon storage tanks would normally be used at an automotive service station that offers leaded MOGAS, unleaded MOGAS, and diesel fuel?
1 for each product.
for safe dispersal of fuel vapors, a storage tank vent pipe must extend how high?
12 feet.
what type of gauging device is normally used to gauge service station tanks, and what is the increments of measurement used on this gauging device?
a stick gauge, with increments of 1/8th of an inch.
what type of valve is found on the suction line, inside the tank, if the fuel dispensing units are self contained?
a foot valve.
what is the difference between the motors used in the self contained single dispensing and the dual dispensing units?
dual dispensing motors have a higher horsepower rating.
what component regulates the flow through the service station dispensers?
a hydraulic control valve.
what must you do if you receive a new Tokheim dispensing unit that is set for 110 volts but the service station island is serviced for 220 volts?
reset the motor changeover plate.
what type of pumping unit is used in the Tokheim self contained dispensing units?
a gear type rotary.
how would you prime a self contained rotary pump?
squirt a heavy lubricating oil in the strainer cavity.
end play in a Tokheim pump can be taken up by removing the rotary pump head and doing what?
reducing the amount of gasket material.
you have replaced the pumphead of a Tokheim pump but the pump still binds. What can you do to solve the problem?
increase the number of gaskets used under the head, one at a time, until the pump is free.
which valve in the Tokheim self contained pumping unit equalizes the pressure in the system when the motor is turned off and the rotary pump and air separator assembly is at atmospheric pressure?
the surge check valve.
self contained units used with aboveground tanks must have what installed in their suction line?
a pressure regulating valve
the measuring unit drive shaft will make how many revolutions for each gallon of fuel delivered?
4 revolutions
in servicing the measuring unit you have to remove the wobble plate. Before removing the wobble plate from the measuring unit, you must mark it at some point because why?
it must be replaced in exactly the same position when reassembling the unit.
if the measuring unit computer on a dispenser does not reset to zero or the numerical wheels do not turn during delivery, the probable cause is a what?
broken shear pin
what should the vacuum reading be on a normal rotary pump installation?
4 to 6 inches.
what would cause a rotary pump to have an excessive vacuum reading?
the foot valve poppet spring is too heavy.
to check for sufficient pump pressure on a self contained dispensing unit, where should you install the pressure gauge?
on top of the meter cover.
with the rotary pump running and pumping against a closed nozzle, what should the pressure be if the bypass valve is functioning properly?
24.5 psi.
the rotary pump regulating valve is functioning properly when a pressure gauge is reading what?
18 psi one hour after the pump is turned off.
when connecting a 230 volt circuit for a submerged pump, what size fuse is used until the unit is checked out?
10 amp fuse.
a shorted capacitor on a submerged pumping system will give what reading on an ohmmeter?
zero resistance reading.
you suspect computer creeping in the remote control system. to confirm your suspicion, you take a pressure reading at the hydraulic valve just above the operating piston. what is the minimum acceptable pressure reading that would rule out computer creepin
25 psi.
why should you be careful when removing the automatic shutoff nozzle poppet valve cover?
there is a very stiff spring under the cover.
how many selectable fuel product pumps does each master vehicle identification reader have the capacity to control?
8
how many fuel dispensing pumps will one master vehicle identification reader and a maximum of eight satellite vehicle identification readers control?
72
The Class 1, Division 2, hazardous area around a service station dispenser extends outward how many feet and upward how many inches?
20 feet, 18 inches.
what type of electrical units and wiring is used in nonhazardous locations, such as pressurized control rooms?
general purpose, enclosed type.
what type grounding rod, if any, is used on a horizontal fuel tank installed under the pump house floor?
not required.
the pritchard system control room has how many electrical panels?
3; pump control, pump selector, and defuel pumps.
the positions of the pump control selector switch are what?
hand/off/auto.
emergency stop switches at a truck loading header must be no closer than how many feet?
25 feet.
the emergency stop switches have what type of contacts and complete which circuits?
closed contacts; low voltage for the fuel transfer pump control.
emergency stop switches are painted what color?
red.
which of the following should you check first if a pump motor will not start or hum?
control panel setup
what do most emergency service calls involve?
no delivery of fuel.
if the pump is running what should be your first stop in diagnosing a fuel delivery problem?
the as built drawings.
how many hydrant outlets are normally installed for each 302AF fueling and defueling valve?
1
the defuel line in the Panero hydrant system pit has a U bend for what reason?
to keep the entire line from draining.
what component aids in opening the 302AF fueling and defueling valve?
the ejector strainer.
what part on the 302AF fueling and defueling valve restricts the flow of fuel in the control tubing and under normal conditions will not close?
the pressure reducing control.
what indicates leakage past the diaphragm on the pressure relief control?
fuel leakage from the vent port.
what component closes the refueling side of the 302AF fueling and defueling valve when there is excess flow at the hydrant outlet?
the CDHS-3
the primary purpose of the orifice plate on the 302AF fueling and defueling valve is to create a differential pressure to do what?
operate the CDHS-3
during refueling, which 302AF fueling and defueling valve component is responsible for closing the defuel side of the main valve?
the solenoid.
when you adjust the unloading CRL on the 302AF fueling and defueling valve, at what pressure do you set the CRL?
5psi. above NOP.
when you adjust the 302AF fueling and defueling valve, at what rate do you set the CV flow control?
20 seconds.
in order to calculate the differential pressure required to adjust the CDHS-3 properly, you need to know the what?
gallons per minute delivery and orifice plate bore size.
what would happen if the vacuum breaker on a hose coupling failed to open?
fuel from the hydrant outlet and fueling hose would not drain properly.
the magnetic switch at the hydrant in the modified Panero system energizes the what?
302AF solenoid and deep well turbine pumps.
what would remedy leakage on the philadelphia hydrant adapter?
replace the flange gasket.
how many automatic valves are found in the lateral control pit of the Pritchard system?
4
what lateral control pit component cuts off the defuel pump when the hydrant outlet closes?
the vacuum control switch
when the cover chamber pressure of the 90AF-8 refueling control valve is at least as great as the inlet pressure what does the valve do?
closes tightly
what type solenoid is used on the 90AF-8 refueling control valve?
two port normally closed.
at what pressure is the CRD on the 90AF-8 refueling control valve set?
100 psi.
the setting of the pressure relief on the 90AF-8 refueling control valve is what?
5psi higher than the NIP of the 90AF-8
how often is the 90AF-8 refueling control valve operationally inspected?
quarterly.
before you set the CRL on the 90AF-8 refueling control valve, what pressure must you establish?
5 psi above normal downstream pressure.
what would probably cause the 90AF-8 refueling control vavle to open, then close?
the CDHS-3 tripping.
how many auxiliary components does the 50AF-2 pressure relief valve have in its control system?
2
why is the main valve body of the 50AF-2 pressure relief valve installed with the flow under the disc?
for system safety in case the main valve diaphragm ruptures.
how often should the 50AF-2 pressure relief valve be checked to ensure that it is opening and relieving pressure?
annually.
what is the standard setting for the 50AF-2 pressure relief valve's CRL?
10 psi above NIP of the 90AF-8
what would be a prime suspect if you noticed a 50AF-2 pressure relief valve pulsating during a refueling operation?
air in the main valve cover chamber.
the components of the 134AF defueling control valve include a valve position indicator, and what else?
a flow clean strainer, ejector, and solenoid.
how often is the 134AF defueling control valve operationally inspected?
semiannually.
what is the probable cause if the 41AF-10 main valve opens when refueling and is detected by the defueling pump rotating?
leakage through the normally closed solenoid valve.
the type 352AF hydrant adapter controls the level at which fuel flow stops in defueling in order to do what?
prevent air from entering the installed piping system.
when does the type 2 system defuel pump shut off automatically?
when the 352AF float assembly closes.
when the defuel pump shuts off automatically in the type 2 system what opens its electrical control circuit?
the vacuum control switch.
suppose you are testing a magnetic switch. What reading is shown on the ohmmeter when the magnet is placed on the switch plate?
zero.
after activating an emergency stop switch at the type 2 hydrant outlet, how do you reset the system to refuel?
manually reset the controls in the pump house control room.
when the piping system of a type 2 is not cathodically protected, to what are hydrant outlets grounded?
a galvanized grounding rod.
when a magnet is placed on the defuel KISS switch, the solenoid of the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve is energized open along with the what?
defuel pump.
what are the settings for both pressure reliefs on the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve?
low=5psi, and HIGH=5psi above the CRL on the 90AF-8
how often is the 41AF-10 operationally inspected?
semiannually.
what changes have to be made to the 352AF hydrant adapter and level control valve to permit rapid defueling?
install an angle valve, replace the cover with an aluminum blanking cap, and remove the float.
after adjusting the high pressure CRL on the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve, what is the last thing you should do to the CRL before leaving the area?
place cap back on the control and seal.
which component has failed if the 51AF-4 rapid defuel valve opens during a refueling operation?
the hytrol check valve is stuck off its seat.
what type piping is used on the receiving line of a type 3 system if the pipe is 8 inches in diameter?
Carbon steel, Schedule 40S
what type of piping is used in the hydrant loop of a type 3 system if the pipe is 12 inches in diameter?
stainless steel, schedule 20S.
what type of control tubing is used on the type 3 system?
seamless stainless steel.
at what differential pressure must the receiving strainer in the type 3 system be cleaned
10psi.
what causes the 40-28G to open and let fuel bypass the receiving separators when receiving fuel into a type 3 system from a cross country pipeline?
differential pressure of 15 psi sensed across the receiving separator.
what is not a function of the 40-27G filter/separator control valve?
pressure reducer.
once the 40-27G filter/separator control valve has closed due to high differential pressure, what must be done to get the valve to operate again?
manually reset the CDHS-3A
what type of meter is used in the receiving line of a type 3 system?
1,200 gpm positive displacement.
normally, which of the following tanks can be used on the type 3 system as an operating storage tank when the nearest bulk storage tank is 2 miles from the fueling apron?
10,000bbl.
where is the float assembly for the 413AF-5A high level shutoff valve on an aboveground operating storage tank located?
on the exterior side of the tank at the required shutoff height.
how can the closing feature of the 413AF-5A high level shutoff valve be tested without filling the tank with fuel up to the high level shutoff point?
manual tester on the high level shutoff float assembly.
a type 3 operating storage tank level indicator servo compartment must be listed for use in what?
Class 1, Division 1, Group D.
what actions occur when the low level alarm on a type 3 operating storage tank is activated?
a horn sounds, a light illuminates on the alarm window, and all fueling pumps are shut down.
what happens when the high level alarm is activated on a type 3 operating storage tank?
the high level alarm window on the PCP flashes, and a vibrating horn sounds.
what happens when the high high level alarm is activated on a type 3 operating storage tank?
the high level alarm window on the PCP flashes, and a resonating horn sounds.
how must the tank outlet valves be positioned to refuel an aircraft in a type 3 system?
one must be fully open and one must be fully closed.
what size is the product recovery tank in a type 3 system?
4,000 gallons.
what type of pump is used as the fuel transfer pump on the product recovery tank in the type 3 system?
a 50gpm deep well turbine pump.
the fuel transfer pump on the product recovery tank in a type 3 system automatically energizes when the tank is how full?
70percent full.
what valve is used as an overfill valve for the product recovery tank in the type 3 system?
the 2129AF.
how is thermal expansion relieved when the overfill valve on the product recovery tank in the type 3 system is closed?
a CRL bleeds pressure around the overfill valve.
what size piping is used for the suction header in the type 3 system?
16 inch.
what prevents leakage due to a complete seal failure on the type 3 fueling pump?
a nonsparking throttle bushing.
who defines the temperature rating for motors used with the fueling pumps in the type 3 system?
NFPA 70
the fueling pump and motor in the type 3 system must be aligned to within how many inches?
0.002 inches
what is the purpose of the flow switch in the type 3 system?
to lock on the lead pump.
how many solenoids are on the 136AF-9B emergency shutoff valve, and what does the valve do when the solenoid(s) energize?
2, and they free float.
what is the rating for the issue venturi, and where is it located within the type 3 system?
2,400 gpm, downstream of the emergency shutoff valve.
what is the rating of the return venturi, and where is it located in the type 3 system?
800 gpm, upstream of the back pressure control valve.
how many DPTs are piped into the return venturi on a 2,400 gpm type 3 system?
4
what is the range of the low range DPTs piped into the return venturi in the type 3 system?
0-100 gpm.
in the type 3 system, what milliampere signal is sent by the issue DPT when there is 1,200 gpm flowing through the issue venturi?
12 mA.
what points on the return venturi's high range DPT must be calibrated?
0 gpm, 560 gpm, 700 gpm.
at what pressure does the Brooks valve relieve excess nozzle pressure, and what dictates the Brooks valve set point?
55 psi, setting the air sense on the HSV at 65.
what opens the 362AF-8 hydrant control valve for refueling of an aircraft?
the pneumatic deadman.
at what pressure does the 58AF-9 backpressure control valve open to control the hydrant loop pressure?
100 psi at the farthest hydrant outlet.
at what pressure does the 58AF-3 pressure control valve close to trap loop pressure?
75 psi.
after refueling an aircraft and the lead pump de energizes, at what pressure does the 58AF-9-1 defuel/flush valve close?
80 psi.
what item is not found on the HSV checkout stand?
the fuel pump on/off switch.
what will be the first symbol in a rung of ladder logic?
contacts.
what is the term for the three step process of checking inputs, executing the program, and updating outputs in the PLC?
scan.
what must be done at the PCP to set up the type 3 system for fueling?
select the lead pump, place the system in automatic, and push system start.
what actions occur if the issue venturi senses 600 gpm and the return venturi senses 560 gpm or more for 60 seconds?
the 58AF-9 de energizes, pressure builds up to 175 psi, and the lead pump is called off.
what actions occur if the issue venturi senses 600 gpm and the return venturi senses 40 gpm or less for 10 seconds?
the lead pump continues to run and the second pump is called on.
what actions occur if the issue venturi senses 1,800 gpm and the return venturi senses 100 gpm for 15 seconds?
the lead, second, and third pumps continue to run.
what actions occur if the issue venturi senses 2,400 gpm and the return venturi senses 1,000 gpm for 15 seconds?
the fourth pump is called off.
when refueling and defueling at the same time in a type 3 system, where does the fuel being defueled go?
to other aircraft being refueled.
when must a type 3 system be flushed?
when the system is not used in 30 days.
how much fuel must be pumped to flush the hydrant loop of a type 3 system that contains 42,000 gallons?
84,000 gallons.
what must be done on the PCP to flush a type 3 system?
turn the system switch to flush and all available pump switches to hand.
what type of piping is used on the receiving line of a type 4 system if the pipe is 2 inches in diameter?
epoxy coated carbon steel, schedule 80S.
what is the primary method of receiving fuel in a type 4 system?
barges or pipelines.
what automatic valve is used as the receiving filter/separator control valve in a type 4 system?
40-27G
what valve is used on a type 4 cut and cover tank for high level shutoff?
129AF-3F.
once a type 4 operating storage tank high level alarm has been activated and acknowledged by the operator, when does the high level light go out?
when fuel is removed to a level below the high level alarm setting.
what is the purpose of the limit switch on the type 4 product recovery tank high level shutoff valve?
to signal the microprocessor when the main valve is closed.
to what psi differential is the pressure differential control on the type 4 emergency shutoff valve adjusted?
7 psi.
what type swivel joints are installed on a type 4 hoseless pantograph?
stainless steel, nonlubricated, flanged.
what type of refueling hose is installed on a type 4 hose end pantograph?
3 inch, API 1529, semi hardwall.
what position is the solenoid B of the 58AF-9-1 defuel/flush valve in during pantograph flushing, and what does it cause the main valve to do?
energized, causes the main valve to Open.
when is the solenoid in the 58AF-3 pressure control valve in the type 4 system de energized?
when all pumps are off.
what valve is used as the flush valve in a type 4 system?
136AF-5B
when a type 4 system is placed in the pantograph flush mode, what happens to the flush valve?
the solenoid is energized and the main valve closes.
what is the flow rate range of the high range differential pressure transmitters on the type 4 return venturi?
0-800 gpm.
what condition would cause a resonating horn to sound in a type 4 system?
emergency stop.
where are the pressure indicating transmitters located in a type 4 system?
on the issue line downstream of the 136AF-9B
when refueling in the refueling mode of a type 4 system, what is the condition of solenoid A on the 58AF-9-1 defuel/flush valve?
energized, enabled.
during an aircraft refueling in a type 4 system, where does flow increase as flow demand decreases through the 362AF-7 refueling control valve?
through the return venturi.
when a type 4 system is placed in the loop flush mode, what happens to the 136AF-5B flush valve?
the solenoid is deenergized to open the main valve.
when a type 4 system is placed in the pantograph flush mode, what happens to the 136AF-5B flush valve?
the solenoid is energized to close the main valve.

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